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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • What's the best way to format this simple HTML form using CSS?

    - by GregH
    I have have a simple HTML form with say four input widgets (see below)...two lines with two widgets on each line. However, when this renders it is pretty ugly. I want the whole form to be indented from the edge of the left page say 40px and I want the left edge of the widgets to line up with each other and the right edge of the labels to line up. I also want to be able to specify a minimum distance between the right edge of the first widget and the label of the widget next to it. How would I do this using CSS? Basically so it looks something like: Name: _____________ Common Names: _____________ Version: ____________ Status: ____________ See current un-formatted HTML below: <form name="detailData"> <div id="dataEntryForm"> <label> Name: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddName"/> Common Names: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddCommonNames"><P> Version: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddVer"/> Status: <select name="ddStatus"><option value="A" selected="selected">Active</option><option value="P">Planned</option><option value="D">Deprecated</option> </label> </div> </form>

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • VB.NET Update Access Database with DataTable

    - by sinDizzy
    I've been perusing some hep forums and some help books but cant seem to get my head wrapped around this. My task is to read data from two text files and then load that data into an existing MS Access 2007 database. So here is what i'm trying to do: Read data from first text file and for every line of data add data to a DataTable using CarID as my unique field. Read data from second text file and look for existing CarID in DataTable if exists update that row. If it doesnt exist add a new row. once im done push the contents of the DataTable to the database. What i have so far: Dim sSQL As String = "SELECT * FROM tblCars" Dim da As New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter(sSQL, conn) Dim ds As New DataSet da.Fill(ds, "CarData") Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(da) 'loop read a line of text and parse it out. gets dd, dc, and carId 'create a new empty row Dim dsNewRow As DataRow = ds.Tables("CarData").NewRow() 'update the new row with fresh data dsNewRow.Item("DriveDate") = dd dsNewRow.Item("DCode") = dc dsNewRow.Item("CarNum") = carID 'about 15 more fields 'add the filled row to the DataSet table ds.Tables("CarData").Rows.Add(dsNewRow) 'end loop 'update the database with the new rows da.Update(ds, "CarData") Questions: In constructing my table i use "SELECT * FROM tblCars" but what if that table has millions of records already. Is that not a waste of resources? Should i be trying something different if i want to update with new records? Once Im done with the first text file i then go to my next text file. Whats the best approach here: To First look for an existing record based on CarNum or to create a second table and then merge the two at the end? Finally when the DataTable is done being populated and im pushing it to the database i want to make sure that if records already exist with three primary fields (DriveDate, DCode, and CarNum) that they get updated with new fields and if it doesn't exist then those records get appended. Is that possible with my process? tia AGP

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  • Optimizing a bin-placement algorithm

    - by user258651
    Alright, I've got two collections, and I need to place elements from collection1 into the bins (elements) of collection2, based on whether their value falls within a given bin's range. For a concrete example, assume I have a sorted collection objects (bins) which have an int range ([1...4], [5..10], etc). I need to determine the range an int falls in, and place it in the appropriate bin. foreach(element n in collection1) { foreach(bin m in collection2) { if (m.inRange(n)) { m.add(n); break; } } } So the obvious NxM complexity algorithm is there, but I really would like to see Nxlog(M). To do this I'd like to use BinarySearch in place of the inner foreach loop. To use BinarySearch, I need to implement an IComparer class to do the searching for me. The problem I'm running into is this approach would require me to make an IComparer.Compare function that compares two different types of objects (an element to its bin), and that doesn't seem possible or correct. So I'm asking, how should I write this algorithm?

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  • Entangled text boxes

    - by user38329
    Hi StackOverflow, A mere Windows textbox greatly surprised me today. I have two unrelated text boxes inside an application. I can type in either text box and switch the focus by clicking on them. Then happens some event X, which I can't describe here for reasons given below. After this event happens, the two text boxes become "entangled" in an almost quantum way. Say, text box A was focused before X happened. When I click text box B to type in some text, the new text appears in text box A, whereas the blinking cursor happily moves along in text box B through the void, as if the text were there. No amount of clicking on either text boxes can resolve this. The cursor will always remain in B, whereas the text will always go to A. Message spying reveals that after the event X, the text boxes lose the ability to lose or gain focus. When I click on B, WM_LOSE_FOCUS does not come to A, and WM_SET_FOCUS does not come to B. (The rectangles and visibility of the boxes are OK.) The same thing happens in Windows XP and Windows 7. Now, event X: it's a big event in a third-party UI library which I cannot reverse-engineer in a timely manner. (Namely, docking a pane in wxAUI.) I am sure that this behavior is the result of incorrect WinAPI calls to the text boxes (garbage in - garbage out). I would like to know what could possibly cause such "textbox trip" to know where to start looking for the bug. Thanks!

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  • Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

    - by Mike
    I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

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  • Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

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  • How to map combinations of things to a relational database?

    - by Space_C0wb0y
    I have a table whose records represent certain objects. For the sake of simplicity I am going to assume that the table only has one row, and that is the unique ObjectId. Now I need a way to store combinations of objects from that table. The combinations have to be unique, but can be of arbitrary length. For example, if I have the ObjectIds 1,2,3,4 I want to store the following combinations: {1,2}, {1,3,4}, {2,4}, {1,2,3,4} The ordering is not necessary. My current implementation is to have a table Combinations that maps ObjectIds to CombinationIds. So every combination receives a unique Id: ObjectId | CombinationId ------------------------ 1 | 1 2 | 1 1 | 2 3 | 2 4 | 2 This is the mapping for the first two combinations of the example above. The problem is, that the query for finding the CombinationId of a specific Combination seems to be very complex. The two main usage scenarios for this table will be to iterate over all combinations, and the retrieve a specific combination. The table will be created once and never be updated. I am using SQLite through JDBC. Is there any simpler way or a best practice to implement such a mapping?

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  • How do i set the proxy and SOCKs in libcurl?

    - by acidzombie24
    I am trying to configure my .NET app to use a proxy. My source is in C# but i learned CURL via C++. My question is where do i put the SOCKs IP and port? i looked through the documentation and didnt see it. I believe that is what is causing me these problems. When i run this code it will quiet literally timeout and not call my header function or writer function. If i comment out the first two curlopt lines (the two proxy lines) my code runs with no problems. In firefox i set the http proxy and SOCKs host separately, they are different IPs and ports. How do i set the sock part, the below has the dummy proxy set but i cant figure out the socks part. static void Main(string[] args) { SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.Curl.GlobalInit((int)SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.CURLinitFlag.CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); var curl = new Easy(); { curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_PROXY, "http://127.0.0.1:1234"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_PROXYTYPE, CURLproxyType.CURLPROXY_SOCKS5); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_URL, "http://whatismyipaddress.com/ip-lookup"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_USERAGENT, @"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2b5) Gecko/20091204 Firefox/3.6b5"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, hf); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_HEADERDATA, data); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, wf); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, sw); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl.Perform(); var sz = sw.ToString(); var myrealip = sz.IndexOf("12.34.56.78") !=-1; } //Console.WriteLine(sz); SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.Curl.GlobalCleanup(); }

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  • vectorizing loops in Matlab - performance issues

    - by Gacek
    This question is related to these two: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2867901/introduction-to-vectorizing-in-matlab-any-good-tutorials http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2561617/filter-that-uses-elements-from-two-arrays-at-the-same-time Basing on the tutorials I read, I was trying to vectorize some procedure that takes really a lot of time. I've rewritten this: function B = bfltGray(A,w,sigma_r) dim = size(A); B = zeros(dim); for i = 1:dim(1) for j = 1:dim(2) % Extract local region. iMin = max(i-w,1); iMax = min(i+w,dim(1)); jMin = max(j-w,1); jMax = min(j+w,dim(2)); I = A(iMin:iMax,jMin:jMax); % Compute Gaussian intensity weights. F = exp(-0.5*(abs(I-A(i,j))/sigma_r).^2); B(i,j) = sum(F(:).*I(:))/sum(F(:)); end end into this: function B = rngVect(A, w, sigma) W = 2*w+1; I = padarray(A, [w,w],'symmetric'); I = im2col(I, [W,W]); H = exp(-0.5*(abs(I-repmat(A(:)', size(I,1),1))/sigma).^2); B = reshape(sum(H.*I,1)./sum(H,1), size(A, 1), []); But this version seems to be as slow as the first one, but in addition it uses a lot of memory and sometimes causes memory problems. I suppose I've made something wrong. Probably some logic mistake regarding vectorizing. Well, in fact I'm not surprised - this method creates really big matrices and probably the computations are proportionally longer. I have also tried to write it using nlfilter (similar to the second solution given by Jonas) but it seems to be hard since I use Matlab 6.5 (R13) (there are no sophisticated function handles available). So once again, I'm asking not for ready solution, but for some ideas that would help me to solve this in reasonable time. Maybe you will point me what I did wrong.

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  • How can I make NSUndoManager's undo/redo action names work properly?

    - by Gabe
    I'm learning Cocoa, and I've gotten undo to work without much trouble. But the setActionName: method is puzzling me. Here's a simple example: a toy app whose windows contain a single text label and two buttons. Press the On button and the label reads 'On'. Press the Off button and the label changes to read 'Off'. Here are the two relevant methods (the only code I wrote for the app): -(IBAction) turnOnLabel:(id)sender { [[self undoManager] registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(turnOffLabel:) object:self]; [[self undoManager] setActionName:@"Turn On Label"]; [theLabel setStringValue:@"On"]; } -(IBAction) turnOffLabel:(id)sender { [[self undoManager] registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(turnOnLabel:) object:self]; [[self undoManager] setActionName:@"Turn Off Label"]; [theLabel setStringValue:@"Off"]; } Here's what I expect: I click the On button The label changes to say 'On' In the Edit menu is the item 'Undo Turn On Label' I click that menu item The label changes to say 'Off' In the Edit menu is the item 'Redo Turn On Label' In fact, all these things work as I expect apart from the last one. The item in the Edit menu reads 'Redo Turn Off Label', not 'Redo Turn On Label'. (When I click that menu item, the label does turn to On, as I'd expect, but this makes the menu item's name even more of a mystery. What am i misunderstanding, and how can I get these menu items to display the way I want them to?

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  • multi-shop orders table and sequential order numbers based on shop

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am looking at building a shop solution that needs to be scalable. Currently it retrieves 1-2000 orders on average per day across multiple country based shops (e.g. uk, us, de, dk, es etc.) but this order could be 10x this amount in two years. I am looking at either using separate country-shop databases to store the orders tables, or looking to combine all into one order table. If all orders exist in one table with a global ID (auto num) and country ID (e.g uk,de,dk etc.), each countries orders would also need to have sequential ordering. So in essence, we'd have to have a global ID and a country order ID, with the country order ID being sequential for countries only, e.g. global ID = 1000, country = UK, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1001, country = DE, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1002, country = DE, country order ID = 1001 global ID = 1003, country = DE, country order ID = 1002 global ID = 1004, country = UK, country order ID = 1001 THe global ID would be DB generated and not something I would need to worry about. But I am thinking that I'd have to do a query to get the current country order based ID+1 to find the next sequential number. Two things concern me about this: 1) query times when the table has potentially millions of rows of data and I'm doing a read before a write, 2) the potential for ID number clashes due to simultaneous writes/reads. With a MyISAM table the entire table could be locked whilst the last country order + 1 is retrieved, to prevent ID number clashes. I am wondering if anyone knows of a more elegant solution? Cheers, imanc

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  • How do I establish table association in JPA / Hibernate with existing database?

    - by Paperino
    Currently I have two tables in my database Encounters and Referrals: There is a one to many relationship between these two tables. Currently they are linked together with foreign keys. Right now I have public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { @Column(name="referralid", unique=false, nullable=true, insertable=true, updatable=true) public Integer referralid; } But what I really want is public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { .......... @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<Referrals> referral; ............ } So that I can eventually do a query like this: List<Encounter> cases = Encounter.find( "select distinct p from Encounter p join p.referrals as t where t.caseid =103" ).fetch(); How do I tell JPA that even though I have non-standard column names for my foreign keys and primary keys that its the object models that I want linked, not simply the integer value for the keys? Does this make sense? I hope so. Thanks in advanced!

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  • Lack of security in many PHP applications?

    - by John
    Over the past year of freelancing, I inherited two web projects, both of them built in PHP, both of them with sensitive information like credit card info, bank info, etc... In one application, when I typed http://thecompany.com/admin/, and without being asked for a username and password, I saw every user's sensitive information, including credit card numbers, bank account numbers etc... In another application, I was able to bypass the login screen by simply typing http://the2ndcompany.com/customer.php?user_id=777, and again, without any prompts for username and password, i was able to see user 777's credit card info. I cycled through a few more user_ids (any integer) and saw each person's credit card info. Is something wrong here? Or is this the quality of work that the "average" programmer produces? Because if this is what the average programmer produces, does that means I'm an...gasp...elite programmer?? No..that can't be right....something doesn't make sense. So my question is, is it just coincidence that I inherited two applications both of which are dangerously lacking in security? Or are there are a lot of bad PHP programmers out there?

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  • Hibernate collection multiple types

    - by CaptainAwesomePants
    I have a class Player that contains a list of Accessory objects. There are two kinds of Accessories. SocketedAccessories have a list of SocketJewels, and MagicAccessories have a list of MagicEnchantments. At the database level, there is a players table that represents the player, and an accessories table that contains a list of accessories. Accessories have a type field that indicates whether they are socketed or magical, and the columns that are only used by one type are just left blank by entries of the other type. There are socket_jewels and magic_enchantments tables, representing the socket jewels or the magic enchantments on each accessory. I am trying to figure out the correct way to map this with Hibernate. One way would be for the player to have two lists of accessories, one for SocketedAccessories and one for MagicAccessories. That seems undesirable, though. What I want is a way to specify that player should have a field List<Accessory> accessories that contains both types of thing. Is there a way to tell Hibernate, in either hbm.xml or annotations, to do this?

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  • center div tags inside parent div

    - by Senthilnathan
    I have two div tags inside a parent div. I want to display the two divs in same line and centered. Below is the html code. <div id="parent"> <div id="addEditBtn" style="display:inline-block; vertical-align: middle; width:20px; cursor:pointer;" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all"> <span class="ui-icon ui-icon-pencil"></span></div> <div id="deleteBtn" style="display:inline-block; vertical-align: middle; width:20px; cursor:pointer;" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all"> <span class="ui-icon ui-icon-trash"></span></div> </div> I tried with "display:inline-block; vertical-align: middle;" but its getting aligned left. Please help me out to centered the div tags inside the parent div.

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  • JBoss 6 unpacks jars from WEB-INF/lib of war

    - by Maxym
    when I start JBoss 6 I see that it unpacks all jar files from WEB-INF/lib in tmp/vfs/automountXXX folder. E.g. jackrabbit-server.war contains library asm-3.1.jar, then in tmp folder I see the following folders with files: asm-3.1.jar-83dc35ead0d41d41/asm-3.1.jar asm-3.1.jar-2a48f1c13ec7f25d/contents/"unpacked asm-3.1.jar" it does not take files from my.ear/lib only WEB-INF/lib... Why is it so? And is here any way to prevent it doing so? It just slows down application server starting (and stopping), what is not that comfortable at development... If it is somehow related to JavaEE 6 specification and ejb-jars, which can be located now in WEB-INF/lib, so I don't have such libraries in my war files... UPDATE: actually when I repack jackrabbit-server.war to jackrabbit-server.ear which contains jackrabbit-server.war and moved all its libraries to jackrabbit-server.ear/lib then I still see two folders in tmp: asm-3.1.jar-215a36131ebb088e/asm-3.1.jar asm-3.1.jar-14695f157664f00/contents/ but in this case last folder is empty. So it still creates two folders, but does not unpack my library. Also I use exploded deployment so the question is only about jar files, not unpacking ear/war.

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  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

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  • table subtraction challenge

    - by Valentin
    I have a challenge that I haven’t overcome in the last two days using Stored Procedures and SQL 2008. I took several approaches but must fell short. One appraoch very interesting was using a table substraction. It’s really all about table subtraction. I was wondering if you could help me crack this one. Here is the challenge: Two tables 1Testdb y 2Testdb. My first step was to select ID relationships ([2Testdb].Acc_id) on table 2Testdb for one given individual ([2Testdb].Bus_id). Then query table 1Testdb for records not mathcing my original selection from 2Testdb. But other approaches are welcome. Data and Structures: USE [Challengedb] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[1Testdb]( [Acc_id] [uniqueidentifier] NULL [Name] [Varchar(10)] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[2Testdb]( [Acc_id] [uniqueidentifier] NULL, [Bus_id] [uniqueidentifier] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO Records on 1Testdb: 34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3, John C23523F6-2309-4F58-BB3F-EF7486C7AF8B, Pete DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62, Dave E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C, Adam Records on 2Testdb: (Relationship table, ex. Friend relationships) Record #1: DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62, 34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3 Record #2: E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C, 34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3 Record # 3: DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62, E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C Record # 4: E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C, DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62 Challenge: Select from table 1Testdb only those records distinct that may not have a relationship with John [34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3] on table 2Testdb. Expected result should be (Who does John doesn’t have relationship with?): C23523F6-2309-4F58-BB3F-EF7486C7AF8B, Pete Thank you, Valentin

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  • implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

    - by masseyc
    Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

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  • Stored Procedure To Search the AccessRights given to the Users.

    - by thevan
    Hi, I want to display the Access Rights given to the Users for the particular module. I have Seven Tables such as RoleAccess, Roles, Functions, Module, SubModule, Company and Unit. RoleAccess is the Main Table. The AccessRights given will be stored in the RoleAccess Table only. RoleAccess Table has the following columns such as RoleID, CompanyID, UnitID, FunctionID, ModuleID, SubModuleID, Create, Update, Delete, Read, Approve. Here Create_f, Update_f, Delete_f, Read_f and Approve_f are flags. Company Table has two columns such as CompanyID and CompanyName. Unit Table has three columns such as UnitID, UnitName and CompanyID. Roles Table has four columns such as RoleID, RoleName, CompanyID and UnitID. Module Table has two columns such as ModuleID and ModuleName. SubModule Table has three columns such as ModuleID, SubModuleID, SubModuleName. Functions Table has five columns such as FunctionID, FunctionName, ModuleID and SubModuleID. At First, The RoleAccess Table does not contain any records. So I want to display the ModuleName, SubModuleName, FunctionName, CompanyID, RoleID, UnitID, FunctionID, ModuleID, SubModuleID, Create_f, Update_f, Delete_f, Read_f and Approve_f. If the AccessRights is assigned to the Particular RoleID means the flags in the search results will be 1 else it will be 0. I have witten one stored procedure but it displays the records based on the RoleID stored in the RoleAccess table. But I also want to display the Flags as 0 for the Roles not stored in the RoleAccess Table. I want the Stored Procedure for this. Any one please help me.

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