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  • How to add Flex 4 spark List Item custom properties

    - by maik3l
    I'm trying to make a simple flash application providing interface for taking tests as a high school assignment. One of the requirements is to use an XML file as data source.Now, having a List component bound to the XML file with questions consisting of data such as question body, question type (ie. single choice, multiple choice, open, image etc.) and possible answers (where applicable), I was wondering if I could add some additional data (and what is the best possible way to do so) to each question upon its transfer to the List component. I am trying to achieve two main goals with this: firstly, to mark the questions to which an answer has already been given, like with such code in ItemRenderer class: <s:Label color="{data.color}" text="{data.label}"/> where data.color would be set whenever the user gives an answer to a question. Secondly, while at it, I thought of such possibility as a great way to store answers given to particular questions. In this case, the Class of the answer object would have been Object, since there has to be many type of questions (where the answer could also be a Bitmap for example). This is a question of both how to do it and if it seems a good idea at all (and if no, if there is a better way?), because I am quite new to the whole Flash Builder and Flex thing and I am not really accustomed to all the possibilities and best practices. Thanks!

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  • Linking Apache to Tomcat with multiple domains.

    - by Royce Thigpen
    Okay, so I've been working for a while on this, and have been searching, but so far I have not found any answers that actually answer what I want to know. I'm a little bit at the end of my rope with this one, but I'm hoping I can figure this out sometime soon. So I have Apache 2 installed and serving up standard webpages, but I also have that linked to a Tomcat instance for one of my domains currently supported. However, I want to add another domain to the server via Apache that points to a separate code base from the one I already have. I have been coming at this from several different angles, and I have determined that I just don't know enough about setting up these servers to really do what I want to do. Little information on my server: Currently running a single Tomcat5.5 instance with Apache 2, using mod_jk to connect them together. I have a worker in workers.properties that points it's "host" field to "localhost" with the correct port my Tomcat instance, so that all works. In my Tomcat server.xml file, I have a host defined as "localhost" that points at my webapp that I am currently serving up, with that host set as the defaultHost as well. One thought I had was that I could add a new worker with a different host than "localhost" (i.e. host2) and then define a new host in my server.xml file called "host2" to match it, but after reading around some on the internet, It seems the "host" of the worker must point to a server, and not a hostname in the Tomcat instance, is this correct? Again, a simple rundown of what I want: Setup in apache/tomcat combo such that www.domain1.com points at "webapp1" and www.domain2.com points at "webapp2".

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  • Which JavaScript Libraries do not rely on a document and navigator object?

    - by Julian Weimer
    I'm currently looking for some libraries which might help me during iPhone Development using Appcelerator Titanium. I've heard that since version 1.0 it isn't dependant on webkit anymore and it makes app-development more exiting of course, please correct me if i'm wrong. As many people out there i love Javascript Frameworks such as JQuery and Mootools much, but they were build specifically to do a great job within a browser and most of the functionality is not needed within the environment Titanium now provides (DOM-Manipulation etc). Is there any other small library of useful functions i can use for development? Thx in advance.

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  • VS2010 - Using <Import /> to share properties between setup projects?

    - by arex1337
    Why doesn't it work to <Import /> this file, when it works when I replace the statement with just copy-pasting the three properties? ../../Setup.Version.proj <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <InstallerMajorVersion>7</InstallerMajorVersion> <InstallerMinorVersion>7</InstallerMinorVersion> <InstallerBuildNumber>7</InstallerBuildNumber> </PropertyGroup> </Project> Works: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Project ToolsVersion="4.0" DefaultTargets="Build" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <InstallerMajorVersion>7</InstallerMajorVersion> <InstallerMinorVersion>7</InstallerMinorVersion> <InstallerBuildNumber>7</InstallerBuildNumber> <OutputName>asdf-$(InstallerMajorVersion).$(InstallerMinorVersion).$(InstallerBuildNumber)</OutputName> <OutputType>Package</OutputType> Doesn't work: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Project ToolsVersion="4.0" DefaultTargets="Build" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Import Project="../../Setup.Version.proj" /> <PropertyGroup> <OutputName>asdf-$(InstallerMajorVersion).$(InstallerMinorVersion).$(InstallerBuildNumber)</OutputName> <OutputType>Package</OutputType> Here the variables just evaulate to empty strings... :( I'm certain the path to the imported project is correct.

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  • ojspc always returns 0 on errors

    - by Matt McCormick
    In my Ant build.xml file, I am trying to compile JSPs using ojspc. The files are being compiled, however, the build process is still running to completion when the JSP compilation has errors. This is part of my build.xml: <java fork="true" jar="${env.ORACLE_HOME}\j2ee\home\ojspc.jar" resultproperty="result"> <jvmarg value="-Djava.compiler=NONE"/> <arg value="-extend"/> <arg value="com.orionserver.http.OrionHttpJspPage"/> <arg value="-batchMask"/> <arg value="*.jsp"/> <arg value="${target-directory}/build/target/ear/${module-dir-name}-jsp.war"/> </java> <echo level="info">Result Property: ${result}</echo> I have tried setting the property failonerror="true" but that does not change anything. I receive the following output: [java] Detected archive, now processing contents of ../build/target/ear/web-module-jsp.war... [java] Setting up temp area... [java] Expanding archive in temp area... [java] C:\DOCUME~1\MMCCOR~1\LOCALS~1\Temp\tmp12940\_web_2d_inf\_jsp\_password.java:60: cannot resolve symbol [java] symbol : variable reqvst [java] location: class _web_2d_inf._jsp._password [java] out.print(reqvst.getAttribute("test")); [java] ^ [java] 1 error [java] Creating D:\eclipse-workspace\jdw\build\..\build\target\ear\web-module-jsp.war ... [java] Removing temp area... [echo] Result Property: 0 ...(more commands) BUILD SUCCESSFUL In the password.jsp file, I intentionally introduced an error to test. How can I get the build to fail on an error? At the Ant Java page, I am confused by: By default the return code of a is ignored. Alternatively, you can set resultproperty to the name of a property and have it assigned to the result code (barring immutability, of course). When you set failonerror="true", the only possible value for resultproperty is 0. Any non-zero response is treated as an error and would mean the build exits.

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  • Document to String?

    - by Nate
    I've been fiddling with this for over twenty minutes and my Google-foo is failing me. Let's say I have an XML Document created in Java (org.w3c.dom.Document): DocumentBuilderFactory docFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder docBuilder = docFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document document = docBuilder.newDocument(); Element rootElement = document.createElement("RootElement"); Element childElement = document.createElement("ChildElement"); childElement.appendChild(document.createTextNode("Child Text")); rootElement.appendChild(childElement); document.appendChild(rootElement); String documentConvertedToString = "?" // <---- How? How do I convert the document object into a text string?

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  • Why does $('#id') return true if id doesn't exist?

    - by David
    I always wondered why jQuery returns true if I'm trying to find elements by id selector that doesnt exist in the DOM structure. Like this: <div id="one">one</div> <script> console.log( !!$('#one') ) // prints true console.log( !!$('#two') ) // is also true! (empty jQuery object) console.log( !!document.getElementById('two') ) // prints false </script> I know I can use !!$('#two').length since length === 0 if the object is empty, but it seems logical to me that a selector would return the element if found, otherwise null (like the native document.getElementById does). F.ex, this logic can't be done in jQuery: var div = $('#two') || $('<div id="two"></div>'); Wouldnt it be more logical if the ID selector returned null if not found? anyone?

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  • How can I make a Jeditable (jQuery) span activate editing on more than one event?

    - by JonathanHayward
    For the jQuery extension Jeditable, one of the parameters that can be specified is which DOM event will turn a div/span/... into a text input/textarea/... I would like to have more than one event serve as a trigger; that is, I would like either a click event or a contextmenu event to turn a span into an in-place edit area. Is there a graceful way to do this without forking Jeditable? --edit-- An example of code specifying the event is below. The parameter is optional, defaulting to a regular click. $(".edit_rightclick").editable("/ajax/save", { cancel: "Cancel", submit: "OK", tooltip: "Right click to edit.", event: "contextmenu", }); Calling twice, once for the regular click event with the event unspecified, and one for the contextmenu event (right-click if there are no switched mouse buttons or anything like that) does not seem to produce the intended effect of an element becoming editable in place on a click from either mouse button.

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  • Survey statistic diagram ideas

    - by Nort
    Hey everyone, I've got some homework tasks in topic surveys and diagrams. The first task is to normalize the input of a survey, because the structure of the data is changing from time-to-time. So there are three types of surveys: static fields, where text is stored dynamic ones, where the user can select one option and multiselect fields, where the user can select multiple options So I'm not really a statistics guy, so I have really no idea what I can do with that incomming data. So the data I have is stored in an orbital XML file from there I can easily get how man times a survey was filled, and how many times a field was filled, so I can (for eg on a pie chart show the relation of filled or not filled). The second idea is to show the relation between the content of a multi option element using a bar chart or so. In case of the multi option elements I've got the idea to show data in implication of one option. But the question is, what could be shown? The other problem are the static elements (text fields and so). What data could be represented from a single field? The data in the XML field is collected from 2001 to 2005 So maybe I can work with the dates of the surveys, but as I said, i don't really know how to process the data, to collect as much data as possible.

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 Ajax response?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

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  • How can I build a generic dataset-handling Perl library?

    - by Pep.
    Hello, I want to build a generic Perl module for handling and analysing biomedical character separated datasets and which can, most certain, be used on any kind of datasets that contain a mixture of categorical (A,B,C,..) and continuous (1.2,3,881..) and identifier (XXX1,XXX2...). The plan is to have people initialize the module and then use some arguments to point to the data file(s), the place were the analysis reports should be placed and the structure of the data. By structure of data I mean which variable is in which place and its name/type. And this is where I need some enlightenment. I am baffled how to do this in a clean way. Obviously, having people create a simple schema file, be it XML or some other format would be the cleanest but maybe not all people enjoy doing something like this. The solutions I can think of are: Create a configuration file in XML or similar and with a prespecified format. Pass the information during initialization of the module. Use the first row of the data as headers and try to guess types (ouch) Surely there must be a "canonical" way of doing this that is also usable and efficient. Thanks p.

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  • Easy way to replicate web page across machines?

    - by Mike_G
    I am trying to replicate a browser page to another browser on another machine. I basically want to reproduce a page exactly how it appears to a customer for viewing by the website owner. I have done this before using some impersonation trickery, but found that it would throw the session state out of wack when the site owner would switch customers. So I would like to stay away from cookie and authentication manipulation. Anybody done anything like that? Is there a way to easily transfer the DOM to a webservice? The tech/programming at my disposal are C#, javascript, WCF.

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  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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  • Serialization of Entity Framework Models with .NET WCF Rest Service

    - by Chris Phillips
    I'm trying to put together a very simple REST-style interface for communicating with our partners. An example object in the API is a partner, which we'd like to have serialized like this: <partner> <id>ID</id> <name>NAME</name> </partner> This is fairly simply to achieve using the .NET 4.0 WCF REST template if we simply declare a partner class as: public class Partner { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } But when I use the Entity Framework to define and store Partner objects, the resulting serialization looks something like this: <Partner p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns:p1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/TheTradeDesk.AdPlatform.Provisioning"> <EntityKey p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data.Objects.DataClasses"> <EntityContainerName xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data">String content</EntityContainerName> <EntityKeyValues xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data"> ... This XML is obviously unacceptable for use as an external API. What are suggested mechanisms for using EF for the data store but maintaining a simple XML serialization interface?

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  • Best way to associate data files with particular tests in RSpec / Ruby

    - by Bill T
    For my RSpec tests I would to automatically associate data files with each test. To clarify, if my tests each require an xml file as input data and then some xpath statements to validate the responses they get back I would like to externalize the xml and xpath as files and have the testing framework easily associate them with the particular test being run by using the unique ID of the test as the file(s) name. I tried to get this behavior but the solution isn't very clean. I wrote a helper method that takes the value of "description" and combines it with FILE to create a unique identifier which is set into a global variable that other utilities can access. The unique identifier is used to associate the data files I need. I have to call this helper method as the first line of every test, which is ugly. If I have an RSpec example that looks like this: describe "Basic functions of this server I'm testing" do it "should give me back a response" do # Sets a global var to: "my_tests_spec.rb_should_give_me_back_a_response" TestHelper::who_am_i __FILE__, description ... end end Is there some better/cleaner/slicker way I can get an unique ID for each test that I could use to associate data files with? Perhaps something build into RSpec I'm unaware of? Thank you, -Bill

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  • Problem with dynamically added script element - attribute src is empty

    - by Stazh
    Hi there, I have a problem with dynamically added script element (using jQuery). Code for adding new script element to DOM is this: var pScript = document.createElement("script"); pScript.type = "text/javascript"; pScript.src = sFile; // Add element to the end of head element $("head").append(pScript); The script is added with no problem, and the code runs perfectly. But, the problem occurs when I try to find the newly added script. I use this code to iterate through all script elements: var bAdd = true; $("script").each(function() { if(this.src == sFile) bAdd = false; }); (I need this code to prevent adding script that is already loaded) Problem is that all other script elements have src attribute set, but the newly added (dynamically) has not... Any idea?

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  • xmldocument and nested schemas

    - by Stuart
    Using c# and .net 3.5 I'm trying to validate an xml document against a schema that has includes. The schemas and there includes are as below Schema1.xsd - include another.xsd another.xsd - include base.xsd When i try to add the Schema1.xsd to the XmlDocument i get the following error. Type 'YesNoType' is not declared or is not a simple type. I believe i'm getting this error because the base.xsd file is not being included when i load the Schema1.xsd schema. I'm trying to use the XmlSchemaSet class and I'm setting the XmlResolver uri to the location of the schemas. NOTE : All schemas live under the same directory E:\Dev\Main\XmlSchemas Here is the code string schemaPath = "E:\\Dev\\Main\\XmlSchemas"; XmlDocument xmlDocSchema = new XmlDocument(); XmlSchemaSet s = new XmlSchemaSet(); XmlUrlResolver resolver = new XmlUrlResolver(); Uri baseUri = new Uri(schemaPath); resolver.ResolveUri(null, schemaPath); s.XmlResolver = resolver; s.Add(null, XmlReader.Create(new System.IO.StreamReader(schemaPath + "\\Schema1.xsd"), new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema, XmlResolver = resolver }, new Uri(schemaPath).ToString())); xmlDocSchema.Schemas.Add(s); ValidationEventHandler valEventHandler = new ValidationEventHandler (ValidateNinoDobEvent); try { xmlDocSchema.LoadXml(xml); xmlDocSchema.Validate(valEventHandler); } catch (XmlSchemaValidationException xmlValidationError) { // need to interogate the Validation Exception, for possible further // processing. string message = xmlValidationError.Message; return false; } Can anyone point me in the right direction regarding validating an xmldocument against a schema with nested includes.

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  • Regular Expression to return the contents of a HTML tag received as a string of text

    - by Nathan Hernandez
    I have a string in my code that I receive that contains some html tags. It is not part of the HTML page being displayed so I cannot grab the html tag contents using the DOM (i.e. document.getElementById('tag id').firstChild.data); So, for example within the string of text would appear a tag like this: 12 My question is how would I use a regular expression to access the '12' numeric digit in this example? This quantity could be any number of digits (i.e. it is not always a double digit). I have tried some regular expressions, but always end up getting the full span tag returned along with the contents. I only want the '12' in the example above, not the surrounding tag. The id of the tags will always be 'myQty' in the string of text I receive. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • How do i change the property of jaxrs endpoint to support "mtom"

    - by rocwing
    I created a RESTful web service, and i want to send binary files to this service without soap. There are some information on CXF website: link text But i can't find a way to get the CXF jaxrs endpoints,and set an "mtom-enabled" property. My Spring config is: <jaxrs:server id="fis" address="http://172.20.41.40:8080/fis"> <jaxrs:serviceBeans> <ref bean="FaultInfoResource" /> <ref bean="ExplorationResultResource" /> </jaxrs:serviceBeans> </jaxrs:server> <bean id="FaultInfoService" parent="baseService" class="com.dfe.demo.FaultInfoService"> </bean> <bean id="FaultInfoResource" class="com.dfe.demo.FaultInfoResource"> <property name="faultInfoService" ref="FaultInfoService"/> </bean> And i server class is: ClassPathXmlApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext(new String[]{"com/dfe/iss/config/applicationContext.xml","com/dfe/demo/yearlyplan/cxf-servlet.xml"}); JAXRSServerFactoryBean fib = (JAXRSServerFactoryBean)ctx.getBean("fis"); fib.create();

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  • How to make the TextView invisible when there are items in listView?

    - by Raphael Thomas Liewl
    I like to display textView when there are no items in the listView whereas the textView will not display when there are items in the listView. My problem is even there are items in the listView, the textView still will be displayed in a short time and then load the items into listView. So, how to make the TextView invisible when there are items in listView? Here is the codes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstancesState){ super.onCreate(savedInstancesState); setContentView(R.layout.list_screen); user = getIntent().getExtras().getString("user"); Log.d("dg",user); getList(); lv = (ListView) findViewById(android.R.id.list); emptyText = (TextView)findViewById(android.R.id.empty); lv.setEmptyView(emptyText); } list_screen.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/android:empty" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="@string/no_friend" android:gravity="center_vertical|center_horizontal"/> </LinearLayout>

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  • How can I ensure that JavaScript inserted via AJAX will be executed after the accompanying HTML (als

    - by RenderIn
    I've got portions of pages being replaced with HTML retrieved via AJAX calls. Some of the HTML coming back has JavaScript that needs to be run once in order to initialize the accompanying HTML (setting up event handlers). Since the document has already been loaded, when I replace chunks of HTML using jQuery's .html function, having jQuery(document).ready(function() {...}); doesn't execute since the page loaded long before and this is just a snippet of HTML being replaced. What's the best way to attach event handlers whose code is packaged along with the HTML it's interested in, when that content is loaded via AJAX? Should I just put a procedural block of javascript after the HTML , so that when I insert the new HTML block, jQuery will execute the javascript immediately? Is the HTML definitely in the DOM and ready to be acted upon by JavaScript which is in the same .html call?

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  • remove/restore elements, maintaining their events and element's children

    - by Emin
    I came to a situation where I need to edit the following in a way that, on some event (lets assume the 'click' event in this case) I need to remove (or unwrap?) the .container and the .header and have the .itemlist still visible/available on the page. And then, I need to restore .container and .header back again on some other event, while still maintain the event listeners on the a tags, and if possible, without removing the said items from the DOM. Is this possible? <ul class="container"> <li class="header"><a href="#">delete</a> | <a href="#">edit</a></li> <ul class="itemlist"> <li>some item</li> <li>some other item</li> </ul> </ul>

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  • Print new line in the source-code with jQuery.

    - by Kucebe
    I have a simple function in jQuery that creates new elements in the DOM. the problem is in the html source code, it append every element in the same line, and it's very bad to read. function _loadNewElements(elements){ for(var i=0; i<elements.length; i++){ var fixedElement = $('<img />') var position = elements[i].position; var cssMap = { 'position': 'fixed', 'top': position.top + "px", 'left': position.left + "px" }; fixedElement.css(cssMap); fixedElement.addClass("fixedTag"); fixedElement.attr('alt', elements[i].text); fixedElement.attr('src', "elements/" + elements[i].id + ".png"); fixedElement.appendTo($('#board')); //i'd like to print something here like ("\n"); } } I tried document.write("\n") but in this context it doesn't work. Any solution?

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  • jQuery: selecting by class after class change by .addClass() or .attr()

    - by Sosh
    I have some jQuery code something like this: $(document).ready(function() { $("img.off").click(function() { alert('on'); $(this).attr('class', 'on'); }); $("img.on").click(function() { alert('off'); $(this).attr('class', 'off'); }); }); The selector works fine for images that have the class name defined in the original HTML document, however after manipulating the class name with jQuery, the img item will not respond to selectors using it's new class. In other words, running the above code, if you click an 'off' img, it will trigger the first function, and change the class to 'on'. However, clicking this image again does not trigger the second function (as I would have expected), but rather triggers the first again. It's as if the selector is reading the old DOM rather than the updated version. What am I doing wrong here? Firefox 3.6.3 - jQuery 1.4.2

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