Search Results

Search found 12046 results on 482 pages for 'hidden fields'.

Page 419/482 | < Previous Page | 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426  | Next Page >

  • How do I make JavaScript to set these element values?

    - by dmanexe
    I have two fields that need to multiply each other and fill a 3rd form's value. Here's the HTML: <input type="text" name="estimate[concrete][price]" value="" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> per SF <strong>times</strong> <input type="text" name="estimate[concrete][sqft]" value="" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> SF = <input type="text" name="estimate[concrete][quick_total]" value="" /> Here's my JavaScript: function calc_concreteprice(mainform) { var oprice; var ototal; oprice = ((mainform.estimate[concrete][sqft].value) * (mainform.estimate[concrete][price].value)); ototal = (oprice); mainform.estimate[concrete][quick_total].value = ototal; } I want the first two forms to be multiplied together and output to the third. I think my problem may be within how I am referencing the input field names, with brackets (I'm taking results from this form as an array so I'm already used to working with the results as a multi-dimensional array). Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Adding a Way To preserve A Comma In A CSV To DataTable Function

    - by Nick LaMarca
    I have a function that converts a .csv file to a datatable. One of the columns I am converting is is a field of names that have a comma in them i.e. "Doe, John" when converting the function treats this as 2 seperate fields because of the comma. I need the datatable to hold this as one field Doe, John in the datatable. Function CSV2DataTable(ByVal filename As String, ByVal sepChar As String) As DataTable Dim reader As System.IO.StreamReader Dim table As New DataTable Dim colAdded As Boolean = False Try ''# open a reader for the input file, and read line by line reader = New System.IO.StreamReader(filename) Do While reader.Peek() >= 0 ''# read a line and split it into tokens, divided by the specified ''# separators Dim tokens As String() = System.Text.RegularExpressions.Regex.Split _ (reader.ReadLine(), sepChar) ''# add the columns if this is the first line If Not colAdded Then For Each token As String In tokens table.Columns.Add(token) Next colAdded = True Else ''# create a new empty row Dim row As DataRow = table.NewRow() ''# fill the new row with the token extracted from the current ''# line For i As Integer = 0 To table.Columns.Count - 1 row(i) = tokens(i) Next ''# add the row to the DataTable table.Rows.Add(row) End If Loop Return table Finally If Not reader Is Nothing Then reader.Close() End Try End Function

    Read the article

  • Java: refactoring static constants

    - by akf
    We are in the process of refactoring some code. There is a feature that we have developed in one project that we would like to now use in other projects. We are extracting the foundation of this feature and making it a full-fledged project which can then be imported by its current project and others. This effort has been relatively straight-forward but we have one headache. When the framework in question was originally developed, we chose to keep a variety of constant values defined as static fields in a single class. Over time this list of static members grew. The class is used in very many places in our code. In our current refactoring, we will be elevating some of the members of this class to our new framework, but leaving others in place. Our headache is in extracting the foundation members of this class to be used in our new project, and more specifically, how we should address those extracted members in our existing code. We know that we can have our existing Constants class subclass this new project's Constants class and it would inherit all of the parent's static members. This would allow us to effect the change without touching the code that uses these members to change the class name on the static reference. However, the tight coupling inherent in this choice doesn't feel right. before: public class ConstantsA { public static final String CONSTANT1 = "constant.1"; public static final String CONSTANT2 = "constant.2"; public static final String CONSTANT3 = "constant.3"; } after: public class ConstantsA extends ConstantsB { public static final String CONSTANT1 = "constant.1"; } public class ConstantsB { public static final String CONSTANT2 = "constant.2"; public static final String CONSTANT3 = "constant.3"; } In our existing code branch, all of the above would be accessible in this manner: ConstantsA.CONSTANT2 I would like to solicit arguments about whether this is 'acceptable' and/or what the best practices are.

    Read the article

  • JSON is not being recognised

    - by richzilla
    Hi All, Im having a bit of trouble getting my JSON to be recognised by my web page. I have validated JSON that im getting returned from server, so i know that is correct, however my javascript function is not doing anything with it. My succes function is as follows: success: function(data) { $('input[name=customer_name]').val(data.name); $('textarea[name=customer_address]').text(data.address); $('input[name=customer_email]').val(data.email); $('input[name=customer_tel]').val(data.tel); $('input[name=user_id]').val(item.id); } Yet the fields are not being repopulated with the data that is returned, if it helps, a sample of my JSON data: { "name": "Terry O'Toole", "address": "Terrys House\nTerry Street\nTerrysville\nTerrytown\nTT1 6TT", "email": "[email protected]", "tel": "05110000000" } Any help would be appreciated. [EDIT] Expanded ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "<?php echo site_url('user/users/ajax'); ?>", type: 'POST', data: {"userid": item.id}, success: function(data) { $('input[name=customer_name]').val(data.name); $('textarea[name=customer_address]').text(data.address); $('input[name=customer_email]').val(data.email); $('input[name=customer_tel]').val(data.tel); $('input[name=user_id]').val(item.id); } }) });

    Read the article

  • Large Product catalog with statistics - alternatives to Sql Server?

    - by Eric P
    I am building UI for a large product catalog (millions of products). I am using Sql Server, FreeText search and ASP.NET MVC. Tables are normalized and indexed. Most queries take less then a second to return. The issue is this. Let's say user does the search by keyword. On search results page I need to display/query for: First 20 matching products (paged, sorted) Total count of matching products for paging List of stores only of matching products List of brands only of matching products List of colors only of matching products Each query takes about .5 to 1 seconds. Altogether it is like 5 seconds. I would like to get the whole page to load under 1 second. There are several approaches: Optimize queries even more. I already spent a lot of time on this one, so not sure it can be pushed further. Load products first, then load the rest of the information using AJAX. More like a workaround. Will need to revise UI. Re-organize data to be more Report friendly. Already aggregated a lot of fields. I checked out several similar sites. For ex. zappos.com. Not only they display the same information as I would like in under 1 second, but they also include statistics (number of results in each category). The following is the search for keyword "white" http://www.zappos.com/white How do sites like zappos, amazon make their results, filters and stats appear almost instantly?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to return a list of numbers from a Sybase function?

    - by ps_rs4
    I'm trying to overcome a very serious performance issue in which Sybase refuses to use the primary key index on a large table because one of the required fields is specified indirectly through another table - or, in other words; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = 123 runs in ms but SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE, LTLTBL WHERE KFIELD = LTLTBL.LOOKUP AND LTLTBL.UNIQUEID = 'STRINGREPOF123' takes 30 - 40 seconds. I've managed to work around this first problem by using a function that basically lets me do this; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = MYFUNC('STRINGREPOF123') which also runs in ms. The problem, however, is that this approach only works when there is a single value returned by MYFUNCT but I have some cases where it may return 2 or 3 values. I know that the SQL SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD IN (123,456,789) also returns in millis so I'd like to have a function that returns a list of possible values rather than just a single one - is this possible? Sadly the application is running on Sybase ASA 9. Yes I know it is old and is scheduled to be refreshed but there's nothing I can do about it now so I need logic that will work with this version of the DB. Thanks in advance for any assistance on this matter.

    Read the article

  • How to hide an dom element after creating it on the fly with Jquery ?

    - by ismaelsow
    I am trying to build a form where users can add a text field by clicking on a "add option" button. They can also remove added fields by a "remove option" link created on the fly by Jquery, along with the text field. My code looks like this : $(document).ready(function(){ $("#add_option").click(function(){ var form = $("form"); var input_field = '<input type="text" />'; var delete_link = '<a href="#">remove</a>'; form.append(input_field + delete_link); return false; }); $("a").click(function(){ alert('clicked'); return false; }); }); This code is not working : when I click on the "add_option" button, a new text field and the "delete_link" appear. But when clicking on the "delete_link" created by JQuery, the browser follows the link instead of launching a pop-up displaying "clicked". Any idea ? Thanks !

    Read the article

  • PHP generating csv not sending correct new line feeds

    - by sjw
    I have a script that generates a csv file using the following code: header('Content-type: text/csv'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.date("Ymdhis").'.csv"'); print $content; The $content variable simply contains lines with fields separated by commas and then finalised with ."\n"; to generate a new line. When I open the file in csv it looks fine however, when I try to use the file to import into an external program (MYOB) it does not recognise the End Of Line (\n) character and assumes one long line of text. When I view the contents of the file in notepad, the end of line character (\n) is a small rectangle box which looks like the character code 0x7F. If I open the file and re-save it in excel, it removes this character and replaces it with a proper end of line character and I can import the file. What character do I need to be generating in PHP so that notepad recognises it as a valid End Of Line character? (\n) obviously doesn't do the job.

    Read the article

  • Suggestion on Database structure for relational data

    - by miccet
    Hi there. I've been wrestling with this problem for quite a while now and the automatic mails with 'Slow Query' warnings are still popping in. Basically, I have Blogs with a corresponding table as well as a table that keeps track of how many times each Blog has been viewed. This last table has a huge amount of records since this page is relatively high traffic and it logs every hit as an individual row. I have tried with indexes on the fields that are included in the WHERE clause, but it doesn't seem to help. I have also tried to clean the table each week by removing old ( 1.weeks) records. SO, I'm asking you guys, how would you solve this? The query that I know is causing the slowness is generated by Rails and looks like this: SELECT count(*) AS count_all FROM blog_views WHERE (created_at >= '2010-01-01 00:00:01' AND blog_id = 1); The tables have the following structures: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blogs' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'perma_name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'author_id' int(11) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, 'blog_picture_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture2_id' int(11) default NULL, 'page_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture3_id' int(11) default NULL, 'active' tinyint(1) default '1', PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blogs_on_author_id' ('author_id') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; And CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blog_views' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'blog_id' int(11) default NULL, 'ip' varchar(255) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blog_views_on_blog_id' ('blog_id'), KEY 'created_at' ('created_at') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ;

    Read the article

  • custom *arbitrary* TemplateField definitions

    - by end-user
    I'm building a GridView on the fly, and I'd like to pre-define the TemplateFields to be included ondemand. So, what I'd like to do is have a declarative file that defines how the different templates look for a specific column. Like: <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a text column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> data goes here </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox Text="databindhere" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a bool column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> if(true) "yes" else "no" </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox Checked="databindme" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> So, if my query had a text and two bool fields, I could push the appropriate TemplateFields in the the Columns property as needed. (I hope I'm making sense here) So, how would I go about creating declarative files for the above definitions? And then, how would I reference those definitions programmatically?

    Read the article

  • What are the interets of synthetic methods?

    - by romaintaz
    Problem One friend suggested an interesting problem. Given the following code: public class OuterClass { private String message = "Hello World"; private class InnerClass { private String getMessage() { return message; } } } From an external class, how may I print the message variable content? Of course, changing the accessibility of methods or fields is not allowed. (the source here, but it is a french blog) Solution The code to solve this problem is the following: try { Method m = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethod("access$000", OuterClass.class); OuterClass outerClass = new OuterClass(); System.out.println(m.invoke(outerClass, outerClass)); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Note that the access$000 method name is not really standard (even if this format is the one that is strongly recommanded), and some JVM will name this method access$0. Thus, a better solution is to check for synthetic methods: Method method = null; int i = 0; while ((method == null) && (i < OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods().length)) { if (OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i].isSynthetic()) { method = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i]; } i++; } if (method != null) { try { System.out.println(method.invoke(null, new OuterClass())); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } So the interesting point in this problem is to highlight the use of synthetic methods. With these methods, I can access a private field as it was done in the solution. Of course, I need to use reflection, and I think that the use of this kind of thing can be quite dangerous... Question What is the interest - for me, as a developer - of a synthetic method? What can be a good situation where using the synthetic can be useful?

    Read the article

  • In Java, is there a performance gain in using interfaces for complex models?

    - by Gnoupi
    The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public methods from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations. Edit: Plenty of valid points in most answers, I'm wondering if I won't switch this question for a community wiki, so we can regroup these points in more structured answers.

    Read the article

  • I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

    - by Moulde
    Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

    Read the article

  • Setting initial state of a JSF component to invalid

    - by user359391
    Hi there I have a small JSF application where the user is required to enter some data about themselves. For each component on the page that has required="true" I want to show an icon depending if there is data in the field or not. My problem is that when the page is initially shown all fields are valid, even if they do not have any data in them. So my question is how I can set a component to be invalid based on if there is data in the field or not? After a submit of the page (or after the component loses focus) the icon is shown properly, it is only on the initial page load I have a problem. (i.e there is no post data) Here is my xhtml for a component that needs to be validated: <s:decorate id="employeeIdDecoration" template="/general/util/errorStyle.xhtml"> <ui:define name="label">#{messages['userdetails.employeeId']}</ui:define> <h:inputText value="#{authenticator.user.employeeId}" required="true"> <a4j:support event="onblur" reRender="employeeIdDecoration" bypassUpdates="true"/> </h:inputText> the template: <s:label styleClass="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <ui:insert name="label"/> <s:span styleClass="required" rendered="#{required}">*</s:span> </s:label> <span class="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <s:validateAll> <ui:insert/> </s:validateAll> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/redx.png" rendered="#{invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/Checkmark.png" rendered="#{!invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> </span> Any help will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • java: assigning object reference IDs for custom serialization

    - by Jason S
    For various reasons I have a custom serialization where I am dumping some fairly simple objects to a data file. There are maybe 5-10 classes, and the object graphs that result are acyclic and pretty simple (each serialized object has 1 or 2 references to another that are serialized). For example: class Foo { final private long id; public Foo(long id, /* other stuff */) { ... } } class Bar { final private long id; final private Foo foo; public Bar(long id, Foo foo, /* other stuff */) { ... } } class Baz { final private long id; final private List<Bar> barList; public Baz(long id, List<Bar> barList, /* other stuff */) { ... } } The id field is just for the serialization, so that when I am serializing to a file, I can write objects by keeping a record of which IDs have been serialized so far, then for each object checking whether its child objects have been serialized and writing the ones that haven't, finally writing the object itself by writing its data fields and the IDs corresponding to its child objects. What's puzzling me is how to assign id's. I thought about it, and it seems like there are three cases for assigning an ID: dynamically-created objects -- id is assigned from a counter that increments reading objects from disk -- id is assigned from the number stored in the disk file singleton objects -- object is created prior to any dynamically-created object, to represent a singleton object that is always present. How can I handle these properly? I feel like I'm reinventing the wheel and there must be a well-established technique for handling all the cases.

    Read the article

  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

    Read the article

  • Processing forms that generate many rows in DB

    - by Zack
    I'm wondering what the best approach to take here is. I've got a form that people use to register for a class and a lot of times the manager of a company will register multiple people for the class at the same time. Presently, they'd have to go through the registration process multiple times and resubmit the form once for every person they want to register. What I want to do is give the user a form that has a single <input/> for one person to register with, along with all the other fields they'll need to fill out (Email, phone number, etc); if they want to add more people, they'll be able to press a button and a new <input/> will be generated. This part I know how to do, but I'm including it to best describe what I'm aiming to do. The part I don't know how to approach is processing that data the form submits, I need some way of making a new row in the Registrant table for every <input/> that's added and include the same contact information (phone, email, etc) as the first row with that row. For the record, I'm using the Django framework for my back-end code. What's the best approach here? Should it just POST the form x times for x people, or is there a less "brute force" way of handling this?

    Read the article

  • hibernate empty collection in component

    - by Jurgen H
    I have a component mapped using Hibernate. If all fields in the component in the database are null, the component itself is set to null by hibernate. This is the expected behavior and also what I need. The problem I have, is that when I add a bag to that component, the bag is initialized to an empty list. This means the component has a non null value... resulting in the component being created. Any idea how to fix this? <class name="foo.bar.Entity" table="Entity"> <id name="id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="departure" column="departure_time" /> <property name="arrival" column="arrival_time" /> <component name="statistics"> <bag name="linkStatistics" lazy="false" cascade="all" > <key column="entity_id" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many class="foo.bar.LinkStatistics" /> </bag> <property name="loggedTime" column="logged_time" /> ... </component> A criteria with Restirctions.isNull("statistics") does return the expected values.

    Read the article

  • Can I have two names for the same variable?

    - by Roman
    The short version of the question: I do: x = y. Then I change x, and y is unchanged. What I want is to "bind" x and y in such a way that I change y whenever I change x. The extended version (with some details): I wrote a class ("first" class) which generates objects of another class ("second" class). In more details, every object of the second class has a name as a unique identifier. I call a static method of the first class with a name of the object from the second class. The first class checks if such an object was already generated (if it is present in the static HashMap of the first class). If it is already there, it is returned. If it is not yet there, it is created, added to the HashMap and returned. And then I have the following problem. At some stage of my program, I take an object with a specific name from the HashMap of the first class. I do something with this object (for example change values of some fields). But the object in the HashMap does not see these changes! So, in fact, I do not "take" an object from the HashMap, I "create a copy" of this object and this is what I would like to avoid.

    Read the article

  • Play! 1.2.5 with mongodb | Model Validation not happening

    - by TGV
    I have a simple User model whose fields are annotated with play validation annotations and morphia annotations like below. import play.data.validation.*; import play.modules.morphia.Model; import com.google.code.morphia.annotations.*; @Entity public class User extends Model{ @Id @Indexed(name="USERID", unique=true) public ObjectId userId; @Required public String userName; @Email @Indexed(name="USEREMAIL", unique=true) @Required public String userEmail; } Now I have a service which has a CreateNewUser method responsible for persisting the data. I have used Morphia plugin for the dao support. But the problem is that User Document gets persisted in mongo-db even if userName or userEmail is NULL. Also @Email validation does not happen // Below code is in app/controllers/Application.java User a = new User(); a.userName = "user1"; // calling bean to create user, userService is in app/service/UserService userService.createNewUser(a); It does not work even after adding @valid and validation.hasErrors() check.Below code is in app/service/UserService public void createNewUser(@Valid User user) { if (Validation.hasErrors()) { System.out.println("has errors"); } else { // TODO Auto-generated method stub userDao.save(user); } }

    Read the article

  • Using the JPA Criteria API, can you do a fetch join that results in only one join?

    - by Shaun
    Using JPA 2.0. It seems that by default (no explicit fetch), @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) fields are fetched in 1 + N queries, where N is the number of results containing an Entity that defines the relationship to a distinct related entity. Using the Criteria API, I might try to avoid that as follows: CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<MyEntity> query = builder.createQuery(MyEntity.class); Root<MyEntity> root = query.from(MyEntity.class); Join<MyEntity, RelatedEntity> join = root.join("relatedEntity"); root.fetch("relatedEntity"); query.select(root).where(builder.equals(join.get("id"), 3)); The above should ideally be equivalent to the following: SELECT m FROM MyEntity m JOIN FETCH myEntity.relatedEntity r WHERE r.id = 3 However, the criteria query results in the root table needlessly being joined to the related entity table twice; once for the fetch, and once for the where predicate. The resulting SQL looks something like this: SELECT myentity.id, myentity.attribute, relatedentity2.id, relatedentity2.attribute FROM my_entity myentity INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity1 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity1.id INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity2 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity2.id WHERE relatedentity1.id = 3 Alas, if I only do the fetch, then I don't have an expression to use in the where clause. Am I missing something, or is this a limitation of the Criteria API? If it's the latter, is this being remedied in JPA 2.1 or are there any vendor-specific enhancements? Otherwise, it seems better to just give up compile-time type checking (I realize my example doesn't use the metamodel) and use dynamic JPQL TypedQueries.

    Read the article

  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Inserting object and related object into 2 tables

    - by ile
    I have two tables: Users and UserOwners. Table UserOwners contains list of users that certain user created (list of child-users) - or to be more precise, it contains UserOwnerID and UserID fields. So, now I want to create a new user... in Controller I have something like this: var userOwner = accountRepository.GetUser(User.Identity.Name); var userOwnerID = userOwner.UserID; UserReference userReference = new UserReference(); userReference.UserOwnerID = userOwnerID; if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //accountRepository.Add(user); //accountRepository.Save(); return View(); } catch { return View(); } } What is the easiest way to add new user to a table Users and matching UserOwner to UserOwners table. Is it suppose to be something like this? public void Add(User user) { db.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); db.UserReferences.InsertOnSubmit(user.UserReference); } ...or I will have to pass two objects and after adding user I must read it's ID and than assign it to userReference object and add that object to DB? If so, how to read ID of the last object added? Thanks, Ile

    Read the article

  • Display a summary of form element values before submit

    - by Dirty Bird Design
    Using jquery formtowizard.js with an ajax submit. I want the last step of the form to display a summary of all form fields that were filled out. I can get it to work in isolated test cases, but not in full use. Form <form id="Commission" method="post" action="PHP/CommissionsSubmit.php"> <fieldset id="Initial"> <legend>Enter Your Information</legend> <ul> <li> <label for="FName">First Name*</label><input type="text" name="FName" id="FName"> </li> //repeat many li's </ul> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Second Step</legend> //more li's </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Confirmation</legend> <span id="CFName"></span> </fieldset> </form> the jquery to get "#CFName" value $('#FName').keyup(function() { $('#CFName').val($(this).val()); }); I can't get the value to appear in the span "#CFName"... Could this have to do with the "serialize" function or anything going on with my $ajax submit function? its happening before submit... Please help! I apologize, but I've gone back and forth with "#CFName" being a span and an input, using .val and .html respectively

    Read the article

  • Fasted way to develop data entry screens for a .NET backend ?

    - by jay23
    I am a .NET / C# back end guy. I am working on a app that will have about 200 different data entry screens. For me exposing DTO as a collection for CRUD (IUpdatable and IQueryable) is the easy part, can do it in sleep :-). What I am trying to decide is what type of front end technology will allow me to develop these data entry screens fast. They don't have to be fancy but they are not just plain grid either and on average they have about 15 form fields and some client side data validation (no db look up) Options I am looking at are Use ExtJS on the front and REST / JSON on the back. ASP.NET RIA but I do not know SL (Well XAML) Plain ASP.NET / MVC One idea I had was the DTO will contain the meta data about the form (As Attributes) and the form can be dynamically generated, but i do not want to reinvent the wheel if their is an easy way. I have looked at RAD software but all of them look at the DB and generate screens. I rather want some thing that can look at my DTO and generate screens. Jay

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426  | Next Page >