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  • JPA/Hibernate query with class name?

    - by Petteri Hietavirta
    In this example com.test.Cat extends com.test.Animal and there is no field DB in CAT table of com.test.Cat explicitly defining its type (it wasn't me). When I query my animals from DB I get a collection of Animals. It is possible to sort them by class name: order by r.class but is there a way to use class name as a criteria? For example I would like to get all animals expect dogs. But no luck - even this does not work: where r.class = ? (String "ccc.test.Cat") as I get an exception: Caused by: java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to java.lang.Integer at org.hibernate.type.IntegerType.set(IntegerType.java:64) at org.hibernate.type.NullableType.nullSafeSet(NullableType.java:154) at org.hibernate.type.NullableType.nullSafeSet(NullableType.java:136) at org.hibernate.param.PositionalParameterSpecification.bind(PositionalParameterSpecification.java:62) at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.bindParameterValues(QueryLoader.java:514) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.prepareQueryStatement(Loader.java:1589) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:696) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:259) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2228) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2125) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2120) at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.list(QueryLoader.java:401) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.list(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:361) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.performList(HQLQueryPlan.java:196) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1148) at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.list(QueryImpl.java:102) at org.hibernate.ejb.QueryImpl.getResultList(QueryImpl.java:67)

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  • Problems using Maven to initialize a local thoughtsite (App Engine sample) project in Eclipse

    - by ovr
    This sample app ("thoughtsite") for App Engine contains a pom.xml in its trunk: http://code.google.com/p/thoughtsite/source/browse/#svn/trunk I ran mvn eclipse:eclipse and also tried using m2eclipse to import this source code into an Eclipse project. But I end up with this error despite the fact that I have the Google App Engine plugin and the Google App Engine SDK installed: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkImplInfo.<clinit>(SdkImplInfo.java:19) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.Logging.initializeLogging(Logging.java:36) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerMain.main(DevAppServerMain.java:82) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to discover the Google App Engine SDK root. This code should be loaded from the SDK directory, but was instead loaded from file:~/.m2/repository/com/google/appengine/appengine-tools-sdk/1.3.0/appengine-tools-sdk-1.3.0.jar. Specify -Dappengine.sdk.root to override the SDK location. at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.findSdkRoot(SdkInfo.java:106) at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.<clinit>(SdkInfo.java:24) ... 3 more When I go into the project settings under "Google" and try to set it to use the default App Engine SDK it always reverts to trying to use Maven's App Engine SDK instead. No idea how to get this project working.

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  • Data is not saved in MS Access database

    - by qwerty
    Hello, I have a visual C# project and i'm trying to insert data in a MS Access Database when i press a button. Here is the code: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { OleDbDataAdapter adapter=new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.InsertCommand = new OleDbCommand(); adapter.InsertCommand.CommandText = "insert into Candidati values ('" + maskedTextBox1.Text.Trim() + "','" + textBox1.Text.Trim() + "', '" + textBox2.Text.Trim() + "', '" + textBox3.Text.Trim() + "','" + Convert.ToDouble(maskedTextBox2.Text) + "','" + Convert.ToDouble(maskedTextBox3.Text) + "')"; con.Open(); adapter.InsertCommand.Connection = con; adapter.InsertCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); MessageBox.Show("Inregistrare adaugata cu succes!"); maskedTextBox1.Text = null; maskedTextBox2.Text = null; maskedTextBox3.Text = null; textBox1.Text = null; textBox2.Text = null; textBox3.Text = null; maskedTextBox1.Focus(); } catch (AdmitereException exc) { MessageBox.Show("A aparut o exceptie: "+exc.Message, "Eroare!", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } The connection string is: private static string connectionString; OleDbConnection con; public AddCandidati() { connectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.JET.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Admitere.mdb"; con = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); InitializeComponent(); } Where AddCandidati is the form. The data is not saved in the database, why? I have the .mdb file in the project folder.. What i'm doing wrong? I did not got any exception when i press the button.. Thanks!

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  • HTTP 500 a problem on CAS Server while setting SSLVerifyClent as "required"

    - by Huiyu.Bird
    I have 3 server, a Apache Server, a JBOSS Server and a CAS Server for SSO. The Apache Server resolve all request with a domain such as www.request.com, and the path of CAS Server is www.request.com/cas, and JBOSS Server is www.request.com/jboss (This app got a CAS client). My problem is if I set SSLVerifyClient require for the NameVirtualHost of www.request.com in my Apache Server, I got a HTTP 500 error during the redirecting to the JBOSS Server(http://www.request.com/jboss), after logined in the CAS login page successfully. But everything goes successfully if there is no SSLVerifyClient require . Error logs of my Apache Server : [Mon Apr 19 17:07:25 2010] [error] Re-negotiation handshake failed: Not accepted by client!? Error logs of my JBOSS Server : 2010-04-19 17:29:57,263 ERROR [org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.[jboss.web].[localhost].[/jboss].[jsp]] (ajp-0.0.0.0-8009-1) Servlet.service() for servlet jsp threw exception org.jasig.cas.client.validation.TicketValidationException: The CAS server returned no response. at org.jasig.cas.client.validation.AbstractUrlBasedTicketValidator.validate(AbstractUrlBasedTicketValidator.java:162) at org.jasig.cas.client.validation.AbstractTicketValidationFilter.doFilter(AbstractTicketValidationFilter.java:129) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jasig.cas.client.authentication.AuthenticationFilter.doFilter(AuthenticationFilter.java:103) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jasig.cas.client.session.SingleSignOutFilter.doFilter(SingleSignOutFilter.java:78) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.springframework.web.filter.CharacterEncodingFilter.doFilterInternal(CharacterEncodingFilter.java:96) at org.springframework.web.filter.OncePerRequestFilter.doFilter(OncePerRequestFilter.java:75) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jboss.web.tomcat.filters.ReplyHeaderFilter.doFilter(ReplyHeaderFilter.java:96) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.in Any tips will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I change the text in a <span></span> element using jQuery?

    - by Eric Reynolds
    I have a span element as follows: <span id="download">Download</span>. This element is controlled by a few radio buttons. Basically, what I want to do is have 1 button to download the item selected by the radio buttons, but am looking to make it a little more "flashy" by changing the text inside the <span> to say more specifically what they are downloading. The span is the downloading button, and I have it animated so that the span calls slideUp(), then should change the text, then return by slideDown().Here is the code I am using that does not want to work. $("input[name=method]").change(function() { if($("input[name=method]").val() == 'installer') { $('#download').slideUp(500); $('#download').removeClass("downloadRequest").removeClass("styling").css({"cursor":"default"}); $('#download').text("Download"); $('#download').addClass("downloadRequest").addClass("styling").css({"cursor":"pointer"}); $('#download').slideDown(500); } else if($("input[name=method]").val() == 'url') { $('#download').slideUp(500); $('#download').removeClass("downloadRequest").removeClass("styling").css({"cursor":"default"}); $('#download').text("Download From Vendor Website"); $('#download').addClass("styling").addClass("downloadRequest").css({"cursor":"pointer"}); $('#download').slideDown(500); } }); I changed the code a bit to be more readable so I know that it doesn't have the short code that jQuery so eloquently allows. Everything in the code works, with the exception of the changing of the text inside the span. I'm sure its a simple solution that I am just overlooking. Any help is appreciated, Eric R.

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  • XSP2 crashes serving static images

    - by Dawkins
    Hi, Requesting a simple HTML page with a jpg image makes XSP2 crash. If I remove the image from the HTML then the page is served OK all the time. The version is XSP2 2.0 mono 2.6.1. the version 2.4.2.2 in the same machine works fine. I have tested it in two different machines, both Windows Vista Business SP1. Anyone has experienced the same? Any clue of what can be the problem? Below is the stack trace displayed by the console: (The line in Spanish says "it has been forced the interruption of an existing connection by the remote host") EDIT: since another user is having the same problem I have submited a bug to Novell and created a litle zip to reproduce the problem: https://bugzilla.novell.com/show_bug.cgi?id=582162 Peer unexpectedly closed the connection on write. Closing our end. System.IO.IOException: Write failure ---> System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: Se ha forzado la interrupción de una conexión existente por el host remoto. at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.Send (System.Byte[] buf, Int32 offset, Int32 size , SocketFlags flags) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 at Mono.WebServer.XSPWorker.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 position, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 Peer unexpectedly closed the connection on write. Closing our end. System.ObjectDisposedException: The object was used after being disposed. at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.CheckDisposed () [0x00000] in <filename un known>:0 at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 at Mono.WebServer.XSPWorker.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 position, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 Thank you.

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  • Java UnknownFormatConversionException

    - by user1672458
    The code below is throwing this error, and I'm not sure why. It's clearly a problem with outputting String.format to the str variable, but I don't know what's wrong with it. Exception in thread "main" java.util.UnknownFormatConversionException: Conversion = 'i' at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.conversion(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.<init>(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter.parse(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter.format(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter.format(Unknown Source) at java.lang.String.format(Unknown Source) at Donor.toString(Donor.java:41) at Donor.main(Donor.java:65) - import java.util.Scanner; public class Donor { public String name; public int age; public double donation; Donor() { //Initialized to these values for debugging name = "NoName"; age = 0; donation = 0; } Donor(String nameinit, int ageinit, double donationinit) { name = nameinit; age = ageinit; donation = donationinit; } public String toString() { String str = ""; str = String.format("%s-30%i-6$%d-20", name, age, donation); return str; } public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner input = new Scanner(System.in); String nameinit = null; int ageinit = -1; double donationinit = -1; String outp = null; System.out.print("Enter the donor's name: "); nameinit = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Enter the donor's age: "); ageinit = input.nextInt(); System.out.print("Enter the donation amount: "); donationinit = input.nextDouble(); Donor d = new Donor(nameinit, ageinit, donationinit); outp = d.toString(); System.out.printf("%s30 %s6 %s10", "Name", "Age", "Donation"); System.out.print("\n" + outp); input.close(); } }

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  • How to reliably replace a library-defined error handler with my own?

    - by sharptooth
    On certain error cases ATL invokes AtlThrow() which is implemented as ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which in turn throws CAtlException. The latter is not very good - CAtlException is not even derived from std::exception and also we use our own exceptions hierarchy and now we will have to catch CAtlException separately here and there which is lots of extra code and error-prone. Looks like it is possible to replace ATL::AtlThrowImpl() with my own handler - define _ATL_CUSTOM_THROW and define AtlThrow() to be the custom handler before including atlbase.h - and ATL will call the custom handler. Not so easy. Some of ATL code is not in sources - it comes compiled as a library - either static or dynamic. We use the static - atls.lib. And... it is compiled in such way that it has ATL::ThrowImpl() inside and some code calling it. I used a static analysis tool - it clearly shows that there're paths on which the old default handler is called. To ensure I even tried to "reimplement" ATL::AtlThrowImpl() in my code. Now the linker says it sees two declarations of ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which I suppose confirms that there's another implementation that can be called by some code. How can I handle this? How do I replace the default handler completely and ensure that the default handler is never called?

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  • org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException Within GWT application using hibernate through gilead

    - by molleman
    Hello Guys, i am working on a project for college that uses GWT,Hibernate and Gilead. Basically for the moment users should be able to add friends and remove them. also a user can see if his or her friends are online or not. my trouble is that when i add a friend that is already related to another friend i get this error org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: [com.example.client.YFUser#4] i have a service class public class TestServiceImpl extends PersistentRemoteService implements TestService { this is my service class for my gwt application. my toruble is here with my implmentation class of my serivce in this method that is called when a user presses add friend button on the client-side public void addYFUserFriend(String userName){ //this retrieves the current user YFUser user = (YFUser)getSession().getAttribute(SESSION_USER); Session session = com.example.server.HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); YFUser friend = (YFUser) session.createQuery("select u FROM YFUser u where u.username = :username").setParameter("username", userName).uniqueResult(); System.out.println("user " + friend.getUsername() + " Found"); user.getFriends().add(friend); friend.getBefriended().add(user); session.update(user); session.update(friend); session.getTransaction().commit(); } a scenerio : user1 adds user2 as a friend. this works fine. then user3 adds user2 and the exeception is thrown. any ideas why and where my logic is going wrong Ok so i have changed my code, and i have removed all the getCurrentASession() calls and replaced with openSession() call which are closed at the appropiate point, now the error i am getting is com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract void com.example.client.TestService.addYFUserFriend(java.lang.String)' threw an unexpected exception: org.hibernate.NonUniqueResultException: query did not return a unique result: 3

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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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  • Binding a date string parameter in an MS Access PDO query

    - by harryg
    I've made a PDO database class which I use to run queries on an MS Access database. When querying using a date condition, as is common in SQL, dates are passed as a string. Access usually expects the date to be surrounded in hashes however. E.g. SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #2013-05-25#; If I where to run this query using PDO I might do the following. //instatiate pdo connection etc... resulting in a $db object $stmt = $db->prepare('SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #:mydate#;'); //prepare the query $stmt->bindValue('mydate', '2013-05-25', PDO::PARAM_STR); //bind the date as a string $stmt->execute(); //run it $result = $stmt->fetch(); //get the results As far as my understanding goes the statement that results from the above would look like this as binding a string results in it being surrounded by quotes: SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #'2013-05-25'#; This causes an error and prevents the statement from running. What's the best way to bind a date string in PDO without causing this error? I'm currently resorting to sprintf-ing the string which I'm sure is bad practise. Edit: if I pass the hash-surrounded date then I still get the error as below: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'PDOException' with message 'SQLSTATE[22018]: Invalid character value for cast specification: -3030 [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver] Data type mismatch in criteria expression. (SQLExecute[-3030] at ext\pdo_odbc\odbc_stmt.c:254)' in C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php:49 Stack trace: #0 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php(49): PDOStatement-execute() #1 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php(52): database-execute() #2 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\try2.php(12): database-resultset() #3 {main} thrown in C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php on line 49

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  • simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending whether test is run in iso

    - by JW
    I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

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  • Crashing when pushing a XIB based view controller onto navigation controller stack

    - by Michael
    I was attempting to clean up the implementation for a sub-panel on a navigation controller stack, so that the navigation bar could be customized in the XIB instead of doing it manually in the viewDidLoad method. The original (working) setup had the XIB set up with the "File's Owner" class set to the view controller class, and then the view at the top level. This works fine. In the "Interface Builder User Guide", p. 71, it describes the recommended way to build the XIBs for sub-panels ("additional navigation levels"). This approach leaves the "File's Owner" class as NSObject, but adds a UIViewController at the top level, and nests the view (and navigation item) underneath it. The UIViewController's view automatically gets connected to the contained view. When I try to push the controller init'd with this new XIB, the app crashes because of a missing view: SettingsViewController *controller = [[SettingsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SettingsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; 2010-04-23 11:17:37.135 xxxx[1173:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '-[UIViewController _loadViewFromNibNamed:bundle:] loaded the "SettingsTestView" nib but the view outlet was not set.' I've double checked everything, and tried building a clean XIB from scratch, but get the same result. I looked through a number of the code sample projects, and NONE of them use the documented/recommended approach--they all use the File's Owner class and manually set up the navigation bar in viewDidLoad like I originally had it. Is it possible to get it working the "recommended" way? Thanks! Michael

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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  • Why are changes to coffeescript files not being compiled when my Rails 3.2.0 app is in development mode?

    - by ben
    Normally, any changes I make to .js.coffee files in my Rails 3.2.0 app in development mode take effect when I refresh the page. All of a sudden, this is not happening. If I do rake assets:precompile, then the changes are shown, but then if I do rake assets:clean they go back to not being shown. What is causing this? Edit: Restarting the server makes the changes show. Why isn't this happening automatically as before? Edit: Here is my development.rb Myapp::Application.configure do # Settings specified here will take precedence over those in config/application.rb # In the development environment your application's code is reloaded on # every request. This slows down response time but is perfect for development # since you don't have to restart the web server when you make code changes. config.cache_classes = false # Log error messages when you accidentally call methods on nil. config.whiny_nils = true # Show full error reports and disable caching config.consider_all_requests_local = true config.action_controller.perform_caching = false # Don't care if the mailer can't send config.action_mailer.raise_delivery_errors = false # Print deprecation notices to the Rails logger config.active_support.deprecation = :log # Only use best-standards-support built into browsers config.action_dispatch.best_standards_support = :builtin # Raise exception on mass assignment protection for Active Record models config.active_record.mass_assignment_sanitizer = :strict # Log the query plan for queries taking more than this (works # with SQLite, MySQL, and PostgreSQL) config.active_record.auto_explain_threshold_in_seconds = 0.5 # Do not compress assets config.assets.compress = false # Expands the lines which load the assets config.assets.debug = true config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => 'localhost:3000' } config.log_level = :warn end

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  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • How do I find out what process Id and thread id / name has a file open

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am using C# in an application and am having some problems with a file becoming locked. The piece of code does this, while (true) { Read a packet from a socket (with data in it to add to the file) Open a file Writes data to it Close a file } But in the process the file becomes locked. I don't really understand how, we are are definately catching and reporting exceptions so I don't see how the file doesn't get closed every time. My best guess is that something else is opening the file, but I want to prove it. Can someone please provide a piece of code to check whether the file is open and if so report what processid and threadid has the file open. For example if I had this code, StreamWriter streamWriter1 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.WriteLine("Test"); // code to check for locks?? StreamWriter streamWriter2 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.Close(); streamWriter2.Close(); That will throw an exception because the file is locked when we try and open it the second time. So where the comment is what could I put in there to report that the current app (process Id) and the current thread (thread Id) have the file locked? Thanks.

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  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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  • Dependency Injection Question - ASP.NET

    - by Paul
    I'm starting a web application that contains the following projects: Booking.Web Booking.Services Booking.DataObjects Booking.Data I'm using the repository pattern in my data project only. All services will be the same, no matter what happens. However, if a customer wants to use Access, it will use a different data repository than if the customer wants to use SQL Server. I have StructureMap, and want to be able to do the following: Web project is unaffected. It's a web forms application that will only know about the services project and the dataobjects project. When a service is called, it will use StructureMap (by looking up the bootstrapper.cs file) to see which data repository to use. An example of a services class is the error logging class: public class ErrorLog : IErrorLog { ILogging logger; public ErrorLog() { } public ErrorLog(ILogging logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void AddToLog(string errorMessage) { try { AddToDatabaseLog(errorMessage); } catch (Exception ex) { AddToFileLog(ex.Message); } finally { AddToFileLog(errorMessage); } } private void AddToDatabaseLog(string errorMessage) { ErrorObject error = new ErrorObject { ErrorDateTime = DateTime.Now, ErrorMessage = errorMessage }; logger.Insert(error); } private void AddToFileLog(string errorMessage) { // TODO: Take this value from the web.config instead of hard coding it TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"E:\Work\Booking\Booking\Booking.Web\Logs\ErrorLog.txt", true); writer.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ---------- " + errorMessage); writer.Close(); } } I want to be able to call this service from my web project, without defining which repository to use for the data access. My boostrapper.cs file in the services project is defined as: public class Bootstrapper { public static void ConfigureStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { x.AddRegistry(new ServiceRegistry()); } ); } public class ServiceRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IErrorLog>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<Booking.Services.Logging.ErrorLog>(); ForRequestedType<ILogging>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<SqlServerLoggingProvider>(); } } } What else do I need to get this to work? When I defined a test, the ILogger object was null. Thanks,

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • Filling combobox from database by using hibernate in Java

    - by denny
    Heyy; I am developing a small swing based application with hibernate in java. And I want fill combobox from database coloumn.How i can do that ? And I don't know in where(under initComponents, buttonActionPerformd) i need to do. For saving i'am using jbutton and it's code is here : private void jButton1ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { int idd=Integer.parseInt(jTextField1.getText()); String name=jTextField2.getText(); String description=jTextField3.getText(); Session session = null; SessionFactory sessionFactory = new Configuration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); session = sessionFactory.openSession(); Transaction transaction = session.getTransaction(); try { ContactGroup con = new ContactGroup(); con.setId(idd); con.setGroupName(name); con.setGroupDescription(description); transaction.begin(); session.save(con); transaction.commit(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally{ session.close(); } }

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  • SQL Server lock/hang issue

    - by mattwoberts
    Hi, I'm using SQL Server 2008 on Windows Server 2008 R2, all sp'd up. I'm getting occasional issues with SQL Server hanging with the CPU usage on 100% on our live server. It seems all the wait time on SQL Sever when this happens is given to SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD. Here is the Stored Proc that causes the hang. I've added the "WITH (NOLOCK)" in an attempt to fix what seems to be a locking issue. ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MostPopularRead] AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource as ContentSource , sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) as Popularity , (sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) * 100) / @Total as Percent , @Total as TotalHits from ContentHit ch WITH (NOLOCK) join [Content] c WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.ContentId = c.ContentId join HitWeight hw WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.HitWeightId = hw.HitWeightId join ContentType ct WITH (NOLOCK) on c.ContentTypeId = ct.ContentTypeId where ch.CreatedDate between @Then and @Now group by c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource order by sum(ch.HitCount * hw.HitWeightMultiplier) desc END The stored proc reads from the table "ContentHit", which is a table that tracks when content on the site is clicked (it gets hit quite frequently - anything from 4 to 20 hits a minute). So its pretty clear that this table is the source of the problem. There is a stored proc that is called to add hit tracks to the ContentHit table, its pretty trivial, it just builds up a string from the params passed in, which involves a few selects from some lookup tables, followed by the main insert: BEGIN TRAN insert into [ContentHit] (ContentId, HitCount, HitWeightId, ContentHitComment) values (@ContentId, isnull(@HitCount,1), isnull(@HitWeightId,1), @ContentHitComment) COMMIT TRAN The ContentHit table has a clustered index on its ID column, and I've added another index on CreatedDate since that is used in the select. When I profile the issue, I see the Stored proc executes for exactly 30 seconds, then the SQL timeout exception occurs. If it makes a difference the web application using it is ASP.NET, and I'm using Subsonic (3) to execute these stored procs. Can someone please advise how best I can solve this problem? I don't care about reading dirty data... Thanks

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  • Why does my call to Activator.CreateInstance intermittently fail?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I'm using the following code to access the Windows Explorer Shell's band site service: Guid GUID_TrayBandSiteService = new Guid(0xF60AD0A0, 0xE5E1, 0x45cb, 0xB5, 0x1A, 0xE1, 0x5B, 0x9F, 0x8B, 0x29, 0x34); Type shellTrayBandSiteService = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(GUID_TrayBandSiteService, true); site = Activator.CreateInstance(shellTrayBandSiteService) as IBandSite; Mostly, it works great. A very small percentage of the time (less than 1%), the call to Activator.CreateInstance throws the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80040154): Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {F60AD0A0-E5E1-45CB-B51A-E15B9F8B2934} failed due to the following error: 80040154. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) at System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) I've looked up the error code, and it appears to indicate that the service isn't registered. That's nonsense in my case, since I'm trying to access a service provided by the operating system (explorer.exe, to be specific). I'm stumped. What might cause Activator.CreateInstance fail, but only rarely?

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