Search Results

Search found 43645 results on 1746 pages for 'student question'.

Page 422/1746 | < Previous Page | 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429  | Next Page >

  • How to create platform independent 3D video on 3D TV via HDMI 1.4?

    - by artif
    I am writing a real-time, interactive 3D visualization program and at each point in the program, I can compute 2 images (bitmaps) that are meant to look 3D together by means of stereoscopy. How do I get my program to display the image pairs such that they look 3D on a 3D TV? Is there a platform independent way of accomplishing it? (By platform I mean independent of GPU brand, operating system, 3D TV vendor, etc.) If not, which is preferable-- to lock in by GPU, OS, or 3D TV? I suppose I need to be using an HDMI 1.4 cable with the 3D TV? HDMI 1.4 can encode stereoscopy via side-by-side method. But how do I send such an encoded signal to the monitor? What kind of libraries do I use for this sort of thing? Windows DirectShow? If DirectShow is correct, is there a cross platform equivalent available? If anyone asks, yes I have seen this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2811350/generating-3d-tv-stereoscopic-output-programmatically. However, correct me if I am wrong, it does not appear to be what I'm looking for. I do not have an OpenGL or Direct3D program that generates polygons, for which a Nvidia card can do ad-hoc impromptu stereoscopy simply by rendering the scene from 2 slightly offset points of view and then displaying those 2 images on the monitor-- my program already has those image pairs and needs to display them (and they are not the result of rendering polygons). Btw, I have never done any major multimedia programming before and know very little about HDMI, Direct Show, 3D TVs, etc so pardon me if any parts of this question did not make any sense at all.

    Read the article

  • POST XML to server, receive PDF

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Similar to this question, we are developing a Web app where the client clicks a button to receive a PDF from the server. Right now we're using the .ajax() method with jQuery to POST the data the backend needs to generate the PDF (we're sending XML) when the button is pressed, and then the backend is generating the PDF entirely in-memory and sending it back as application/pdf in the HTTP response. One answer to that question requires the server-side save the PDF to disk so it can give back a URL for the client to GET. But I don't want the backend caching content at all. The other answer suggests the use of a jQuery plugin, but when you look at its code, it's actually generating a form element and then submitting the form. That method will not work for us since we are sending XML data in the body of the HTTP request. Is there a way to have the browser open up the PDF without caching the PDF server-side, and without requiring us to throw out our send-data-to-the-server-using-XML solution? (I'd like the browser to behave like it does when a form element is submitted -- a POST is made and then the browser looks at the Content-type header to determine what to do next, like load the PDF in the browser window, a la Safari)

    Read the article

  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Problems migrating databinding in VB.NET from Winforms to ASP.NET 2.0

    - by David
    And this was supposed to be so easy... I have existing business and data access layers that handle the retrieval and update of the data in question. These work great with the existing Winforms application (.Net V2.0) Now, in trying to write a new web-based UI, I'm running into all sorts of problems (last time I wrote asp.net code was in 1.1). Specifically, I can't data bind a text box to a business object. Oh, sure there's the ObjectDataSource but that wants to know how to do CRUD operations on the data. What I'm looking for is something that acts like the 'classic' binding objects so that, in my code, it's as simple as retrieving the object and doing a a refresh. The data component like FormView and DetailsView are so generic-looking that it's ridiculous. The existing application would have tabbed dialogs, text boxes grouped by panels, etc. On top of that, I have a directive to use master pages and unless one control causes it, I can't seem to get the content section to expand. I can't just put a text box 'below' the bottom of "Content1" and have it resize the content section - which gives me the same results as an earlier question I posted when the footer wasn't being 'pushed down' - relative position solved that but doesn't seem to solve it with placing small text boxes in the area. What I want is fairly simple. Something like: bindingobject.datasource = businessdataobject bindingobject.refresh ...and have the text boxes refresh with the new values. Likewise to have 'businessdataobject' properties updated as the user enters new data. I was able to do this with the GridView (grdRequests.DataSource = lstRequests) by making a list of asp:BoundField tags inside the collection of the GridView. Am I tilting at windmills here?

    Read the article

  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

    Read the article

  • Clearly defined Rails routing problem - undefined method for Nil:NilClass

    - by sscirrus
    Guys and girls, I have been working on this problem for a while but still no joy. This is my second question within this general area, because the last question was getting too long and this is now more well-defined. Summary of the Problem: I am loading a page for my customers and I get error: undefined method 'name' for Nil:NilClass My Code #Link on views/users/show.html.erb: <%= link_to "Customer Account", :action => "home", :controller => "customers", :id => @user.user_type_id %> #Regular Route: map.connect 'customers/home/:id', :controller => 'customers', :action => 'home' #Rake Routes, first entry: /customers/home/:id :controller=>:"customers", :action=>"home" #Customers Controller: def home render :layout => 'home' @customer = Customer.find(params[:id]) @user = @current_user_session.user flash[:error] = "Customer not found" and return unless @customer @jobs = @customer.jobs end #views/customers/home.html.erb: <%= @customer.name %> I have absolutely no idea why this seemingly clear sequence of events is resulting in a NilClass. Search the console for Customer.find(2) returns the correct customer. What is this noob missing? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

    Read the article

  • Comparing lists in Standard ML

    - by user1050640
    I am extremely new to SML and we just got out first programming assignment for class and I need a little insight. The question is: write an ML function, called minus: int list * int list -> int list, that takes two non-decreasing integer lists and produces a non-decreasing integer list obtained by removing the elements from the first input list which are also found in the second input list. For example, minus( [1,1,1,2,2], [1,1,2,3] ) = [1,2] minus( [1,1,2,3],[1,1,1,2,2] ) = [3] Here is my attempt at answering the question. Can anyone tell me what I am doing incorrectly? I don't quite understand parsing lists. fun minus(xs,nil) = [] | minus(nil,ys) = [] | minus(x::xs,y::ys) = if x=y then minus(xs,ys) else x :: minus(x,ys); Here is a fix I just did, I think this is right now? fun minus(L1,nil) = L1 | minus(nil,L2) = [] | minus(L1,L2) = if hd(L1) > hd(L2) then minus(L1,tl(L2)) else if hd(L1) = hd(L2) then minus(tl(L1),tl(L2)) else hd(L1) :: minus(tl(L1), L2);

    Read the article

  • Auto filling polymorphic table on save or on delete in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    Hi, Am working on an project in which I made an app "core" it will contain some of the reused models across my projects, most of those are polymorphic models (Generic content types) and will be linked to different models. Example below am trying to create audit model and will be linked to several models which may require auditing. This is the polls/models.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from core.models import * from django.contrib.contenttypes import generic class Poll(models.Model): ## TODO: Document question = models.CharField(max_length=300) question_slug=models.SlugField(editable=False) start_poll_at = models.DateTimeField(null=True) end_poll_at = models.DateTimeField(null=True) is_active = models.BooleanField(default=True) audit_obj=generic.GenericRelation(Audit) def __unicode__(self): return self.question class Choice(models.Model): ## TODO: Document choice = models.CharField(max_length=200) poll=models.ForeignKey(Poll) audit_obj=generic.GenericRelation(Audit) class Vote(models.Model): ## TODO: Document choice=models.ForeignKey(Choice) Ip_Address=models.IPAddressField(editable=False) vote_at=models.DateTimeField("Vote at", editable=False) here is the core/modes.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from django.contrib.contenttypes.models import ContentType from django.contrib.contenttypes import generic class Audit(models.Model): ## TODO: Document # Polymorphic model using generic relation through DJANGO content type created_at = models.DateTimeField("Created at", auto_now_add=True) created_by = models.ForeignKey(User, db_column="created_by", related_name="%(app_label)s_%(class)s_y+") updated_at = models.DateTimeField("Updated at", auto_now=True) updated_by = models.ForeignKey(User, db_column="updated_by", null=True, blank=True, related_name="%(app_label)s_%(class)s_y+") content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField(unique=True) content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') and here is polls/admin.py from django.core.context_processors import request from polls.models import Poll, Choice from core.models import * from django.contrib import admin class ChoiceInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Choice extra = 3 class PollAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = [ChoiceInline] admin.site.register(Poll, PollAdmin) Am quite new to django, what am trying to do here, insert a record in audit when a record is inserted in polls and then update that same record when a record is updated in polls.

    Read the article

  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

    Read the article

  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

    Read the article

  • c++ callback syntax in a class

    - by Mr Bell
    I am trying to figure out the syntax to register a callback with this 3rd party software. I think it is probably a basic question, I just am not too familiar with c++. They have a method for registering a callback function so their code can call a function in my code when an event happens. They provided a working example that registers the callback from the main file, but I want to know how to do it when working inside a class Their method signature: smHTRegisterHeadPoseCallback(smEngineHandle engine_handle, void *user_data, smHTHeadPoseCallback callback_fun); Working example from the main file: void STDCALL receiveHeadPose(void *,smEngineHeadPoseData head_pose, smCameraVideoFrame video_frame) { ... } void main() { ... smHTRegisterHeadPoseCallback(engine_handle,0,receiveHeadPose) ... } But I want to use this from my class MyClass.h class FaceEngine { public: void STDCALL receiveFaceData(void *, smEngineFaceData face_data, smCameraVideoFrame video_frame); ... MyClass.cpp void FaceEngine::Start(void) { rc = smHTRegisterFaceDataCallback(hFaceAPIEngine,0,&FaceEngine::receiveFaceData); ... Results in this compiler error: Error 1 error C2664: 'smHTRegisterFaceDataCallback' : cannot convert parameter 3 from 'void (__stdcall FaceEngine::* )(void *,smEngineFaceData,smCameraVideoFrame)' to 'smHTFaceDataCallback' d:\stuff\programming\visual studio 2008\projects\tut02_vertices\faceengine.cpp 43 Beard If my question isn't clear please let me know how I can clarify.

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to make an activity log

    - by Nathan
    I am making a "recent activity" tab to profiles on my site and I also am going to have a log for moderators to see everything that happens on the site. This would require making an activity log of some sort. I just don't know what would be better. I have 2 options: Make a table called "activity" and then every time someone does something, add a record to it with the type of action, user id, timestamp, etc. Problem: table could get very long. Join all 3 tables (questions, answers, answer_comments) and then somehow show all these on the page in the order in which the action was taken. Problem: this would be extremely hard because I have no clue how I could make it say "John commented on an answer on Question Title Here" by just joining 3 tables. Does anyone know of a better way of making an activity log in this situation? I am using PHP and MySQL. If this is either too inefficient or hard I will probably just forget the Recent Activity tab on profiles but I still need an activity log for moderators. Here's some SQL that I started making for option 2, but this would not work because there is no way of detecting whether the action is a comment, question, or answer when I echo the info in a while loop: SELECT q.*, a.*, ac.* FROM questions q JOIN answers a ON a.questionid = q.qid JOIN answer_comments ac ON c.answerid = a.ans_id WHERE q.user = $userid AND a.userid = $userid AND ac.userid = $userid ORDER BY q.created DESC, a.created DESC, ac.created DESC Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with the JavaScript event handling in this example? (Using click() and hover() jQuery

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a sort of proof-of-concept for a project that approximates Firebug's inspector tool. For more details, please see this related question. Here is the example page. I've only tested it in Firefox: http://troy.onespot.com/static/highlight.html The idea is that, when you're mousing over any element that can contain text, it should "highlight" with a light gray background to indicate the boundaries of that element. When you then click on the element, it should alert() a CSS selector that matches it. This is somewhat working in the example linked above. However, there's one fundamental problem. When mousing over from the top of the page to the bottom, it will pick up the paragraphs, <h1> element, etc. But, it doesn't get the <div>s that encompass those paragraphs. However, for example, if you "sneak up" on the <div> that contains the two paragraphs "The area was settled..." and "Austin was selected..." from the left - tracing down the left edge of the page and entering the <div> just between the two paragraphs (see this screenshot) - then it is picked up. I assume this has something to do with the fact that I haven't attached an event handler to the <body> element (where you're entering the <div> from if you enter from the left), but I have attached handlers to the <p>s (where you're entering from if you come from the top or bottom). There are also other issues with mousing in and out elements - background colors that "stick" and the like - that I think are also related. As indicated in the related question posted above, I suspect there is something about event bubbling that I don't understand that is causing unexpected behavior. Can anyone spot what's wrong with my code? Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Regular input in ASP.NET

    - by coffeeaddict
    Here's an example of a regular standard HTML input for my radiobuttonlist: <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" checked value="0" />None</label> <asp:Repeater ID="rptRsOptions" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" value='<%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Id %>' /><%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I removed some stuff for this thread, one being I put an r for some name that I do not want to expose here so just an fyi. Now, I would assume that this would or should happen: Page loads the first time, the None radio button is checked / defaulted I go and select a different radiobutton in this radiobutton list I do an F5 refresh in my browser The None radio button is pre-selected again after it has come back from the refresh but #4 is not happening. It's retaining the radiobutton that I selected in #2 and I don't know why. I mean in regular HTML it's stateless. So what could be holding this value? I want this to act like a normal input button. I know the question of "why not use an ASP.NET control" will come up. Well there are 2 reasons: The stupid radiobuttonlist bug that everyone knows about I just want to brush up more on standard input tags We are not moving to MVC so this is as close as I'll get and it's ok, because the rest of the team is on par with having mixed ASP.NET controls with standard HTML controls in our pages Anyway my main question here is I'm surprised that it's retaining the change in selection after postback.

    Read the article

  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

    Read the article

  • Why is the colspan not working properly in this script? js bug or IE ?

    - by Perpetualcoder
    This question is related to this question I asked a little while back. The updated code is posted here. This to note is that i am looking to create a HTML table dynamically that looks similar to this: <table> <tbody> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can get this done in markup but when I do it in js the colspan does not seem to work in IE7. Any hep will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Which text margin does SWT Table use when drawing text?

    - by Zordid
    I got a relatively easy question - but I cannot find anything anywhere to answer it. I use a simple SWT table widget in my application that displays only text in the cells. I got an incremental search feature and want to highlight text snippets in all cells if they match. So when typing "a", all "a"s should be highlighted. To get this, I add an SWT.EraseItem listener to interfere with the background drawing. If the current cell's text contains the search string, I find the positions and calculate relative x-coordinates within the text using event.gc.stringExtent - easy. With that I just draw rectangles "behind" the occurrences. Now, there's a flaw in this. The table does not draw the text without a margin, so my x coordinate does not really match - it is slightly off by a few pixels! But how many?? Where do I retrieve the cell's text margins that table's own drawing will use? No clue. Cannot find anything. :-( Bonus question: the table's draw method also shortens text and adds "..." if it does not fit into the cell. Hmm. My occurrence finder takes the TableItem's text and thus also tries to mark occurrences that are actually not visible because they are consumed by the "...". How do I get the shortened text and not the "real" text within the EraseItem draw handler? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • forward invocation, by hand vs magically?

    - by John Smith
    I have the following two class: //file FruitTree.h @interface FruitTree : NSObject { Fruit * f; Leaf * l; } @end //file FruitTree.m @implementation FruitTree //here I get the number of seeds from the object f @end //file Fruit @interface Fruit : NSObject { int seeds; } -(int) countfruitseeds; @end My question is at the point of how I request the number of seeds from f. I have two choices. Either: Since I know f I can explicitly call it, i.e. I implement the method -(int) countfruitseeds { return [f countfruitseeds]; } Or: I can just use forwardInvocation: - (NSMethodSignature *)methodSignatureForSelector:(SEL)selector { // does the delegate respond to this selector? if ([f respondsToSelector:selector]) return [f methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else if ([l respondsToSelector:selector]) return [l methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else return [super methodSignatureForSelector: selector]; } - (void)forwardInvocation:(NSInvocation *)invocation { [invocation invokeWithTarget:f]; } (Note this is only a toy example to ask my question. My real classes have lots of methods, which is why I am asking.) Which is the better/faster method?

    Read the article

  • ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

    - by birdus
    I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

    Read the article

  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

    Read the article

  • Edit Settings in web.config

    - by Scott Selby
    I didn't know how to title this question - I am making a request to PayPal's Express Payment API. I am using their dll that helps make the request and parse the response. The instructions for their code to work is to add you authorization credentials in the web.config file. I have done so. My problem is that I want to be able to edit these credentials that are being set dynamically ( probably get from SQL ) because we are going to allow different users to enter their API credentials. Sending the request to PayPal looks like this Dim wrapper As New SetExpressCheckoutReq() wrapper.SetExpressCheckoutRequest = request Dim service As New PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() Dim setECResponse As SetExpressCheckoutResponseType = service.SetExpressCheckout(wrapper) There's not much room in there to edit the header of the request , because PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() is defined in their dll and applies its own header based on the credentials in the web.config. So, my question is , is there a way to point in the web.config to another location when it looks in web.config? I'm not to sure this is possible , also is there any way to edit the header of a request that is defined in a dll without changing the dll (to stay pci compliant) The line in the web.config is here: <account apiUsername="****" apiPassword="****" apiSignature="****"/>

    Read the article

  • How to use AFIncrementalStore to binding with a NSManagedObject

    - by Matrosov Alexander
    I am searching for more information on how to use AFIncrementalStore. I need to know how to implement it step by step. Please don't down vote it, because of many resources, I really need help with this. If I understood right AFIncrementalStore it is a layer for fetching data from the server and for the mapping data model. Am I right? So I have few URL that I need to mapping into my local model. All of them use GET requests. For example base_url/api/categories I get this string in response: [{"category":{"name":"3d max","id":"1111001","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"photoshop","id":"1111002","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"auto cad","id":"1111003","users":[]}}] So I have a question how I can binding my local db with this data using AFIncrementalStore. Also if you can see there are relationships in the response string that are connected to uses. The array for users will contain id that is correspond to concert users. So I think second question is how to point that model has to have relationship.

    Read the article

  • Java-Eclipse-Spring 3.1 - the fastest way to get familiar with this set

    - by Leron
    I, know almost all of you at some point of your life as a programmer get to the point where you know (more or less) different technologies/languages/IDEs and a times come when you want to get things together and start using them once - more efficient and second - more closely to the real life situation where in fact just knowing Java, or some experience with Eclipse doesn't mean nothing, and what makes you a programmer worth something is the ability to work with the combination of 2 or more combinations. Having this in mind here is my question - what do you think is the optimal way of getting into Java+Eclipse+Spring3.1 world. I've read, and I've read a lot. I started writing real code but almost every step is discovering the wheel again and again, wondering how to do thing you know are some what trivial, but you've missed that one article where this topic was discussed and so on. I don't mind for paying for a good tutorial like for example, after a bit of research I decided that instead of losing a lot of time getting the different parts together I'd rather pay for the videos in http://knpuniversity.com/screencast/starting-in-symfony2-tutorial and save myself a lot of time (I hope) and get as fast as possible to writing a real code instead of wondering what do what and so on. But I find it much more difficult to find such sources of info especially when you want something more specific as me and that's the reason to ask this question. I know a lot of you go through the hard way, and I won't give up if I have to do the same, but to be honest I really hope to get post with good tutorials on the subject (paid or not) because in my situation time is literally money. Thanks Leron

    Read the article

  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429  | Next Page >