Search Results

Search found 11993 results on 480 pages for 'define syntax'.

Page 419/480 | < Previous Page | 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426  | Next Page >

  • Is there a jQuery Equivalent of YUI 2 Custom Event Publish/Subscribe Event Model?

    - by Abe
    Hello! I learned how to develop in Javascript using the YUI 2 library and was wondering if there is a jQuery equivalent of Custom Events (http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/event/#customevent) Specifically, I want to be able to define custom events without having to attach the listeners initially. In YUI, I would create a page class and declare different custom events that can be subscribed to. Below is some example code to demonstrate what I want to do, but with jQuery function ListPage() { var me = this; this.initEvent = new YAHOO.util.CustomEvent("initEvent"); this.init = function() { // initialize events, DOM, etc this.initEvent.fire(me); } } In application Javascript, I would then like to subscribe to the initEvent. var page = new ListPage(); page.initEvent.subscribe( function (type, args) { // do stuff here } ); page.init(); Are there any tutorials/examples of something this in jQuery? I understand I can do something similar using bind() and trigger(), but the impression I get is I have to pass in the event handler when I call bind(). Is it possible in jQuery to create the custom event, but pass in the event handler later? I hope my question makes sense. thanks!

    Read the article

  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Displaying a message after adding duplicate records in database

    - by user1770370
    I wrote program in C# winforms and SQL server and LINQ to SQL. I use user control instead of form. In my user control, I put 3 textbox, txtStartNumber, txtEndNumber, txtQuantity. user define value of textboxes, when clicked button, it will insert some records according to the value of txtQuantity. I want to when duplicate number is created, it won't add to database and display message. how do i do? I must write code in code behind or server side? i must set this in store procedure or trigger? private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { long from = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_f.Text); long to = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_t.Text); long quantity = Convert.ToInt64(to - from); int card_Type_ID=Convert.ToInt32(cmb_BracodeType .SelectedValue); long[] arrCardNum = new long[(to - from)]; arrCardNum[0]=from; for (long i = from; i < to; i++) { for(int j=0; j<(to-from) ;j++) { arrCardNum[j]=from+j; string r = arrCardNum[j].ToString(); sp.SaveCards(r, 2, card_Type_ID, SaveDate, 2); } } } Stored Procedure code. ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.SaveCards @Barcode_Num int ,@Card_Status_ID int ,@Card_Type_ID int ,@SaveDate varchar(10) ,@Save_User_ID int AS BEGIN INSERT INTO [Parking].[dbo].[TBL_Cards] ([Barcode_Num] ,[Card_Status_ID] ,[Card_Type_ID] ,[Save_User_ID]) VALUES (@Barcode_Num ,@Card_Status_ID ,@Card_Type_ID ,@Save_User_ID) END

    Read the article

  • Repository Pattern Standardization of methods

    - by Nix
    All I am trying to find out the correct definition of the repository pattern. My original understanding was this (extremely dubmed down) Separate your Business Objects from your Data Objects Standardize access methods in data access layer. I have really seen 2 different implementations. Implementation 1 : public Interface IRepository<T>{ List<T> GetAll(); void Create(T p); void Update(T p); } public interface IProductRepository: IRepository<Product> { //Extension methods if needed List<Product> GetProductsByCustomerID(); } Implementation 2 : public interface IProductRepository { List<Product> GetAllProducts(); void CreateProduct(Product p); void UpdateProduct(Product p); List<Product> GetProductsByCustomerID(); } Notice the first is generic Get/Update/GetAll, etc, the second is more of what I would define "DAO" like. Both share an extraction from your data entities. Which I like, but i can do the same with a simple DAO. However the second piece standardize access operations I see value in, if you implement this enterprise wide people would easily know the set of access methods for your repository. Am I wrong to assume that the standardization of access to data is an integral piece of this pattern ? Rhino has a good article on implementation 1, and of course MS has a vague definition and an example of implementation 2 is here.

    Read the article

  • $this->url() to another subdomain

    - by Supertino7
    Hello, I created subdomain for my application. host_www.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_www.route = "www.mywebsite.com" host_www.defaults.module = "produits" host_www.defaults.controller = "produits" host_www.defaults.action = "index" fiche_boutique.route = "ficheboutique/:boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.controller = "boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.action = "fiche-boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.module = "default" fiche_boutique.chain = "host_www" host_produits.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_produits.route = "produits.mywebsite.com" host_produits.defaults.module = "produits" host_produits.defaults.controller = "produits" host_produits.defaults.action = "index" fiche_produit.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex" fiche_produit.route = "([-\w]+).htm" fiche_produit.reverse = "%s.htm" fiche_produit.map.1 = "q" fiche_produit.defaults.module = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.controller = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.action = "voir-produit" fiche_produit.chain = "host" I don't know if the syntax in this zend config ini file is correct, in particular for routes chaining. Once I'm on this subdomain, urls constructed with $this-url() like this : <a href="<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> still point to the subdomain produits.mywebsite.com, where I want it to point to www.mywebsite.com For the moment, I do this : <a href="http://www.mywebsite.com<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> But it's not flexible at all. Is there a solution, a parameter to add, or my config file is wrong ? thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

    Read the article

  • $ is not defined

    - by coffeeaddict
    I cannot figure out why it's still not recognizing jQuery syntax when I clearly have included the jQuery library right before my $(document).ready <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head id="Head1"><title> </title></head> <body> <form name="form1" method="post" action="jQueryDialogTest.aspx" id="form1"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE2MTY2ODcyMjlkZA==" /> </div> <script src="content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="content/js/popup.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div id="testDialog" winWidth="400" winHeight="500" winResizable="true"> Some test mark-up, should show inside the dialog </div> <div><input type="button" id="invokeDialog" value="Click Me!" /></div> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("input.invokeDialog").click.showDialog("#testDialog"); }); </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

  • Help me sort programing languages a bit

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, so I asked here few days ago about C# and its principles. Now, if I may, I have some additional general questions about some languages, becouse for novice like me, it seems a bit confusing. To be exact I want to ask more about language functions capabilities than syntax and so. To be honest, its just these special functions that bothers me and make me so confused. For exmaple, C has its printf(), Pascal has writeln() and so. I know in basic the output in assembler of these funtions would be similiar, every language has more or less its special functions. For console output, for file manipulation, etc. But all these functions are de-facto part of its OS API, so why is for example in C distinguished between C standard library functions and (on Windows) WinAPI functions when even printf() has to use some Windows feature, call some of its function to actually show desired text on console window, becouse the actuall "showing" is done by OS. Where is the line between language functions and system API? Now languages I dont quite understand - Python, Ruby and similiar. To be more specific, I know they are similiar to java and C# in term they are compiled into bytecode. But, I do not unerstand what are its capabilities in term of building GUI applications. I saw tutorial for using Ruby to program GUI applications on Linux and Windows. But isn´t that just some kind of upgrade? I mean fram other tutorials It seemed like these languages was first intended for small scripts than building big applications. I hope you understand why I am confused. If you do, please help me sort it out a bit, I have no one to ask.

    Read the article

  • replacing elements horizontally and vertically in a 2D array

    - by wello horld
    the code below ask for the user's input for the 2D array size and prints out something like this: (say an 18x6 grid) .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. code starts here: #include <stdio.h> #define MAX 10 int main() { char grid[MAX][MAX]; int i,j,row,col; printf("Please enter your grid size: "); scanf("%d %d", &row, &col); for (i = 0; i < row; i++) { for (j = 0; j < col; j++) { grid[i][j] = '.'; printf("%c ", grid[i][j]); } printf("\n"); } return 0; } I now ask the user for a string, then ask them where to put it for example: Please enter grid size: 18 6 Please enter word: Hello Please enter location: 0 0 Output: Hello............. .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. Please enter location: 3 4 Output: .................. .................. .................. ..Hello........... .................. .................. program just keeps going. Any thoughts on how to modify the code for this? PS: Vertical seems way hard, but I want to start on horizontal first to have something to work on.

    Read the article

  • Windows Phone 7 applications - Orientation Change

    - by Peter Perhác
    Hello there fellow developers! I am working on a Windows Phone 7 app and I can't figure out what I believe is a simple problem for the more seasoned ones. Say I have a layout consisting of two elements: a ListBox (filled with an abundance of items) and a TextBlock (providing the user with some basic instructions). I want these to be one above the other when the device is in Portrait orientation and I want these to be next to each other when the device orientation changes to Landscape. For the Portrait orientation I am using a Grid layout manager, as it lets me define the rows' heights like so... row 0 Height="2*", row 1 Height="*" Listbox sits in row 0, TextBlock in row 1. Now, what would be really neat is to simple change the RowDefinitions into ColumnDefinitions and reassign the listbox/textblock to the grid's columns instead of rows for when the device switches into Landscape. But that's just my idea. I don't know how to get this done elegantly. Maybe there's a better approach to this? Or maybe this is the correct approach and there is some method built for exactly this purpose? Thank you for your suggestions!

    Read the article

  • How to reference input elements within a specific scope when there are multiple input elements of same kind?

    - by Will Merydith
    How do I select data for input elements within a specific scope? I have the same form multiple times (class "foo-form), and want to ensure I get the values for the hidden inputs within the scope of the form being submitted. Is the scope "this" implied? If not, what is the syntax for selecting input class "foo-text" within the scope of this? Feel free to point me to examples in the jquery docs - I could not find what I was looking for. $('.foo-form').submit(function() { // Store a reference to this form var $thisForm = $(this); }); <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> // user clicks this submit button </form>

    Read the article

  • Scalable way to store files on server (PHP)?

    - by Nathaniel Bennett
    I'm creating my first web application - a really simplistic online text editor. What I need to do is find the best way to store text based files - a lot of them. These text files can be past 10,000 words in size (text words not computer words.) in essence I want the text documents to be limitless in size. I was thinking about storing the text files in my MySQL database - but thought there was a better way. Instead I'm planing on storing the text files in XML based format in a directory on my server. The rows in the database define the name of the xml based text file and the user who created the text along with basic metadata. An ID is generated using a V4 GUID generator , which gives the text an id and stores the text in the "/store" directory on my server. The text definitions in my server contain this id, and the android app I'm developing gets the contents of the text file by retrieving the text definition and then downloading the text to the local device using the GUID in the text definition. I just think this is a botch job? how can I improve this system? There has been cases of GUID colliding. I don't want this to happen. A "slim" possibility isn't good enough - I need to make sure there is absolutely no chance in a GUID collision. I was planning on checking the database for texts that have the same id before storing the text with a particular id - I however believe with over 20,000 pieces of text in my database this would take an long time and produce unneeded stress on the server. How can I make GUID safe? What happens when a GUID collides? The server backend is going to be written in PHP.

    Read the article

  • ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

    - by supertrue
    I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

    Read the article

  • Can't referr to my get method

    - by chility
    I have this amazing and good looking class: public class SayingsHolder extends Application{ ArrayList<String> SayingsList = new ArrayList<String>(){{ SayingsList.add("1"); SayingsList.add("2"); }}; public ArrayList<String> getSayingsList() { return SayingsList; } } Now I'm trying to call the getSayingsList method inside of my activity's FragmentStatePagerAdapter by: private class ScreenSlidePagerAdapter extends FragmentStatePagerAdapter { final SayingsHolder holder = (SayingsHolder).getApplication(); } Everything fine for now, but when I make my code like this: private class ScreenSlidePagerAdapter extends FragmentStatePagerAdapter { final SayingsHolder holder = (SayingsHolder).getApplication(); holder.getSayingsList(); } it says: Syntax error on token "getSayingsList", Identifier expected after this token The problem is that holder is not functional at all. What I mean is that when i type the this holder. the getSayingsList is not showing at all. What am I missing here? I know that it is an extremely small issue, but it seems that I can't spot it. My activity extends FragmentActivity if it's important It seems that I'm missing something here. I can't call my method anywhere in my activity. I'm starting a bounty, because I need an example.

    Read the article

  • [jQuery UI - Accordion] Styling active header?

    - by RC
    Hi, Simple issue: I am using Accordion without any UI themes (just barebones, using my own CSS). So far, so good, except that I cannot figure out how to set an "active" style for the currently selected header. The jQuery code: $("#menu").accordion({ event:"mouseover",header:"a.top" }); The HTML code: <a href="#" class="top">XXX1</a> <div class="sub"> <a href="#">Subheading 1</a> <a href="#">Subheading 2</a> <a href="#">Subheading 3</a> </div> <a href="#" class="top">XXX2</a> <div class="sub"> <a href="#">Subheading 1</a> <a href="#">Subheading 2</a> <a href="#">Subheading 3</a> </div> This works great, except that I cannot find a way to define the styles for the active header without using ThemeRoller. Manually setting the following styles in my CSS has no effect: .ui-state-active .ui-widget-content .ui-state-active .ui-state-active a .ui-state-active a:link .ui-state-active a:visited Assistance, please?

    Read the article

  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance! EDIT: The database looks like this: http://i41.tinypic.com/5agciu.jpg (Can't post images yet.)

    Read the article

  • How to update attributes without valitation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

    Read the article

  • Type-safe generic data structures in plain-old C?

    - by Bradford Larsen
    I have done far more C++ programming than "plain old C" programming. One thing I sorely miss when programming in plain C is type-safe generic data structures, which are provided in C++ via templates. For sake of concreteness, consider a generic singly linked list. In C++, it is a simple matter to define your own template class, and then instantiate it for the types you need. In C, I can think of a few ways of implementing a generic singly linked list: Write the linked list type(s) and supporting procedures once, using void pointers to go around the type system. Write preprocessor macros taking the necessary type names, etc, to generate a type-specific version of the data structure and supporting procedures. Use a more sophisticated, stand-alone tool to generate the code for the types you need. I don't like option 1, as it is subverts the type system, and would likely have worse performance than a specialized type-specific implementation. Using a uniform representation of the data structure for all types, and casting to/from void pointers, so far as I can see, necessitates an indirection that would be avoided by an implementation specialized for the element type. Option 2 doesn't require any extra tools, but it feels somewhat clunky, and could give bad compiler errors when used improperly. Option 3 could give better compiler error messages than option 2, as the specialized data structure code would reside in expanded form that could be opened in an editor and inspected by the programmer (as opposed to code generated by preprocessor macros). However, this option is the most heavyweight, a sort of "poor-man's templates". I have used this approach before, using a simple sed script to specialize a "templated" version of some C code. I would like to program my future "low-level" projects in C rather than C++, but have been frightened by the thought of rewriting common data structures for each specific type. What experience do people have with this issue? Are there good libraries of generic data structures and algorithms in C that do not go with Option 1 (i.e. casting to and from void pointers, which sacrifices type safety and adds a level of indirection)?

    Read the article

  • compile c problem in emacs (ubuntu)

    - by user565739
    I wrote a very simple program like: ( sorry, I typed the code in the right way, but the display is wired. How could I fix it?) #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { int i; for ( i = 0; i <= 10; i++ ) { printf( "%d hello!\n", i); } return 0; } Usually, I compile c program in terminal with the command cc -o xxx xxx.c So in Emacs, when I type M-x compile, I change make -k to cc -o. But I got error like cc: argument to '-o' is missing What's the problem? If I use make, then I still got error No targets specified and no makefiles found. Finally, if the above problem is fixed, how could I define a custom hotkey for compile? I have already know how to do something like global-set-key [f8] 'goto-line But I don't know to set a hotkey for an action only for c-mode.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

    - by digidave0205
    I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

    Read the article

  • How can I write a function template for all types with a particular type trait?

    - by TC
    Consider the following example: struct Scanner { template <typename T> T get(); }; template <> string Scanner::get() { return string("string"); } template <> int Scanner::get() { return 10; } int main() { Scanner scanner; string s = scanner.get<string>(); int i = scanner.get<int>(); } The Scanner class is used to extract tokens from some source. The above code works fine, but fails when I try to get other integral types like a char or an unsigned int. The code to read these types is exactly the same as the code to read an int. I could just duplicate the code for all other integral types I'd like to read, but I'd rather define one function template for all integral types. I've tried the following: struct Scanner { template <typename T> typename enable_if<boost::is_integral<T>, T>::type get(); }; Which works like a charm, but I am unsure how to get Scanner::get<string>() to function again. So, how can I write code so that I can do scanner.get<string>() and scanner.get<any integral type>() and have a single definition to read all integral types? Update: bonus question: What if I want to accept more than one range of classes based on some traits? For example: how should I approach this problem if I want to have three get functions that accept (i) integral types (ii) floating point types (iii) strings, respectively.

    Read the article

  • Interesting Scala typing solution, doesn't work in 2.7.7?

    - by djc
    I'm trying to build some image algebra code that can work with images (basically a linear pixel buffer + dimensions) that have different types for the pixel. To get this to work, I've defined a parametrized Pixel trait with a few methods that should be able to get used with any Pixel subclass. (For now, I'm only interested in operations that work on the same Pixel type.) Here it is: trait Pixel[T <: Pixel[T]] { def mul(v: Double): T def max(v: T): T def div(v: Double): T def div(v: T): T } Now I define a single Pixel type that has storage based on three doubles (basically RGB 0.0-1.0), I've called it TripleDoublePixel: class TripleDoublePixel(v: Array[Double]) extends Pixel[TripleDoublePixel] { var data: Array[Double] = v def this() = this(Array(0.0, 0.0, 0.0)) def toString(): String = { "(" + data(0) + ", " + data(1) + ", " + data(2) + ")" } def increment(v: TripleDoublePixel) { data(0) += v.data(0) data(1) += v.data(1) data(2) += v.data(2) } def mul(v: Double): TripleDoublePixel = { new TripleDoublePixel(data.map(x => x * v)) } def div(v: Double): TripleDoublePixel = { new TripleDoublePixel(data.map(x => x / v)) } def div(v: TripleDoublePixel): TripleDoublePixel = { var tmp = new Array[Double](3) tmp(0) = data(0) / v.data(0) tmp(1) = data(1) / v.data(1) tmp(2) = data(2) / v.data(2) new TripleDoublePixel(tmp) } def max(v: TripleDoublePixel): TripleDoublePixel = { val lv = data(0) * data(0) + data(1) * data(1) + data(2) * data(2) val vv = v.data(0) * v.data(0) + v.data(1) * v.data(1) + v.data(2) * v.data(2) if (lv > vv) (this) else v } } Now I want to write code to use this, that doesn't have to know what type the pixels are. For example: def idiv[T](a: Image[T], b: Image[T]) { for (i <- 0 until a.data.size) { a.data(i) = a.data(i).div(b.data(i)) } } Unfortunately, this doesn't compile: (fragment of lindet-gen.scala):145: error: value div is not a member of T a.data(i) = a.data(i).div(b.data(i)) I was told in #scala that this worked for someone else, but that was on 2.8. I've tried to get 2.8-rc1 going, but it doesn't compile for me. Is there any way to get this to work in 2.7.7?

    Read the article

  • WCF hosting: Can access svc file but cannot go to wsdl link

    - by Impulse
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is hosted in IIS 7.5. I have two servers, one for test and one for production. The service works fine on test server, but on the production server I have the following error. When I access the address http//..../service.svc I can see the default page that says: You have created a service. To test this service, you will need to create a client and use it to call the service. You can do this using the svcutil.exe tool from the command line with the following syntax: svcutil.exe http://..../service.svc?wsdl This will generate a configuration file and a code file that contains the client class. Add the two files to your client application and use the generated client class to call the Service. But when I click the wsdl link, I cannot go to the wsdl page. It returns me to this default web page without any errors. I am suspecting a network/firewall authorization error but does anybody have an experience like this one? All IIS settings are the same for test and production servers. Thank you, Best Regards.

    Read the article

  • Bizzare Java invalid Assignment Operator Error

    - by Kay
    public class MaxHeap<T extends Comparable<T>> implements Heap<T>{ private T[] heap; private int lastIndex; private static final int defaultInitialCapacity = 25; public void add(T newItem) throws HeapException{ if (lastIndex < Max_Heap){ heap[lastIndex] = newItem; int place = lastIndex; int parent = (place – 1)/2; //ERROR HERE********** while ( (parent >=0) && (heap[place].compareTo(heap[parent])>0)){ T temp = heap[place]; heap[place] = heap[parent]; heap[parent] = temp; place = parent; parent = (place-1)/2; }else { throw new HeapException(“HeapException: Heap full”); } } } Eclipse complains that there is a: "Syntax error on token "Invalid Character", invalid AssignmentOperator" With the red line beneath the '(place-1)' There shouldn't be an error at all since it's just straight-forward arithmetic. Or is it not that simple?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426  | Next Page >