Search Results

Search found 44910 results on 1797 pages for 'breadth first traversal'.

Page 424/1797 | < Previous Page | 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431  | Next Page >

• Problem with multidimensional arrays in ruby.

  - by antiarchitect

  From script/console: >> pairs = Array.new(2).map!{Array.new(2).map!{Array.new(2, Array.new)}} => [[[[], []], [[], []]], [[[], []], [[], []]]] >> pair = Pair.first => #<Pair id: 39, charge_card_id: 1, classroom_id: 1, timeslot_id: 1, created_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:37", updated_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:47"> >> pairs[0][0][0] << pair => [#<Pair id: 39, charge_card_id: 1, classroom_id: 1, timeslot_id: 1, created_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:37", updated_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:47">] >> pairs[0][0] => [[#<Pair id: 39, charge_card_id: 1, classroom_id: 1, timeslot_id: 1, created_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:37", updated_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:47">], [#<Pair id: 39, charge_card_id: 1, classroom_id: 1, timeslot_id: 1, created_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:37", updated_at: "2010-04-01 00:45:47">]] >> So the question is why the pair object appears in pairs[0][0][0] AND in pairs[0][0][1] inspite of I did'n ask it to appear there. Notice I don't nedd to pairs[0][0][0] = pair - I want it as a first array member, so I need to use << or .push.

  Read the article

• How to write this snippet in Python?

  - by morpheous

  I am learning Python (I have a C/C++ background). I need to write something practical in Python though, whilst learning. I have the following pseudocode (my first attempt at writing a Python script, since reading about Python yesterday). Hopefully, the snippet details the logic of what I want to do. BTW I am using python 2.6 on Ubuntu Karmic. Assume the script is invoked as: script_name.py directory_path import csv, sys, os, glob # Can I declare that the function accepts a dictionary as first arg? def getItemValue(item, key, defval) return !item.haskey(key) ? defval : item[key] dirname = sys.argv[1] # declare some default values here weight, is_male, default_city_id = 100, true, 1 # fetch some data from a database table into a nested dictionary, indexed by a string curr_dict = load_dict_from_db('foo') #iterate through all the files matching *.csv in the specified folder for infile in glob.glob( os.path.join(dirname, '*.csv') ): #get the file name (without the '.csv' extension) code = infile[0:-4] # open file, and iterate through the rows of the current file (a CSV file) f = open(infile, 'rt') try: reader = csv.reader(f) for row in reader: #lookup the id for the code in the dictionary id = curr_dict[code]['id'] name = row['name'] address1 = row['address1'] address2 = row['address2'] city_id = getItemValue(row, 'city_id', default_city_id) # insert row to database table finally: f.close() I have the following questions: Is the code written in a Pythonic enough way (is there a better way of implementing it)? Given a table with a schema like shown below, how may I write a Python function that fetches data from the table and returns is in a dictionary indexed by string (name). How can I insert the row data into the table (actually I would like to use a transaction if possible, and commit just before the file is closed) Table schema: create table demo (id int, name varchar(32), weight float, city_id int); BTW, my backend database is postgreSQL

  Read the article

• Using lambda expressions and linq

  - by Andy

  So I've just started working with linq as well as using lambda expressions. I've run into a small hiccup while trying to get some data that I want. This method should return a list of all projects that are open or in progress from Jira Here's the code public static List<string> getOpenIssuesListByProject(string _projectName) { JiraSoapServiceService jiraSoapService = new JiraSoapServiceService(); string token = jiraSoapService.login(DEFAULT_UN, DEFAULT_PW); string[] keys = { getProjectKey(_projectName) }; RemoteStatus[] statuses = jiraSoapService.getStatuses(token); var desiredStatuses = statuses.Where(x => x.name == "Open" || x.name == "In Progress") .Select(x=>x.id); RemoteIssue[] AllIssues = jiraSoapService.getIssuesFromTextSearchWithProject(token, keys, "", 99); IEnumerable<RemoteIssue> openIssues = AllIssues.Where(x=> { foreach (var v in desiredStatuses) { if (x.status == v) return true; else return false; } return false; }); return openIssues.Select(x => x.key).ToList(); } Right now this only select issues that are "Open", and seems to skip those that are "In Progress". My question: First, why am I only getting the "Open" Issues, and second is there a better way to do this? The reason I get all the statuses first is that the issue only stores that statuses ID, so I get all the statuses, get the ID's that match "Open" and "In Progress", and then match those ID numbers to the issues status field.

  Read the article

• Problems breaking out of nested loops

  - by user1040281

  I have problems breaking out off these nested loops correctly. What the code is trying to do is to indicate that a customer has rented a certain movie. Both the movie and customer are compared to properties of arraylist objects and then if all checks out the name property and ID property of a movie object are added as a string to another arraylist. All this works correctly as long as I use the first movie (from movies) and the first customer (from customers) but if I try renting other movies further down my arraylist with other customers then it adds the rented movie to the customerRentedMovies arraylist but prints out the "else message". I figure I need to break out of the foreach(blabla) loops aswell? or could goto be used? Comments was removed (looked kinda messy, can explain further if needed) public void RentMovie(string titel, int movieID, string name, int customerID) { foreach (Customer customer in customers) { if (name == customer.Name && customerID == customer.CustomerID) { foreach (MovieInfo movie in movies) { if (titel == movie.Titel && movieID == movie.MovieID) { movie.rented = true; string rentedMovie = string.Format("{0} ID: {1}", movie.Titel, movie.MovieID); customer.customerRentedMovies.Add(rentedMovie); break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No movie with that titel and ID!"); } } break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No customer with that ID and name"); } } }

  Read the article

• Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

  - by JM4

  I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

  - by Kyle

  I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

  Read the article

• How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

  - by Roman

  Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

  Read the article

• What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

  - by Patrick

  Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

  Read the article

• Creating a dynamic two-column iOS spinning wheel with HTML/Javascript

  - by JSW189

  I am trying to create a dynamic two-column spinning wheel for iOS Safari using this HTML/Javascript wheel. However, I am having trouble getting the value of the first column to change the results of the second column. I have tried using an if statement to get the value of the first variable (var beverage) and add the value of the second column correspondingly. Does anybody know what I am doing wrong/if there is a better approach? function openBirthDate() { var beverage = { 1:'Coffee', 2:'Soda' }; //THIS IS WHERE I'M HAVING TROUBLE var results = SpinningWheel.getSelectedValues(); if (results.values === 1) { var company = { 1:'Starbucks', 2:'Dunkin Donuts' }; } else { var company = { 1:'Coke', 2:'Pepsi' }; } var size = { 1:'Tall', 2:'Grande', 3:'Venti' }; SpinningWheel.addSlot(type, '', 1); SpinningWheel.addSlot(company, '', 1); SpinningWheel.addSlot(size, '', 1); SpinningWheel.setCancelAction(cancel); SpinningWheel.setDoneAction(done); SpinningWheel.open(); } function done() { var results = SpinningWheel.getSelectedValues(); document.getElementById('result').innerHTML = 'values: ' + results.values.join(' ') + '<br />keys: ' + results.keys.join(', '); } function cancel() { document.getElementById('result').innerHTML = 'cancelled!'; } window.addEventListener('load', function(){ setTimeout(function(){ window.scrollTo(0,0); }, 100); }, true);

  Read the article

• SQL trigger to delete rows from database

  - by wpearse

  I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

  Read the article

• memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

  - by el10780

  I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

  Read the article

• A feeling that I'm not that good developer

  - by Karim

  Hi, Im having a strange feeling, but let me first introduce myself as a software developer. I started to program when I was still a kid, I had about 10 or 11 years. I really enjoy my work and never get bored from it. It's amazing how somebody could be paid for what he really likes to do and would be doing it anyway even for free. WHen I first started to program, I was feeling proud of what I was doing, each application I built was for me a success and after 2-3 year I had a feeling that I'm a coding guru. It was a nice feeling ;-) But the more I was in the field, the more types of software I started to develop I was starting to have a feeling that I'm completely wrong in that I'm guru. I felt that I'm not even a mediocre developer. Each new field I start to work on is giving me this feeling. Like when I once developed a device driver for a client, I saw how much I need to learn about device drivers. When I developed a video filter for an application, I saw how much do I still need to learn about DirectShow, Color Spaces, and all the theory behind that. The worst thing was when I started to learn algorithms. It was several years ago. I knew then the basic structures and algorithms like the sorting, some types of trees, some hashtables, strings etc.. and when I really wanted to learn a group of structures I learned about 5-6 new types and saw that in fact even this small group has several hundred subtypes of structures. It's depressing how little time people have in their lives to learn all this stuff. I'm now a software developer with about 10 years of experience and I still feel that I'm not a proficient developer when I think about things that others do in the industry. Is this normal what I'm experiencing or is it a sign of a destructive excessive ambition? Thanks in advance for any comments.

  Read the article

• When I get the Force Close dialog, I have a Report button. Where did it come from?

  - by BenTobin

  I feel a little bit silly asking this, but I haven't been able to find any answers on my own. My Force Close dialog has a "Report" button. I think it's a great idea, and I wish everyone had it. At first, I thought it must be something I turned on without realizing it, but not only can't I find any setting that I might have touched, I also can't find any reference to this button existing on the Internet. I have a Droid, and I know 4 other people with Droids, and they say they don't have the option to report Force Closes. Am I special? Am I just missing something? The "report" button has been there for at least a few weeks now. When I use the Report button, I get a screen with a "feedback" field and a checkbox for "Include system data". Below that , it says "Information from feedback reports will be shown to the developer of the application." Under that are Preview and Send buttons. As a developer, I've never received one of these reports. I'd try to send a report to myself, but it seemingly only shows the button for apps installed from the market, and I don't know of a way to crash my production app. I suppose I could publish a simple crashing app just to try it out, but I thought I'd ask you folks first. Edit: You can view screenshots here: http://bentobin.com/crashReportImages/

  Read the article

• How Would a Newborn Baby Learn Web Programming?

  - by Mugatu

  Hello all, I chose that title because I equate my knowledge of web programming and web development with that of a newborn. Here's the shortest version of my story and what I'm looking to do: A friend and I have been coming up with website ideas for a couple years, mostly just jotting them down whenever we come up with a good, useful idea when browsing the web. For the past 6 months we've hired a couple different programmers to make a couple of the sites for us, but have been disappointed with how it's gone. Been too slow and too many miscommunications for our liking. So like the saying goes if you want something done right do it yourself, we're going to do it ourselves. I know nothing about programming, I've never written a line of code in my life. I consider myself very good with math and about as logical as you can get, but I have zero real-life programming knowledge. The sites we want to make are all pretty 'Web 2.0'ish', meaning user-generated content, commenting on posts, pages that change on the fly, etc. So here are some of my questions for anyone who's been there before: Is there a language you'd recommend learning first? Something that is a good indicator how most other languages work? What web programming languages do you recommend learning first based on popularity both now and the future. I don't want to learn a language that's going to be outdated by the time I'm an expert at it. Any specific books you'd recommend? Any general advice you'd give to someone literally starting at square zero for coding who plans on being in it for the long haul? Thanks in advance for the help

  Read the article

• how to store a file handle in perl class

  - by Haiyuan Zhang

  please look at the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• PHP file upload issue

  - by Varun

  I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

  Read the article

• Partitioning data set in r based on multiple classes of observations

  - by Danny

  I'm trying to partition a data set that I have in R, 2/3 for training and 1/3 for testing. I have one classification variable, and seven numerical variables. Each observation is classified as either A, B, C, or D. For simplicity's sake, let's say that the classification variable, cl, is A for the first 100 observations, B for observations 101 to 200, C till 300, and D till 400. I'm trying to get a partition that has 2/3 of the observations for each of A, B, C, and D (as opposed to simply getting 2/3 of the observations for the entire data set since it will likely not have equal amounts of each classification). When I try to sample from a subset of the data, such as sample(subset(data, cl=='A')), the columns are reordered instead of the rows. To summarize, my goal is to have 67 random observations from each of A, B, C, and D as my training data, and store the remaining 33 observations for each of A, B, C, and D as testing data. I have found a very similar question to mine, but it did not factor in multiple variables. I feel silly asking this question because it seems so simple, but I'm stumped. Also, this is my first question on this site, so I apologize in advance for any faux pas on my part.

  Read the article

• SQLBrowser will not start

  - by Oliver

  SQL Server 2005 x64 on Windows Server 2003 x64, with multiple instances (default + 2 named). Engineers moved server to a different domain. Since then, cannot get SQLBrowser to start. Still able to query the default instance, and can access named instances by port (TCP:hostname,port#). When on server, can use SSMS to connect to the instances, all is well from that perspective. No errors in the SQL Server logs. As SQLBrowser is starting, an entry in EventViewer.Application says that one of the named instances has an invalid configuration, but I haven't been able to figure out what is invalid. Startup continues, and next message says "The SQLBrowser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery." Next, it enables instance and connectivity discovery support; next, another message about that same named instance having an invalid configuration; then an event says that SQLBrowser has started; last, an event shows the SQLBrowser service has shutdown. I got SQLBrowser to get past the issue with the first named instance by temporarily renaming a registry entry, and now the second named instance can be accessed by name rather than port. Still, cannot access the first named instance by name. Advice?

  Read the article

• Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

  - by kralco626

  I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

  - by gfoley

  I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

  Read the article

• Really Need a Facebook App to post to Facebook Page Wall?

  - by Lee Englestone

  Hi, I'm using the Facebook API Graph (C# & ASP.NET) to try to dynamically post to a Facebook page I created. Looking at the code samples floating around.. they suggest creating a Facebook App first (which I have done).. However.. I have 3 different pages I want to post to.. Do I need to create an app for each? (I want to post different things to the 3 pages, not the same posts to each) I just want messages & links to appear as Wall posts. I'm not bothered about having an 'app' that has 'canvas' that is placed in an IFrame. Question : So do I still need to write one or more Facebook Apps to post to my 3 different Facebook pages?? Where I am so far.. I can pass in my apps credentials and get back the access_token. But my posts don't appear to be going anywhere. I'd rather drop the 'facebook application /canvas' approach if possible If I can post directly to a wall (For the above reasons). Oh, and before you ask. I don't want to post to my Apps Wall page, I want to post to my other pages (Unless I have to post to my Apps Wall page first?). I'm sure loads of people have the same questions.. Thanks in advance. -- Lee

  Read the article

• How to add a class to just upper element of trigger with Jquery?

  - by Ahmet Kemal

  Hello, I am working on a Jquery accordion stuff. I want to add a class to the div that contains the accordion trigger <a> tag. You can look at my code. I want to add "first" class name to just first "newsitems" class when clicked "Recession fashion in Japan Video" title. <!-- news items starts--> <div class="newsitems"> <h3 class="business"> <a href="#" title="expand"><img src="images/expand_icon.gif" alt="collapse" class="collpase" /> Recession fashion in Japan Video</a> </h3> <p class="timestamp">0100hrs</p> </div> <!-- news items ends--> <!-- news items starts--> <div class="newsitems"> <h3 class="sports"> <a href="#" title="expand"><img src="images/expand_icon.gif" alt="collapse" class="collpase" /> Murray survives five-set thriller at Wimbledon</a> </h3> <p class="timestamp">0100hrs</p> </div> <!-- news items ends-->

  Read the article

• jQuery to find previous elements

  - by mike

  Hi everybody, I have the following table <table> <tr class="ligneI"> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="desc" class="calcule"></td> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="price" class="calcule"></td> <td class="calculated_price">220.00</td> <td class="calculated_price">1800.00</td> <td><a title="" class="picto06 deleteLink" id="deleteLink1" href="#" onclick="resetfields(this);">delete</a></td> </tr> <tr class="ligneI"> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="desc" class="calcule"></td> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="price" class="calcule"></td> <td class="calculated_price">87.00</td> <td class="calculated_price">40.00</td> <td><a title="" class="picto06 deleteLink" id="deleteLink2" href="#" onclick="resetfields(this);">delete</a></td> ... and I would like to reset the entire when i click on a delete link. I tried to do something like this: function resetfields(obj) { $(this).parent().prevAll('td.calcule').html('&nbsp;'); $(this).parent().prevAll('td input.calcule').val(''); } but only the first line erase the two first befor my link. Someone can help me please. Ps : excuse my english

  Read the article

• Supress output from Visual Studio output pane (C++)

  - by Ryan Ginstrom

  When I run my Win32 project in the Visual Studio debugger, I get this huge screed of output about which DLLs were loaded, first-chance exceptions, and so on. Is there a way that I can suppress this output? Some day, I might want to know when 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' was loaded, but normally I don't care. This is especially true when I'm running unit tests, and just want to be told whether any of the tests failed. This stuff isn't output with console applications, but it is with windows applications. To give an example of what I mean, here are the first lines from the output of a recent unit-test run. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\dev\MyProject\Testing\MyProject.exe', Symbols loaded. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\KernelBase.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\dbghelp.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\msvcrt.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\user32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\gdi32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\lpk.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\usp10.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\advapi32.dll' ... and on and on ...

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

  - by Rob

  After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431  | Next Page >