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  • Raw XML Push from input stream captures only the first line of XML

    - by pqsk
    I'm trying to read XML that is being pushed to my java app. I originally had this in my glassfish server working. The working code in glassfish is as follows: public class XMLPush implements Serializable { public void processXML() { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); BufferedReader br = null; try { br = ((HttpServletRequest)FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest()).getReader (); String s = null; while((s = br.readLine ()) != null) { sb.append ( s ); } //other code to process xml ........... ............................. }catch(Exception ex) { XMLCreator.exceptionOutput ( "processXML","Exception",ex); } .... ..... }//processXML }//class It works perfect, but my client is unable to have glassfish on their server. I tried grabbing the raw xml from php, but I couldn't get it to work. I decided to open up a socket and listen for the xml push manually. Here is my code for receiving the push: public class ListenerService extends Thread { private BufferedReader reader = null; private String line; public ListenerService ( Socket connection )thows Exception { this.reader = new BufferedReader ( new InputStreamReader ( connection.getInputStream () ) ); this.line = null; }//ListenerService @Override public void run () { try { while ( (this.line = this.reader.readLine ()) != null) { System.out.println ( this.line ); ........ }//while } System.out.println ( ex.toString () ); } } catch ( Exception ex ) { ... }//catch }//run I haven't done much socket programing, but from what I read for the past week is that passing the xml into a string is bad. What am I doing wrong and why is it that in glassfish server it works, and when I just open a socket myself it doesn't? this is all that I receive from the push: PUT /?XML_EXPORT_REASON=ResponseLoop&TIMESTAMP=1292559547 HTTP/1.1 Host: ************************ Accept: */* Content-Length: 470346 Expect: 100-continue <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> Where did the xml go? Is it because I am placing it in a string? I just need to grab the xml and save it into a file and then process it. Everything else works, but this.Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using WeakReference to resolve issue with .NET unregistered event handlers causing memory leaks.

    - by Eric
    The problem: Registered event handlers create a reference from the event to the event handler's instance. If that instance fails to unregister the event handler (via Dispose, presumably), then the instance memory will not be freed by the garbage collector. Example: class Foo { public event Action AnEvent; public void DoEvent() { if (AnEvent != null) AnEvent(); } } class Bar { public Bar(Foo l) { l.AnEvent += l_AnEvent; } void l_AnEvent() { } } If I instantiate a Foo, and pass this to a new Bar constructor, then let go of the Bar object, it will not be freed by the garbage collector because of the AnEvent registration. I consider this a memory leak, and seems just like my old C++ days. I can, of course, make Bar IDisposable, unregister the event in the Dispose() method, and make sure to call Dispose() on instances of it, but why should I have to do this? I first question why events are implemented with strong references? Why not use weak references? An event is used to abstractly notify an object of changes in another object. It seems to me that if the event handler's instance is no longer in use (i.e., there are no non-event references to the object), then any events that it is registered with should automatically be unregistered. What am I missing? I have looked at WeakEventManager. Wow, what a pain. Not only is it very difficult to use, but its documentation is inadequate (see http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.weakeventmanager.aspx -- noticing the "Notes to Inheritors" section that has 6 vaguely described bullets). I have seen other discussions in various places, but nothing I felt I could use. I propose a simpler solution based on WeakReference, as described here. My question is: Does this not meet the requirements with significantly less complexity? To use the solution, the above code is modified as follows: class Foo { public WeakReferenceEvent AnEvent = new WeakReferenceEvent(); internal void DoEvent() { AnEvent.Invoke(); } } class Bar { public Bar(Foo l) { l.AnEvent += l_AnEvent; } void l_AnEvent() { } } Notice two things: 1. The Foo class is modified in two ways: The event is replaced with an instance of WeakReferenceEvent, shown below; and the invocation of the event is changed. 2. The Bar class is UNCHANGED. No need to subclass WeakEventManager, implement IWeakEventListener, etc. OK, so on to the implementation of WeakReferenceEvent. This is shown here. Note that it uses the generic WeakReference that I borrowed from here: http://damieng.com/blog/2006/08/01/implementingweakreferencet I had to add Equals() and GetHashCode() to his class, which I include below for reference. class WeakReferenceEvent { public static WeakReferenceEvent operator +(WeakReferenceEvent wre, Action handler) { wre._delegates.Add(new WeakReference<Action>(handler)); return wre; } public static WeakReferenceEvent operator -(WeakReferenceEvent wre, Action handler) { foreach (var del in wre._delegates) if (del.Target == handler) { wre._delegates.Remove(del); return wre; } return wre; } HashSet<WeakReference<Action>> _delegates = new HashSet<WeakReference<Action>>(); internal void Invoke() { HashSet<WeakReference<Action>> toRemove = null; foreach (var del in _delegates) { if (del.IsAlive) del.Target(); else { if (toRemove == null) toRemove = new HashSet<WeakReference<Action>>(); toRemove.Add(del); } } if (toRemove != null) foreach (var del in toRemove) _delegates.Remove(del); } } public class WeakReference<T> : IDisposable { private GCHandle handle; private bool trackResurrection; public WeakReference(T target) : this(target, false) { } public WeakReference(T target, bool trackResurrection) { this.trackResurrection = trackResurrection; this.Target = target; } ~WeakReference() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { handle.Free(); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } public virtual bool IsAlive { get { return (handle.Target != null); } } public virtual bool TrackResurrection { get { return this.trackResurrection; } } public virtual T Target { get { object o = handle.Target; if ((o == null) || (!(o is T))) return default(T); else return (T)o; } set { handle = GCHandle.Alloc(value, this.trackResurrection ? GCHandleType.WeakTrackResurrection : GCHandleType.Weak); } } public override bool Equals(object obj) { var other = obj as WeakReference<T>; return other != null && Target.Equals(other.Target); } public override int GetHashCode() { return Target.GetHashCode(); } } It's functionality is trivial. I override operator + and - to get the += and -= syntactic sugar matching events. These create WeakReferences to the Action delegate. This allows the garbage collector to free the event target object (Bar in this example) when nobody else is holding on to it. In the Invoke() method, simply run through the weak references and call their Target Action. If any dead (i.e., garbage collected) references are found, remove them from the list. Of course, this only works with delegates of type Action. I tried making this generic, but ran into the missing where T : delegate in C#! As an alternative, simply modify class WeakReferenceEvent to be a WeakReferenceEvent, and replace the Action with Action. Fix the compiler errors and you have a class that can be used like so: class Foo { public WeakReferenceEvent<int> AnEvent = new WeakReferenceEvent<int>(); internal void DoEvent() { AnEvent.Invoke(5); } } Hopefully this will help someone else when they run into the mystery .NET event memory leak!

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  • What is the best workaround for the WCF client `using` block issue?

    - by Eric King
    I like instantiating my WCF service clients within a using block as it's pretty much the standard way to use resources that implement IDisposable: using (var client = new SomeWCFServiceClient()) { //Do something with the client } But, as noted in this MSDN article, wrapping a WCF client in a using block could mask any errors that result in the client being left in a faulted state (like a timeout or communication problem). Long story short, when Dispose() is called, the client's Close() method fires, but throws and error because it's in a faulted state. The original exception is then masked by the second exception. Not good. The suggested workaround in the MSDN article is to completely avoid using a using block, and to instead instantiate your clients and use them something like this: try { ... client.Close(); } catch (CommunicationException e) { ... client.Abort(); } catch (TimeoutException e) { ... client.Abort(); } catch (Exception e) { ... client.Abort(); throw; } Compared to the using block, I think that's ugly. And a lot of code to write each time you need a client. Luckily, I found a few other workarounds, such as this one on IServiceOriented. You start with: public delegate void UseServiceDelegate<T>(T proxy); public static class Service<T> { public static ChannelFactory<T> _channelFactory = new ChannelFactory<T>(""); public static void Use(UseServiceDelegate<T> codeBlock) { IClientChannel proxy = (IClientChannel)_channelFactory.CreateChannel(); bool success = false; try { codeBlock((T)proxy); proxy.Close(); success = true; } finally { if (!success) { proxy.Abort(); } } } } Which then allows: Service<IOrderService>.Use(orderService => { orderService.PlaceOrder(request); } That's not bad, but I don't think it's as expressive and easily understandable as the using block. The workaround I'm currently trying to use I first read about on blog.davidbarret.net. Basically you override the client's Dispose() method wherever you use it. Something like: public partial class SomeWCFServiceClient : IDisposable { void IDisposable.Dispose() { if (this.State == CommunicationState.Faulted) { this.Abort(); } else { this.Close(); } } } This appears to be able to allow the using block again without the danger of masking a faulted state exception. So, are there any other gotchas I have to look out for using these workarounds? Has anybody come up with anything better?

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  • Subclassing a window from a thread in c#

    - by user258651
    I'm creating a thread that looks for a window. When it finds the window, it overrides its windowproc, and handles WM_COMMAND and WM_CLOSE. Here's the code that looks for the window and subclasses it: public void DetectFileDialogProc() { Window fileDialog = null; // try to find the dialog twice, with a delay of 500 ms each time for (int attempts = 0; fileDialog == null && attempts < 2; attempts++) { // FindDialogs enumerates all windows of class #32770 via an EnumWindowProc foreach (Window wnd in FindDialogs(500)) { IntPtr parent = NativeMethods.User32.GetParent(wnd.Handle); if (parent != IntPtr.Zero) { // we're looking for a dialog whose parent is a dialog as well Window parentWindow = new Window(parent); if (parentWindow.ClassName == NativeMethods.SystemWindowClasses.Dialog) { fileDialog = wnd; break; } } } } // if we found the dialog if (fileDialog != null) { OldWinProc = NativeMethods.User32.GetWindowLong(fileDialog.Handle, NativeMethods.GWL_WNDPROC); NativeMethods.User32.SetWindowLong(fileDialog.Handle, NativeMethods.GWL_WNDPROC, Marshal.GetFunctionPointerForDelegate(new WindowProc(WndProc)).ToInt32()); } } And the windowproc: public IntPtr WndProc(IntPtr hWnd, uint msg, IntPtr wParam, IntPtr lParam) { lock (this) { if (!handled) { if (msg == NativeMethods.WM_COMMAND || msg == NativeMethods.WM_CLOSE) { // adding to a list. i never access the window via the hwnd from this list, i just treat it as a number _addDescriptor(hWnd); handled = true; } } } return NativeMethods.User32.CallWindowProc(OldWinProc, hWnd, msg, wParam, lParam); } This all works well under normal conditions. But I am seeing two instances of bad behavior in order of badness: If I do not close the dialog within a minute or so, the app crashes. Is this because the thread is getting garbage collected? This would kind of make sense, as far as GC can tell the thread is done? If this is the case, (and I don't know that it is), how can I make the thread stay around as long as the dialog is around? If I immediately close the dialog with the 'X' button (WM_CLOSE) the app crashes. I believe its crashing in the windowproc, but I can't get a breakpoint in there. I'm getting an AccessViolationException, The exception says "Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." Its a race condition, but of what I don't know. FYI, I had been reseting the old windowproc once I processed the commands, but that was crashing even more often! Any ideas on how I can solve these issues?

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  • In GWT I'd like to load the main page on www.domain.com and a dynamic page on www.domain.com/xyz - I

    - by Mike Brecht
    Hi, I have a question for which I'm sure there must a simple solution. I'm writing a small GWT application where I want to achieve this: www.domain.com : should serve the welcome page www.domain.com/xyz : should serve page xyz, where xyz is just a key for an item in a database. If there is an item associated with key xyz, I'll load that and show a page, otherwise I'll show a 404 error page. I was trying to modify the web.xml file accordingly but I just couldn't make it work. I could make it work with an url-pattern if the key in question is after another /, for example: www.domain.com/search/xyz. However, I'd like to have the key xyz directly following the root / (http://www.domain.com/xyz). Something like <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>main</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> doesn't seem to work as I don't know how to address the main page index.html (as it's not an actual servlet) which will then load my main GWT module. I could make it work with a bad work around (see below): Redirecting a 404 exception to index.html and then doing the look up in the main entry point, but I'm sure that's not the best practice, also for SEO purposes. Can anyone give me a hint on how to configure the web.xml with GWT for my purpose? Thanks a lot. Mike Work-around via 404: Web.xml: <web-app> <error-page> <exception-type>404</exception-type> <location>/index.html</location> </error-page> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.html</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> index.html -- Main Entry point -- onModuleLoad(): String path = Window.Location.getPath(); if (path == null || path.length() == 0 || path.equalsIgnoreCase("/") || path.equalsIgnoreCase("/index.html")) { ... // load main page } else { lookup(path.substring(1)); // that's key xyz

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  • How to fine tune a Membership Provider?

    - by Venemo
    After all the answers to my last question about fine-tuning turned out to be more useful than I expected, I thought that I would ask another similar Question about the MembershipProviders as well. Okay, so firstly, to clarify: I know what a Membership, Role, and Profile provider is, how to implement my own, and how to configure them, and most of the things about them. Implementing a role and profile provider is pretty straightforward, because they only require simple CRUD most of the time. (A single line of LINQ is enough for about half of the RoleProvider's methods.) However, the Membership provider is a differend beast. Many of you may realize that it violates the SR (Single Responsibility) principle, because it has to do EVERYTHING related to user management. While this leaves a lot of room for customizations, it has its downsides as well. There is no information on the Internet about what their EXACT expected behaviour is, such as when should they throw exceptions or simply return null, and stuff like that. I use this sample implementation for reference, but it also contains several contradictions. For example, it uses its own ValidateUser method for checking for credentials in the ChangePassword method. But the ValidateUser also updates the user's LastLoginDate to the current date. So, does the framework expect that I set it in my own provider as well, or is it simply a mistake in the sample? The other is: the ChangePassword method throws an exception every time when validating the new password, but CreateUser doesn't ever throw an exception, it simply returns false. And last, but not least: it counts the invalid password attempts of the user and locks them if it passes a threshold. While this is good, but it requires manual action to unlock the users. Is it a problem if my provider automatically unlocks the user after a certain amount of time? (EDIT) I almost forgot: the CreateUser method in the sample inserts the ID from the method parameter. I actually think this is bad practice, because I use inters with auto incement as IDs, so inserting them from some method parameter is not an option. Should I just ignore the parameter, or require that its value is null and throw an exception if it isn't? All in all, does ASP.NET have any assumptions about the behaviour of a MembershipProvider? Is there any documentation which describes when should I throw an exception or just return null? I also tried to find a set of generic unit tests which would provide some guidance about the expected behaviour, but no luck, I found plenty of articles about "Unit testing is good", and "How to unit test a MembershipProvider", but not one where there would be any actual tests. Thanks in advance for everyone!

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  • Login Script for PostGreSQL and PHP not working =[

    - by MrEnder
    Ok I'm quite new at logins what not so bare with me here lol but I gota learn so don't discourage me. I tried this so far <?php $error = ""; $conn = pg_connect("host=localhost dbname=brittains_db user=brittains password=XXXX" ); $sql = "SELECT * FROM logins"; $result = pg_query($conn, $sql); if($_SERVER["REQUEST_METHOD"] == "GET") { $userName=""; $password=""; } else if($_SERVER["REQUEST_METHOD"] == "POST") { $userName=trim($_POST["userNameLogin"]); $password=trim($_POST["passwordLogin"]); if(pg_fetch_result($results, $userName, "userName")==true && pg_fetch_result($results, $password, "userName")==true) { setcookie("userIDforDV", $userName, time()+43200); } else { $error = "Your username and or password is incorrect"; } } $userName = $_COOKIE['userIDforDV']; if(isset($userName) && $userName!="") { echo "Welcome " . $userName; } echo $error; ?> <form> <table> <tr> <td class="signupTd"> User Name:&nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="text" name="userNameLogin" value="" size="20" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="signupTd"> Password:&nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="password" name="passwordLogin" value="" size="20" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="signupTd" colspan="2"> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> </form> that was the idea I came up with... but its prolly a really bad idea and it doesn't work... how might I go about this properly? I need really detailed descriptions please. Thanks a tun Shelby

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  • setIncludesSubentities: in an NSFetchRequest is broken for entities across multiple persistent store

    - by SG
    Prior art which doesn't quite address this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1774359/core-data-migration-error-message-model-does-not-contain-configuration-xyz I have narrowed this down to a specific issue. It takes a minute to set up, though; please bear with me. The gist of the issue is that a persistentStoreCoordinator (apparently) cannot preserve the part of an object graph where a managedObject is marked as a subentity of another when they are stored in different files. Here goes... 1) I have 2 xcdatamodel files, each containing a single entity. In runtime, when the managed object model is constructed, I manually define one entity as subentity of another using setSubentities:. This is because defining subentities across multiple files in the editor is not supported yet. I then return the complete model with modelByMergingModels. //Works! [mainEntity setSubentities:canvasEntities]; NSLog(@"confirm %@ is super for %@", [[[canvasEntities lastObject] superentity] name], [[canvasEntities lastObject] name]); //Output: "confirm Note is super for Browser" 2) I have modified the persistentStoreCoordinator method so that it sets a different store for each entity. Technically, it uses configurations, and each entity has one and only one configuration defined. //Also works! for ( NSString *configName in [[HACanvasPluginManager shared].registeredCanvasTypes valueForKey:@"viewControllerClassName"] ) { storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent:[configName stringByAppendingPathExtension:@"sqlite"]]]; //NSLog(@"entities for configuration '%@': %@", configName, [[[self managedObjectModel] entitiesForConfiguration:configName] valueForKey:@"name"]); //Output: "entities for configuration 'HATextCanvasController': (Note)" //Output: "entities for configuration 'HAWebCanvasController': (Browser)" if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:configName URL:storeUrl options:options error:&error]) //etc 3) I have a fetchRequest set for the parent entity, with setIncludesSubentities: and setAffectedStores: just to be sure we get both 1) and 2) covered. When inserting objects of either entity, they both are added to the context and they both are fetched by the fetchedResultsController and displayed in the tableView as expected. // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; [fetchRequest setIncludesSubentities:YES]; //NECESSARY to fetch all canvas types [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fetchRequest setFetchBatchSize:20]; // Set the batch size to a suitable number. [fetchRequest setAffectedStores:[[managedObjectContext persistentStoreCoordinator] persistentStores]]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; Here is where it starts misbehaving: after closing and relaunching the app, ONLY THE PARENT ENTITY is fetched. If I change the entity of the request using setEntity: to the entity for 'Note', all notes are fetched. If I change it to the entity for 'Browser', all the browsers are fetched. Let me reiterate that during the run in which an object is first inserted into the context, it will appear in the list. It is only after save and relaunch that a fetch request fails to traverse the hierarchy. Therefore, I can only conclude that it is the storage of the inheritance that is the problem. Let's recap why: - Both entities can be created, inserted into the context, and viewed, so the model is working - Both entities can be fetched with a single request, so the inheritance is working - I can confirm that the files are being stored separately and objects are going into their appropriate stores, so saving is working - Launching the app with either entity set for the request works, so retrieval from the store is working - This also means that traversing different stores with the request is working - By using a single store instead of multiple, the problem goes away completely, so creating, storing, fetching, viewing etc is working correctly. This leaves only one culprit (to my mind): the inheritance I'm setting with setSubentities: is effective only for objects creating during the session. Either objects/entities are being stored stripped of the inheritance info, or entity inheritance as defined programmatically only applies to new instances, or both. Either of these is unacceptable. Either it's a bug or I am way, way off course. I have been at this every which way for two days; any insight is greatly appreciated. The current workaround - just using a single store - works completely, except it won't be future-proof in the event that I remove one of the models from the app etc. It also boggles the mind because I can't see why you would have all this infrastructure for storing across multiple stores and for setting affected stores in fetch requests if it by core definition (of setSubentities:) doesn't work.

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  • Parsing a .NET DataSet returned from a .NET Web Service in Java

    - by Chris Dail
    I have to consume a .NET hosted web service from a Java application. Interoperability between the two is usually very good. The problem I'm running into is that the .NET application developer chose to expose data using the .NET DataSet object. There are lots of articles written as to why you should not do this and how it makes interoperability difficult: http://www.hanselman.com/blog/ReturningDataSetsFromWebServicesIsTheSpawnOfSatanAndRepresentsAllThatIsTrulyEvilInTheWorld.aspx http://www.lhotka.net/weblog/ThoughtsOnPassingDataSetObjectsViaWebServices.aspx http://aspnet.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/051805-1.aspx http://www.theserverside.net/tt/articles/showarticle.tss?id=Top5WSMistakes My problem is that despite this not being recommended practice, I am stuck with having to consume a web service returning a DataSet with Java. When you generate a proxy for something like this with anything other than .NET you basically end up with an object that looks like this: @XmlElement(namespace = "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema", required = true) protected Schema schema; @XmlAnyElement(lax = true) protected Object any; This first field is the actual schema that should describe the DataSet. When I process this using JAX-WS and JAXB in Java, it bring all of XS-Schema in as Java objects to be represented here. Walking the object tree of JAXB is possible but not pretty. The any field represents the raw XML for the DataSet that is in the schema specified by the schema. The structure of the dataset is pretty consistent but the data types do change. I need access to the type information and the schema does vary from call to call. I've though of a few options but none seem like 'good' options. Trying to generate Java objects from the schema using JAXB at runtime seems to be a bad idea. This would be way too slow since it would need to happen everytime. Brute force walk the schema tree using the JAXB objects that JAX-WS brought in. Maybe instead of using JAXB to parse the schema it would be easier to deal with it as XML and use XPath to try and find the type information I need. Are there other options I have not considered? Is there a Java library to parse DataSet objects easily? What have other people done who may have similar situations?

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  • Is the Scala 2.8 collections library a case of "the longest suicide note in history" ?

    - by oxbow_lakes
    First note the inflammatory subject title is a quotation made about the manifesto of a UK political party in the early 1980s. This question is subjective but it is a genuine question, I've made it CW and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Despite whatever my wife and coworkers keep telling me, I don't think I'm an idiot: I have a good degree in mathematics from the University of Oxford and I've been programming commercially for almost 12 years and in Scala for about a year (also commercially). I have just started to look at the Scala collections library re-implementation which is coming in the imminent 2.8 release. Those familiar with the library from 2.7 will notice that the library, from a usage perspective, has changed little. For example... > List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) res0: List[Int] List(5, 6) ...would work in either versions. The library is eminently useable: in fact it's fantastic. However, those previously unfamiliar with Scala and poking around to get a feel for the language now have to make sense of method signatures like: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That For such simple functionality, this is a daunting signature and one which I find myself struggling to understand. Not that I think Scala was ever likely to be the next Java (or /C/C++/C#) - I don't believe its creators were aiming it at that market - but I think it is/was certainly feasible for Scala to become the next Ruby or Python (i.e. to gain a significant commercial user-base) Is this going to put people off coming to Scala? Is this going to give Scala a bad name in the commercial world as an academic plaything that only dedicated PhD students can understand? Are CTOs and heads of software going to get scared off? Was the library re-design a sensible idea? If you're using Scala commercially, are you worried about this? Are you planning to adopt 2.8 immediately or wait to see what happens? Steve Yegge once attacked Scala (mistakenly in my opinion) for what he saw as its overcomplicated type-system. I worry that someone is going to have a field day spreading fud with this API (similarly to how Josh Bloch scared the JCP out of adding closures to Java). Note - I should be clear that, whilst I believe that Josh Bloch was influential in the rejection of the BGGA closures proposal, I don't ascribe this to anything other than his honestly-held beliefs that the proposal represented a mistake.

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  • Using PHP's IMAP library triggers Kaspersky's Antivirus

    - by TMG
    Hello, I just started today working with PHP's IMAP library, and while imap_fetchbody or imap_body are called, it is triggering my Kaspersky antivirus. The viruses are Trojan.Win32.Agent.dmyq and Trojan.Win32.FraudPack.aoda. I am running this off a local development machine with XAMPP and Kaspersky AV. Now, I am sure there are viruses there since there is spam in the box (who doesn't need a some viagra or vicodin these days?). And I know that since the raw body includes attachments and different mime-types, bad stuff can be in the body. So my question is: are there any risks using these libraries? I am assuming that the IMAP functions are retrieving the body, caching it to disk/memory and the AV scanning it sees the data. Is that correct? Are there any known security concerns using this library (I couldn't find any)? Does it clean up cached message parts perfectly or might viral files be sitting somewhere? Is there a better way to get plain text out of the body than this? Right now I am using the following code (credit to Kevin Steffer): function get_mime_type(&$structure) { $primary_mime_type = array("TEXT", "MULTIPART","MESSAGE", "APPLICATION", "AUDIO","IMAGE", "VIDEO", "OTHER"); if($structure->subtype) { return $primary_mime_type[(int) $structure->type] . '/' .$structure->subtype; } return "TEXT/PLAIN"; } function get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $structure = false, $part_number = false) { if(!$structure) { $structure = imap_fetchstructure($stream, $msg_number); } if($structure) { if($mime_type == get_mime_type($structure)) { if(!$part_number) { $part_number = "1"; } $text = imap_fetchbody($stream, $msg_number, $part_number); if($structure->encoding == 3) { return imap_base64($text); } else if($structure->encoding == 4) { return imap_qprint($text); } else { return $text; } } if($structure->type == 1) /* multipart */ { while(list($index, $sub_structure) = each($structure->parts)) { if($part_number) { $prefix = $part_number . '.'; } $data = get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $sub_structure,$prefix . ($index + 1)); if($data) { return $data; } } // END OF WHILE } // END OF MULTIPART } // END OF STRUTURE return false; } // END OF FUNCTION $connection = imap_open($server, $login, $password); $count = imap_num_msg($connection); for($i = 1; $i <= $count; $i++) { $header = imap_headerinfo($connection, $i); $from = $header->fromaddress; $to = $header->toaddress; $subject = $header->subject; $date = $header->date; $body = get_part($connection, $i, "TEXT/PLAIN"); }

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  • Logging raw HTTP request/response in ASP.NET MVC & IIS7

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm writing a web service (using ASP.NET MVC) and for support purposes we'd like to be able to log the requests and response in as close as possible to the raw, on-the-wire format (i.e including HTTP method, path, all headers, and the body) into a database. What I'm not sure of is how to get hold of this data in the least 'mangled' way. I can re-constitute what I believe the request looks like by inspecting all the properties of the HttpRequest object and building a string from them (and similarly for the response) but I'd really like to get hold of the actual request/response data that's sent on the wire. I'm happy to use any interception mechanism such as filters, modules, etc. and the solution can be specific to IIS7. However, I'd prefer to keep it in managed code only. Any recommendations? Edit: I note that HttpRequest has a SaveAs method which can save the request to disk but this reconstructs the request from the internal state using a load of internal helper methods that cannot be accessed publicly (quite why this doesn't allow saving to a user-provided stream I don't know). So it's starting to look like I'll have to do my best to reconstruct the request/response text from the objects... groan. Edit 2: Please note that I said the whole request including method, path, headers etc. The current responses only look at the body streams which does not include this information. Edit 3: Does nobody read questions around here? Five answers so far and yet not one even hints at a way to get the whole raw on-the-wire request. Yes, I know I can capture the output streams and the headers and the URL and all that stuff from the request object. I already said that in the question, see: I can re-constitute what I believe the request looks like by inspecting all the properties of the HttpRequest object and building a string from them (and similarly for the response) but I'd really like to get hold of the actual request/response data that's sent on the wire. If you know the complete raw data (including headers, url, http method, etc.) simply cannot be retrieved then that would be useful to know. Similarly if you know how to get it all in the raw format (yes, I still mean including headers, url, http method, etc.) without having to reconstruct it, which is what I asked, then that would be very useful. But telling me that I can reconstruct it from the HttpRequest/HttpResponse objects is not useful. I know that. I already said it. Please note: Before anybody starts saying this is a bad idea, or will limit scalability, etc., we'll also be implementing throttling, sequential delivery, and anti-replay mechanisms in a distributed environment, so database logging is required anyway. I'm not looking for a discussion of whether this is a good idea, I'm looking for how it can be done.

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  • Cannot complete a JSONP call from jQuery to WCF

    - by Dusda
    Okay, I am trying (poorly) to successfully make a JSONP call from jQuery on a test page to a WCF web service running locally, as a cross-domain call. I have, at one point or another, either gotten a 1012 URI denied error, gotten a response but in Xml, or just had no response at all. Currently, the way I have it configured it spits back a 1012. I did not write this web service, so it is entirely possible that I am just missing a configuration setting somewhere, but I've become so frustrated with it that I think just asking on here will be more productive. Thanks guys. Details below. I have a WCF web service with the following method: [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public decimal GetOrderStatusJson(int jobId) I am trying to call this method from a jQuery test page, via a cross-domain JSONP call. <script type="text/javascript"> getJsonAjaxObject( "http://localhost:3960/ProcessRequests.svc/json/GetOrderStatusJson", { "jobId": 232 }); function getJsonAjaxObject(webServiceUrl, jsonData) { var request = { type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: webServiceUrl, data: jsonData, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(msg) { //success! alert("blah"); }, error: function() { //oh nos alert("bad blah"); } }; $.ajax(request); } </script> Below are the chunks of the web.config I configure for this purpose: <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="MWProcessRequestWCF.ProcessRequestsBehavior" name="MWProcessRequestWCF.ProcessRequests"> <endpoint address="json" behaviorConfiguration="AspNetAjaxBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MWProcessRequestWCF.IProcessRequests" /> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MWProcessRequestWCF.IProcessRequests"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="MWProcessRequestWCF.ProcessRequestsBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="AspNetAjaxBehavior"> <enableWebScript/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors>

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  • [Struts2+tiles] How can I make title dynamically?

    - by Lee Domin
    I'm developing BBS in struts2 and tiles(2) framework. I want to push a value in ActionSupport class and pop the value in layout.jsp of tiles. but i just keep failing to access to the value. I will explain my works step by step. 1) Users click a link to view an article at list page. And BoardView class will be called as defined in struts.xml --list.jsp-- <a href="view_board?num=${num}"> ${ subject } </a> --struts.xml-- <action name="View_board" class="board.BoardView"> <result type="tiles">board.view</result> </action> 2)Action class will put title into the value stack... right? --BoardView class-- public class BoardView extends ActionSupport private String title; public void Execute() throws Exception { ... setTitle(board.getSubject()); return SUCCESS; } ... (setter and getter of title) 3) As ActionClass returns SUCCESS, it will go to tiles definition named board.view --struts.xml-- <action name="View_board" class="board.BoardView"> <result type="tiles">board.view</result> </action> 4)Here's the tiles-def.xml and the problem. I think the value of 'title' can't be popped from value stack. ==tiles-def.xml== <definition name="board.view" extends="layout"> <put-attribute name="title" value="%title" /> <put-attribute name="body" value="/board/view.jsp" /> </definition> (I can't indent with tags... sorry) Here's the layout.jsp ==layout.jsp== ... <title><tiles:getAsString name="title" /></title> ... I tried to replace the value attribute to %{title}, $title and ${title}. But nothings worked out. Web Browser just shows the string itself($title). I don't know what to do... please help me. I hope you all understand my works despite of my bad explanation.

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  • Putting update logic in your migrations

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

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  • Experienced developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • MySQL table organization and optimization (Rails)

    - by aguynamedloren
    I've been learning Ruby on Rails over the past few months with no prior programming experience. Lately, I've been thinking about database optimization and table organization. I know there are great books on the subject, but I typically learn by example / as I go. Here's a hypothetical situation: Let's say I am building a social network for a niche community with 250,000 members (users). The users have the ability to attend events. Let's say there are 50,000 past/present/future events. Much like Facebook events, a user can attend any number of events and an event can have any number of attendees. In the database, there would be a table for users and a table for events. Somehow I would have to create an association between the users and events. I could create an "events" column in the users table such that each user row would contain a hash of event IDs, or I could create an "attendees" column in the events table such that each event row would contain a hash of user IDs. Neither of these solutions seem ideal, however. On a users profile page, I want to display the list of events they are associated with, which would require scanning the 50,000 event rows for the user ID of said user if I include an "attendees" column in the events table. Likewise, on an event page, I want to display a list of attendees for the event, which would require scanning the 250,000 user rows for the event ID of said event if I include an "events" column in the users table. Option 3 would be to create a third table that contains the attendee information for each and every event - but I don't see how this would solve any problems. Are these non-issues? Rails makes accessing all of this information easy, but I guess I'm worried about scale. It is entirely possible that I am under-estimating the speed and processing power of modern databases / servers / etc. How long would it take to scan 250,000 user rows for specific event IDs - 10ms? 100ms? 1,000ms? I guess that's not that bad. Am I just over-thinking this?

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  • Issue with class template partial specialization

    - by DeadMG
    I've been trying to implement a function that needs partial template specializations and fallen back to the static struct technique, and I'm having a number of problems. template<typename T> struct PushImpl<const T&> { typedef T* result_type; typedef const T& argument_type; template<int StackSize> static result_type Push(IStack<StackSize>* sptr, argument_type ref) { // Code if the template is T& } }; template<typename T> struct PushImpl<const T*> { typedef T* result_type; typedef const T* argument_type; template<int StackSize> static result_type Push(IStack<StackSize>* sptr, argument_type ptr) { return PushImpl<const T&>::Push(sptr, *ptr); } }; template<typename T> struct PushImpl { typedef T* result_type; typedef const T& argument_type; template<int StackSize> static result_type Push(IStack<StackSize>* sptr, argument_type ref) { // Code if the template is neither T* nor T& } }; template<typename T> typename PushImpl<T>::result_type Push(typename PushImpl<T>::argument_type ref) { return PushImpl<T>::Push(this, ref); } First: The struct is nested inside another class (the one that offers Push as a member func), but it can't access the template parameter (StackSize), even though my other nested classes all could. I've worked around it, but it would be cleaner if they could just access StackSize like a normal class. Second: The compiler complains that it doesn't use or can't deduce T. Really? Thirdly: The compiler complains that it can't specialize a template in the current scope (class scope). I can't see what the problem is. Have I accidentally invoked some bad syntax?

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  • Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

    - by Thorsten Beck
    Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

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  • Alternatives to requiring users to register for an account?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on a side project to build a new web app idea of mine. For the sake of discussion, let's say this app displays a random photograph of a famous work of art. On a scale of 1 to 5, users are asked to rate how well they like each piece of art, and then are shown the next photo. Eventually, the app is able to get an sense of the person's style and is able to recommend artwork that he/she may find pleasing. The whole concept is similar to Netflix. I understand how to do all the preference matching logic (although not as sophisticated as Netflix). But I'd like to find a way to do this without requiring that users create an account first. This is a novelty website that a typical user might use only a handful of times. Requiring registration is overkill and will likely drastically reduce it's utility. I'd like to allow people to begin rating artwork within five seconds of their initial pageview, yet maintain the integrity of the voting (since recommendations are predicated on how other people have rated the various pieces of artwork). Can it be done? Some ideas: OpenID. The perfect solution except for the fact that it's not wildly used and my target audience isn't the most technically adept demographic. Text message. User inputs phone number and is texted a four digit code to key into the web app. Quick, easy, and great way to limit abuse. However, privacy concerns abound... people are probably even less likely to give me their phone number than their email address. Facebook login. I personally don't have a Facebook account due to privacy concerns. And I'd really hate to support such a proprietary platform. Hash code/Bookmark. Vistor's initial pageview generates a 5 or 6 digit alphanumeric code that is embedded in each subsequent URL. They can bookmark any page to save their state. Good: Very simple system that doesn't require any user action. Bad: Very easy to stuff the ballot box, might be difficult to account for users sharing the link containing their ID code via email or social networking sites.

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  • Override variables while testing a standalone Perl script

    - by BrianH
    There is a Perl script in our environment that I now need to maintain. It is full of bad practices, including using (and re-using) global variables throughout the script. Before I start making changes to the script, I was going to try to write some test scripts so I can have a good regression base. To do this, I was going to use a method described on this page. I was starting by writing tests for a single subroutine. I put this line somewhat near the top of the script I am testing: return 1 if ( caller() ); That way, in my test script, I can require 'script_to_test.pl'; and it won't execute the whole script. The first subroutine I was going to test makes a lot of use of global variables that are set throughout the script. My thought was to try to override these variables in my test script, something like this: require_ok('script_to_test.pl'); $var_from_other_script = 'Override Value'; ok( sub_from_other_script() ); Unfortunately (for me), the script I am testing has a massive "my" block at the top, where it declares all variables used in the script. This prevents my test script from seeing/changing the variables in the script I'm running tests against. I've played with Exporter, Test::Mock..., and some other modules, but it looks like if I want to be able to change any variables I am going to have to modify the other script in some fashion. My goal is to not change the other script, but to get some good tests running so when I do start changing the other script, I can make sure I didn't break anything. The script is about 10,000 lines (3,000 of them in the main block), so I'm afraid that if I start changing things, I will affect other parts of the code, so having a good test suite would help. Is this possible? Can a calling script modify variables in another script declared with "my"? And please don't jump in with answers like, "Just re-write the script from scratch", etc. That may be the best solution, but it doesn't answer my question, and we don't have the time/resources for a re-write.

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  • Use a subclass object to modify a protected propety within its superclass object

    - by gadmeer
    Sorry for the crappy title I failed to think of a better version for my Java question. I am right now using Java version: 1.6.0_18 and Netbeans version: 6.8 Now for the question. What I've done is created a class with only one protected int property and next I made a public method to Set the int property to a given value. Then I made an object of that class and used said public method to set the int property to 5. Now I need your help to create another class that will take said object and expose it's protected int property. The way I could think of doing this was to create a sub class to inherit said class and then create a method to Get the int property of the super class. I kind of succeeded to create the code to Get the int property but now I can't figure out how to use this new sub class to reference the object of the super class. Here are the 2 classes I have thus far: public class A { protected int iNumber; public void setNumber ( int aNumber ) { iNumber = aNumber; } } public class B extends A { public int getNumber() { return super.iNumber; } } I created an object of 'A' and used its method to set its property to 5, like this: A objA = new A(); objA.setNumber ( 5 ); Now I want to create an object of 'B' to output the int stored within the property of 'objA'. I've tried to run this code: B objB = (B) objA; String aNumber_String = String.valueOf( objB.getNumber() ); System.out.println( aNumber_String ); but I got the error: "java.lang.ClassCastException" on the first line B objB = (B) objA; Please is there anyway of doing what I am trying to do? P.S. I am hoping to make this idea work because I do not want to edit class A (unless I have no choice) by giving it a getter method. P.P.S Also I know it's a 'bad' idea to expose the property instead of making it private and use public setter / getter methods but I like it this way :). Edit: Added code tags

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  • RCP applicatoon activities

    - by Peter
    I have a problem with my RCP application. First, I defined an activity in my plugin.xml: <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.activities"> <activity id="myproject.view.input.activity" name="myproject.view.input.activity"> <enabledWhen> <with variable="myproject.view.input.active"> <equals value="ENABLED"> </equals> </with> </enabledWhen> </activity> <activityPatternBinding activityId="myproject.view.input.activity" pattern="myproject.gui/myproject.view.input"> </activityPatternBinding> Then i defined my SourceProvider: <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.services"> <sourceProvider provider="myproject.util.CommandState"> <variable name="myproject.view.input.active" priorityLevel="workbench"> </variable> And, finally, my CommandState class: public class CommandState extends AbstractSourceProvider { public final static String OUTPUT_VIEW = "myproject.view.input.active"; // then goes some others variables, i just skip them // .... public final static String [] ACTIONS = {OUTPUT_VIEW /*and all others variables*/}; public final static String ENABLED = "ENABLED"; public final static String DISENABLED = "DISENABLED"; private final Map <String, String> currentState = new HashMap <String, String> (); @Override public void dispose() { } @Override public String[] getProvidedSourceNames() { return ACTIONS; } @Override public Map <String, String> getCurrentState() { return currentState; } public void setEnabled(boolean enabled, String [] commands) { String value = enabled ? ENABLED : DISENABLED; for (String command : commands) { currentState.put(command, value); fireSourceChanged(ISources.WORKBENCH, command, value); } } } In my Login window, application checks user permissions, and enable or disable views, commands, etc. with setEnabled method of CommandState. For commands it works fine, they are enabling or disabling correctly. But when i try to disable view and open perspective, that contains that view (myproject.view.input), it opened without that view, but also throws exception: !STACK 1 org.eclipse.ui.PartInitException: Could not create view: myproject.view.input at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ViewFactory.createView(ViewFactory.java:158) I can show full stacktrace if anyone want. I tried to debug my application and before i open my perspective whith that view, i checked currentState of my CommandState source provider, and all seemes to be ok: all variables values are correct and myproject.view.input.active = DISABLED Can anyone say, why exception is thrown? Thanks for any help. Sorry for big post and bad language

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  • _heapwalk reports _HEAPBADNODE, causes breakpoint or loops endlessly

    - by Stefan Hubert
    I use _heapwalk to gather statistics about the Process' standard heap. Under certain circumstances i observe unexpected behaviours like: _HEAPBADNODE is returned some breakpoint is triggered inside _heapwalk, telling me the heap might got corrupted access violation inside _heapWalk. I saw different behaviours on different Computers. On one Windows XP 32 bit machine everything looked fine, whereas on two Windows XP 64 bit machines i saw the mentioned symptoms. I saw this behaviour only if LowFragmentationHeap was enabled. I played around a bit. I walked the heap several times right one after another inside my program. First time doing nothing in between the subsequent calls to _heapWalk (everything fine). Then again, this time doing some stuff (for gathering statistics) in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk. Depending upon what I did there, I sometimes got the described symptoms. Here finally a question: What exactly is safe and what is not safe to do in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk during a complete heap walk run? Naturally, i shall not manipulate the heap. Therefore i doublechecked that i don't call new and delete. However, my observation is that function calls with some parameter passing causes my heap walk run to fail already. I subsequently added function calls and increasing number of parameters passed to these. My feeling was two function calls with two paramters being passed did not work anymore. However I would like to know why. Any ideas why this does not happen on some machines? Any ideas why this only happens if LowFragmentationHeap is enabled? Sample Code finally: #include <malloc.h> void staticMethodB( int a, int b ) { } void staticMethodA( int a, int b, int c) { staticMethodB( 3, 6); return; } ... _HEAPINFO hinfo; hinfo._pentry = NULL; while( ( heapstatus = _heapwalk( &hinfo ) ) == _HEAPOK ) { //doing nothing here works fine //however if i call functions here with parameters, this causes //_HEAPBADNODE or something else staticMethodA( 3,4,5); } switch( heapstatus ) { ... case _HEAPBADNODE: assert( false ); /*ERROR - bad node in heap */ break; ...

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  • All embedded databases fail to open connections

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm working on a winforms desktop application that needs to store data. I made the really bad decision to try and embed a database. I've tried: SQLite VistaDB SQL Server Compact In each case, I was able to generate a Entity Framework Model over the basic schema I've created. I have an event that adds data that I've been using to test these databases. Well, I kept adding a new record using EF and finding it didn't actually insert a record. In debugging, I checked the context object to see what was happening. It turns out that it is saying "the underlying provider failed to open," or something to that effect. It was not throwing an exception, just not inserting a record. The same thing has happened for all 3 embedded databases--prompting me to get it through my dense head that there has to be something wrong with my configuration. Well, I tried to write some basic sql using a sqlconnection and sqlcommand. This time it throws an exception. In the SQL Server Compact case, it now says: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I thought perhaps a problem was the path in app.Config. So I changed the connection string to: Note that I simplified the path away from anything that might have spaces and avoided using the Data Directory nonsense that causes problem when the debugging directory does not match the preconfigured value for the data directory. I'm running Windows 7; I thought perhaps it might be an access issue--so I tried running VS 2010 in Administrator mode. No luck. I also installed Sql Server Compact SP2, thinking this might be a bug. No luck. Anyway, I'm ready to pull my hair out. I'm on a tight deadline for this thing and didn't expect to spend the day trying to figure out what is going on.

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