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  • JavaScript: How is "function x() {}" different from "x = function() {}" ?

    - by jleedev
    In the answers to this question, we read that function f() {} defines the name locally, while [var] f = function() {} defines it globally. That makes perfect sense to me, but there's some strange behavior that's different between the two declarations. I made an HTML page with the script onload = function() { alert("hello"); } and it worked as expected. When I changed it to function onload() { alert("hello"); } nothing happened. (Firefox still fired the event, but WebKit, Opera, and Internet Explorer didn't, although frankly I've no idea which is correct.) In both cases (in all browsers), I could verify that both window.onload and onload were set to the function. In both cases, the global object this is set to the window, and I no matter how I write the declaration, the window object is receiving the property just fine. What's going on here? Why does one declaration work differently from the other? Is this a quirk of the JavaScript language, the DOM, or the interaction between the two?

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  • Use of properties vs backing-field inside owner class

    - by whatispunk
    I love auto-implemented properties in C# but lately there's been this elephant standing in my cubicle and I don't know what to do with him. If I use auto-implemented properties (hereafter "aip") then I no longer have a private backing field to use internally. This is fine because the aip has no side-effects. But what if later on I need to add some extra processing in the get or set? Now I need to create a backing-field so I can expand my getters and setters. This is fine for external code using the class, because they won't notice the difference. But now all of the internal references to the aip are going to invoke these side-effects when they access the property. Now all internal access to the once aip must be refactored to use the backing-field. So my question is, what do most of you do? Do you use auto-implemented properties or do you prefer to always use a backing-field? What do you think about properties with side-effects?

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  • Remove duplication's from my DropDownList

    - by user2976270
    In my controller i am returning list of my object with specific property: public ActionResult Index() { List<MyObject> list = db.MyObjects.Where(x => x.family == "Web").ToList(); ViewBag.Files = new SelectList(list, "Id", "protocol"); return View(); } This is my object: public class MyObject { public int id { get; set; } public string fileName { get; set; } public string browser { get; set; } public string protocol { get; set; } public string family { get; set; } } Index.cshtml: @Html.DropDownList("File", new SelectList(ViewBag.Files, "Id", "protocol_site"), "Select webmail site", new { style = "vertical-align:middle;" }) And i try to made 2 changes with no succeed: Remove all the duplication protocol from my DropDownListfor exapmle if i have 10 objects : 9 is doc protocol and 1 pdf i wand to see in my DropDownList only 2 items: DOC and PDF and not all the 10 items. Sort this DropDownList in alphabet order

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  • Serializing a class containing a custom class

    - by Netfangled
    I want to serialize an object as xml that contains other custom classes. From what I understand (I've been reading MSDN and SO mostly), the XmlSerializer doesn't take this into account. This is the line that's confusing me: XML serialization serializes only the public fields and property values of an object into an XML stream. XML serialization does not include type information. For example, if you have a Book object that exists in the Library namespace, there is no guarantee that it will be deserialized into an object of the same type. Taken from MSDN, here For example, I want to serialize an object of type Order, but it contains a list of Products, and each one contains an object of type Category: class Order { List<Product> products; } class Product { Category type; } class Category { string name; string description; } And I want my Order object to be serialized like so: <Order> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Order> Does the XmlSerializer already do this? If not, is there another class that does or do I have to define the serialization process myself?

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  • Laravel4: Checking many-to-many relationship attribute even when it does not exist

    - by Simo A.
    This is my first time with Laravel and also Stackoverflow... I am developing a simple course management system. The main objects are User and Course, with a many-to-many relationship between them. The pivot table has an additional attribute, participant_role, which defines whether the user is a student or an instructor within that particular course. class Course extends Eloquent { public function users() { return $this->belongsToMany('User')->withPivot('participant_role')->withTimestamps(); } } However, there is an additional role, system admin, which can be defined on the User object. And this brings me mucho headache. In my blade view I have the following: @if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something here... } This works fine when the user has been assigned to that particular $course and there is an entry for this user-course combination in the pivot table. However, the problem is the system administrator, who also should be able to access course details. The if-clause above gives Trying to get property of non-object error, apparently because there is no entry in the pivot table for system administrator (as the role is defined within the User object). I could probably solve the problem by using some off-the-shelf bundle for handling role-based permissions. Or I could (but don't want to) do something like this with two internal if-clauses: if (!empty($course->pivot)) { if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something... } } Other options (suggested in partially similar entries in Stackoverflow) would include 1) reading all the pivot table entries to an array, and use in_array to check if a role exists, or even 2) SQL left join to do this on database level. However, ultimately I am looking for a compact one-line solution? Can I do anything similar to this, which unfortunately does not seem to work? if (! empty ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') ) { // do something... } The shorter the answer, the better :-). Thanks a lot!

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  • Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

    - by HotOil
    Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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  • Pass List of models to controller ASP.NET MVC 5

    - by user3697231
    I have a view where user can enter some data. But problem is this: Let's say you have 3 text box on view. Every time user can fill multiple times this 3 text boxes. To clarify, let's say user fills this 3 text boxes and press button which adds on form again these 3 text boxes. Now when user clicks submit this form is sent to controller, but how do I sent List of models as parameter. My architecture for this problem is something like this: MyModel public int ID { get;set; } public string Something { get; set; } /*This three textboxes can user set multiple times*/ /*Perhaps i Can create new model with these properties and then /*put List of that model as property here, but how to fill that list inside view ??*/ public string TextBoxOneValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxTwoValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxThreeValue { get; set; } Now, i was thinking that i Create PartialView with this 3 text boxes, and then when user clicks button on view another PartialView is loaded. And now, let's say I have Two partial views loaded, and user clicks submit, how that I pass list with values of these 3 text boxes to controller ??

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  • Is there a way for -webkit-animtion-timing-function to apply to the entire animation instead of each keyframe?

    - by Ken Sykora
    I'm a bit new to animation, so forgive me if I'm missing a huge concept here. I need to animate an arrow that is pointing to a point on a curve, let's just say it's a cubic curve for the sake of this post. The arrow moves along the curve's line, always pointing a few pixels below it. So what I did, is I setup keyframes along the curve's line using CSS3: @-webkit-keyframes ftch { 0% { opacity: 0; left: -10px; bottom: 12px; } 25% { opacity: 0.25; left: 56.5px; bottom: -7px; } 50% { opacity: 0.5; left: 143px; bottom: -20px; } 75% { opacity: 0.75; left: 209.5px; bottom: -24.5px; } 100% { opacity: 1; left: 266px; bottom: -26px; } } However, when I run this animation using -webkit-animation-timing-function: ease-in, it applies that easing to each individual keyframe, which is definitely not what I want. I want the easing to apply to the entire animation. Is there a different way that I should be doing this? Is there some property to apply the easing to the entire sequence rather than each keyframe?

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  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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  • I cannot make log4net work in my web application :(

    - by vtortola
    Hi, I'm trying to set up log4net but I cannot make it work. I've put this in my Web.config: <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="logfile.log" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Composite" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="14" /> <maximumFileSize value="15000KB" /> <datePattern value="yyyyMMdd" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> <appender-ref ref="TraceAppender" /> </root> (StackOverflow is not rendering correctly the code I've pasted, I don't know why) Then, in my code I execute: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/Web.config"))); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger("MainLogger"); if(log.IsDebugEnabled) log.Debug("lalala"); But nothing happen. I check the "log" variable, and contains an LogImpl object, that has all the logging levels enabled. I get no error or configuration warning, I cannot see any file in the root, in the bin or anywhere. What do I have to do to make it work? Cheers.

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  • Can I write a .NETCF Partial Class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl?

    - by eidylon
    Okay... I'm writing a .NET CF (VBNET 2008 3.5 SP1) application, which has one master form, and it dynamically loads specific UserControls based on menu click, in a sort of framework idea. There are certain methods and properties these controls all need to work within the app. Right now I am doing this as an Interface, but this is aggravating as all get up, because some of the methods are optional, and yet I MUST implement them by the nature of interfaces. I would prefer to use inheritance, so that I can have certain code be inherited with overridability, but if I write a class which inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl and then inherit my control from that, it squiggles, and tells me that UserControls MUST inherit directly from System.Windows.Forms.UserControl. (Talk about a design flaw!) So next I thought, well, let me use a partial class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl, but when I do that, even though it all seems to compile fine, none of my new properties/methods show up on my controls. Is there any way I can use partial classes to 'extend' System.Windows.Forms.UserControl? For example, can anyone give me a code sample of a partial class which simply adds a MyCount As Integer readonly property to the System.Windows.Forms.UserControl class? If I can just see how to get this going, I can take it from there and add the rest of my functionality. Thanks in advance! I've been searching google, but can't find anything that seems to work for UserControl extension on .NET CF. And the Interface method is driving me crazy as even a small change means updating ALL the controls whether they need to 'override' the method or not.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 having problems with namespaces when used as type in Generic coolection

    - by patrick
    I just upgraded last week from Visual Studio 2005 to 2008. I am having an issue with compiler resolving namespaces when I use a class as a type in a Generic collection. Intellisense recognizes the class and the compiler generates no errors when I use the class except when it is a type in a Generic collection declaration either as return type for a Property or as a parameter to a method. This is happening in my only project that is targeting the 3.5 framework, but changing the project containing the class to use the 3.5 framework doesn't fix the problem. Examples Compile fine MyClass myClass = new MyClass(); SortedList <DateTime,MyClass> listOfClasses = new SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> Compile error - Namespace could not be found public SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> ClassList { get; set; } private void DoSomethingToLists(SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> classList) Intellisense has no problem resolving the namespace, only the compiler. Is this a known bug or am I missing something obvious? Will SP1 fix it? I was able to create a new library containing just this class targeting 3.5 and am now able to successfully use this in both 3.5 and 2.0 projects. My guess is that even though I tried to change the target of my original library, since it was still referencing 2.0 projects there was some conflict.

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  • Which is better Span that runat server or default asp lable ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I have a simple asp.net web page that contain a table with about 5 TR and each row have 2 TD .. in the page load I get user data ( 5 property ) and view them in this page the following are first 2 rows : <table> <tr> <td> FullName </td> <td> <span id="fullNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Username </td> <td> <span id="userNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> </table> I always used <asp:Label to set value by code but i always notice that label converted in runtime to span so i decided to user span by making him runat=server to be accessed by code, so Which is better to use asp:label or span with runat=server ??

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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  • Accessing both stored procedure output parameters AND the result set in Entity Framework?

    - by MS.
    Is there any way of accessing both a result set and output parameters from a stored procedure added in as a function import in an Entity Framework model? I am finding that if I set the return type to "None" such that the designer generated code ends up calling base.ExecuteFunction(...) that I can access the output parameters fine after calling the function (but of course not the result set). Conversely if I set the return type in the designer to a collection of complex types then the designer generated code calls base.ExecuteFunction<T>(...) and the result set is returned as ObjectResult<T> but then the value property for the ObjectParameter instances is NULL rather than containing the proper value that I can see being passed back in Profiler. I speculate the second method is perhaps calling a DataReader and not closing it. Is this a known issue? Any work arounds or alternative approaches? Edit My code currently looks like public IEnumerable<FooBar> GetFooBars( int? param1, string param2, DateTime from, DateTime to, out DateTime? createdDate, out DateTime? deletedDate) { var createdDateParam = new ObjectParameter("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var deletedDateParam = new ObjectParameter("DeletedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var fooBars = MyContext.GetFooBars(param1, param2, from, to, createdDateParam, deletedDateParam); createdDate = (DateTime?)(createdDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : createdDateParam.Value); deletedDate = (DateTime?)(deletedDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : deletedDateParam.Value); return fooBars; }

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  • Deleting from 2 arrays of dictionaries

    - by Matt Winters
    I have an array of dictionaries loaded from a plist (below) called arrayHistory. <plist version="1.0"> <array> <dict> <key>item</key> <string>1</string> <key>result</key> <string>8.1</string> <key>date</key> <date>2009-12-15T19:36:59Z</date> </dict> ... </array> </plist> I filter this array based on 'item' so that a second array, arrayHistoryDetail has the same structure as arrayHistory but only contains e.g. 'item's equal to '1'. These detail items are successfully displayed in a tableView. I then want to select an item from the tableView, and delete it from the tableView data source, arrayHistoryDetail (line 2 in the code below) - works, then I want to delete the item from the tableView itself (line 3 in the code below) - also works. My problem is that I also need to delete it from the original arrayHistory, so I tried the following: created a temporary dictionary as an ivar: NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; Then my thinking was to make a copy in line 1 and remove it from the original array in line 4. 1 tempDict = [arrayHistoryDetail objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 2 [arrayHistoryDetail removeObjectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 3 [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; 4 [arrayHistory removeObject:tempDict]; Didn't work. Could someone please guide me in the right direction. I'm thinking that tempDict is a pointer and that removeObject needs a copy? I don't know. Thanks.

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  • Are TestContext.Properties usable ?

    - by DBJDBJ
    Using Visual Studio generate Test Unit class. Then comment in, the class initialization method. Inside it add your property, using the testContext argument. Upon test app startup this method is indeed called by the testing infrastructure. //Use ClassInitialize to run code before running the first test in the class [ClassInitialize()] public static void MyClassInitialize(TestContext testContext) { /* * Any user defined testContext.Properties * added here will be erased after this method exits */ testContext.Properties.Add("key", 1 ) ; // place the break point here } After leaving MyClassInitialize, any properties added by user are lost. Only the 10 "official" ones are left. Actually TestContext gets overwritten, with the inital offical one, each time before each test method is called. It it not overwritten only if user has test initialization method, the changes made over there are passed to the test. //Use TestInitialize to run code before running each test [TestInitialize()]public void MyTestInitialize(){ this.TestContext.Properties.Add("this is preserved",1) ; } This effectively means TestContext.Properties is "mostly" read only, for users. Which is not clearly documented in MSDN. It seems to me this is very messy design+implementation. Why having TestContext.Properties as an collection, at all ? Users can do many other solutions to have class wide initialization. Please discuss. --DBJ

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  • How can I show grouping in a WPF Data Grid with multiple levels?

    - by Keith
    I am relatively new to WPF, so I understand about Styles and setters, but I am having trouble on this one. I am using a WPF Data Grid and need to show multiple levels of grouping. I would like the 2nd and 3rd group levels to be more indented than the top level. The following code will show group levels, but it shows them one right on top of the other and makes the fact that they are nested group levels impossible to tell. <Style x:Key="GroupHeaderStyle" TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Expander IsExpanded="True"> <Expander.Header> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"/> </Expander.Header> <ItemsPresenter /> </Expander> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> How can I get the group header to indent based on level?

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  • LINQ to SQL - Insert yielding strange behavior.

    - by Isaac
    Hi, I'm trying to insert several newly created items to the database. I have a LINQ2SQL generated class called "Order". Inside order, there's a property called "OrderItems" which is also generated by LINQ2SQL and represents the Items of that Order. So far so good. The problem I'm having right now, is when I try to add more than one newly created OrderItem inside Order. I.E: Order o = orderWorker.GetById( 10 ); for( int i=0; i < 5; ++i ) { OrderItem oi =new OrderItem { Order = order, Price = 100, ShippingPrice = 100, ShippingMethod = ... }; o.OrderItems.Add( oi ); } context.SubmitChanges(); Unfortunately, only a single entity is being added. Yes, I checked the generated SQL by adding Context.Log = Console.Out, and yes, only one statement was created. Any clues? By the way I know I'm not using InsertOnSubmit, by the documentation says: You can explicitly request Inserts by using InsertOnSubmit. Alternatively, LINQ to SQL can infer Inserts by finding objects connected to one of the known objects that must be updated. For example, if you add an Untracked object to an EntitySet(TEntity) or set an EntityRef(TEntity) to an Untracked object, you make the Untracked object reachable by way of tracked objects in the graph. While processing SubmitChanges, LINQ to SQL traverses the tracked objects and discovers any reachable persistent objects that are not tracked. Such objects are candidates for insertion into the database. Thank you very much for your time.

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  • VSTO Outlook - Contact iteration is SO SLOW!

    - by DustinDavis
    I'm working on an outlook add-in and I have a dialog window that allows the user to select contacts. I havent been able to find a way to use the outlook contact window so I am looping through the ContactFolder.Items and doing my work that way. The problem is that I have to handle up to 70K contacts. I tried multi-threading and many other things but it is just so slow. It takes 15 seconds to load 30k contacts. I can load and bind 500k POCO objects in milliseconds but when I need to get the contact items from outlook it just takes forever. The problem seems to be when you actually need to get a property from the contactitem it has to fetch it from the database or something. Is there a contact cache I can pull from? I only need Display and Email, nothing else. An ID would be nice but I don't need it. Can someone please tell me a better way of getting contacts from outlook or at least tell me how to open the outlook contact selection window? I was able to find code to open it but it wont let me because I'm showing a modal dialog and it wont open if there is a modal open.

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  • Reflection and Operator Overloads in C#

    - by TenshiNoK
    Here's the deal. I've got a program that will load a given assembly, parse through all Types and their Members and compile a TreeView (very similar to old MSDN site) and then build HTML pages for each node in the TreeView. It basically takes a given assembly and allows the user to create their own MSDN-like library for it for documentation purposes. Here's the problem I've run into: whenever an operator overload is encounted in a defined class, reflection returns that as a "MethodInfo" with the name set to something like "op_Assign" or "op_Equality". I want to be able to capture these and list them properly, but I can't find anything in the MethodInfo object that is returned to accurately identify that I'm looking at an operator. I definitely don't want to just capture everything that starts with "op_", since that will most certainly (at some point) will pick up a method it's not supposed to. I know that other methods and properties that are "special cases" like this one have the "IsSpecialName" property set, but appearantly that's not the case with operators. I've been scouring the 'net and wracking my brain to two days trying to figure this one out, so any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to detect the root recursive call?

    - by ahmadabdolkader
    Say we're writing a simple recursive function fib(n) that calculates the nth Fibonacci number. Now, we want the function to print that nth number. As the same function is being called repeatedly, there has to be a condition that allows only the root call to print. The question is: how to write this condition without passing any additional arguments, or using global/static variables. So, we're dealing with something like this: int fib(int n) { if(n <= 0) return 0; int fn = 1; if(n > 2) fn = fib(n-2) + fib(n-1); if(???) cout << fn << endl; return fn; } int main() { fib(5); return 0; } I thought that the root call differs from all children by returning to a different caller, namely the main method in this example. I wanted to know whether it is possible to use this property to write the condition and how. Update: please note that this is a contrived example that only serves to present the idea. This should be clear from the tags. I'm not looking for standard solutions. Thanks.

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  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

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  • How to cancel a deeply nested process

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

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