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  • C++ Problems with #import of .NET out-of-proc server.

    - by jm
    In C++ program, I am trying to #import TLB of .NET out of proc server. I get errors like: z:\server.tlh(111) : error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'GetType' z:\server.tlh(111) : error C2501: 'TypePtr' : missing storage-class or type specifiers z:\server.tli(74) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'tag::id' z:\server.tli(74) : error C2433: 'TypePtr' : 'inline' not permitted on data declarations z:\server.tli(74) : error C2501: '_TypePtr' : missing storage-class or type specifiers z:\server.tli(74) : fatal error C1004: unexpected end of file found The TLH looks like: ... _bstr_t GetToString ( ); VARIANT_BOOL Equals ( const _variant_t & obj ); long GetHashCode ( ); _TypePtr GetType ( ); long Open ( ); ... I am not really interested in the having the base object .NET object methods like GetType(), Equals(), etc. But GetType() seems to be causing problems. Some google research indicates I could #import MSCORLIB.TLB (or put it in path), but I can't get that to compile either. Any tips?

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • Syncing magento database froms development to production

    - by ringerce
    I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

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  • subquery in join with doctrine dql

    - by Martijn de Munnik
    I want to use DQL to create a query which looks like this in SQL: select e.* from e inner join ( select uuid, max(locale) as locale from e where locale = 'nl_NL' or locale = 'nl' group by uuid ) as e_ on e.uuid = e_.uuid and e.locale = e_.locale I tried to use QueryBuilder to generate the query and subquery. I think they do the right thing by them selves but I can't combine them in the join statement. Does anybody now if this is possible with DQL? I can't use native SQL because I want to return real objects and I don't know for which object this query is run (I only know the base class which have the uuid and locale property). $subQueryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $subQueryBuilder ->addSelect('e.uuid, max(e.locale) as locale') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->where($subQueryBuilder->expr()->in('e.locale', $localeCriteria)) ->groupBy('e.uuid'); $queryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $queryBuilder ->addSelect('e') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->join('('.$subQueryBuilder.') as', 'e_')->join ->where('e.uuid = e_.uuid') ->andWhere('e.locale = e_.locale');

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  • What design pattern shall I use in this question?

    - by iyad al aqel
    To be frank, this is a homework question, so I'll tell you my opinion. Can you let me know my mistakes rather than giving me the solution? This is the question : Assume a restaurant that only offers the following two types of meals: (a) a full meal and (b)an economic meal. The full meal consists of the following food items and is served in the following order: 1. Appetizer 2. Drink 3. Main dish 4. Dessert Meanwhile the economic meal consists of the following food items and is served in the following order: 1. Drink 2. Main dish Identify the most appropriate design pattern that can be used to allow a customer to only order using one of the two types of meals provided and that the meal components must be served in the given order. I'm confused between the Factory and the Iterator and using them both together. Using the factory Pattern we can create the two meals full and economic and provide the user with with a base object class that will decide upon. But how can we enforce the ordering of the elements, I thought of using the iterator along that will iterate through the the composite of the two created factories sort of speak. What do you think?

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  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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  • How to automatically split git commits to separate changes to a single file

    - by Hercynium
    I'm just plain stuck as to how to accomplish this, or if it's even possible. Even it it can be done, I wonder if it could be setting us up for a messed-up, unmanageable repository. I have set up two branches of the code-base. One is "master" and the other is "prod". The HEAD of prod is always the latest code in production, and master is the main development branch. Here's the problem, though: We're converting from CVS here at $work and most of the developers are still getting used to git. Their CVS workflow involved tagging versions of individual files for production, then updating the servers using the tag. Unfortunately, this has let to sloppy practices like committing unrelated changes together and then tagging the files after-the-fact... and the devs want to know how they can do the following: In their local repos, they hack and commit to their hearts' delight, then at the end of the day, be able to run a command that takes a list of files whose commits over the day get merged with their local prod - and only those files - even if those commits combine changes to other files. I know how to split commits with git rebase --interactive, but I have no clue how I would automate splitting commits at all, never mind the way I want to. I do realize the simplest thing would be to just tell them to switch the their prod branches, checkout the files from their master branches into the working tree then commit to prod. My problem with that is losing the history of their commits over the day.

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  • jquery - array problem help pls.

    - by russp
    Sorry folks, I really need help with posting an array problem. I would imaging it's quite simple, but beyond me. I have this JQuery function (using sortables) $(function() { $("#col1, #col2, #col3, #col4").sortable({ connectWith: '.column', items: '.portlet:not(.ui-state-disabled)', stop : function () { serial_1 = $('#col1').sortable('serialize'); serial_2 = $('#col2').sortable('serialize'); serial_3 = $('#col3').sortable('serialize'); serial_4 = $('#col4').sortable('serialize'); } }); }); Now I can post it to a database like this, and I can loop this ajax through all 4 "serials" $.ajax({ url: "test.php", type: "post", data: serial_1, error: function(){ alert(testit); } }); But that is not what I want to do as it creates 4 rows in the DB table. I want/need to create a single "nested array" from the 4 serials so that it enters the DB as 1 (one) row. My "base" database data looks like this: a:4:{s:4:"col1";a:3:{i:1;s:6:"forums";i:2;s:4:"chat";i:3;s:5:"blogs";}s:4:"col2";a:2:{i:1;s:5:"pages";i:2;s:7:"members";}s:4:"col3";a:2:{i:1;s:9:"galleries";i:2;s:4:"shop";}s:4:"col4";a:1:{i:1;s:4:"news";}} Therefore the JQuery array should "replicate" and create it (obviously will change on sorting) Help please thanks in advance

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  • Why can't I run a Perl program from TextMate?

    - by JZ
    I'm following a bioinformatics text, and this represents one of my first Perl scripts. While in TextMate, this does not produce any result. Is it functioning? I added "hello world" at the bottom and I don't see that when I run the script in TextMate. What have I done wrong? #!/usr/local/bin/perl -w use lib "/Users/fogonthedowns/myperllib"; use LWP::Simple; use strict; #Set base URL for all eutils my $utils = "http://eutils.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/eutils"; my $db = "Pubmed"; my $query ="Cancer+Prostate"; my $retmax = 10; my $esearch = "$utils/esearch.fcgi?" . "db=$db&retmax=$retmax&term="; my $esearch_result = get($esearch.$query); print "ESEARCH RESULT: $esearch_result\n"; print "Using Query: \n$esearch$query\n"; print "hello world\n";

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  • Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

    - by FullmetalBoy
    The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

    - by larryq
    I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

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  • Is this a safe/valid hash method implementation?

    - by Sean
    I have a set of classes to represent some objects loaded from a database. There are a couple variations of these objects, so I have a common base class and two subclasses to represent the differences. One of the key fields they have in common is an id field. Unfortunately, the id of an object is not unique across all variations, but within a single variation. What I mean is, a single object of type A could have an id between, say, 0 and 1,000,000. An object of type B could have an id between, 25,000 and 1,025,000. This means there's some overlap of id numbers. The objects are just variations of the same kind of thing, though, so I want to think of them as such in my code. (They were assigned ids from different sets for legacy reasons.) So I have classes like this: @class BaseClass @class TypeAClass : BaseClass @class TypeBClass : BaseClass BaseClass has a method (NSNumber *)objectId. However instances of TypeA and TypeB could have overlapping ids as discussed above, so when it comes to equality and putting these into sets, I cannot just use the id alone to check it. The unique key of these instances is, essentially, (class + objectId). So I figured that I could do this by making the following hash function on the BaseClass: -(NSUInteger)hash { return (NSUInteger)[self class] ^ [self.objectId hash]; } I also implemented isEqual like so: - (BOOL)isEqual:(id)object { return (self == object) || ([object class] == [self class] && [self.objectId isEqual:[object objectId]]); } This seems to be working, but I guess I'm just asking here to make sure I'm not overlooking something - especially with the generation of the hash by using the class pointer in that way. Is this safe or is there a better way to do this?

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  • How to populate a listview in ASP.NET 3.5 through a dataset?

    - by EasyDot
    Is it possible to populate a listview with a dataset? I have a function that returns a dataset. Why im asking this is because my SQL is quite complicated and i can't convert it to a SQLDataSource... Public Function getMessages() As DataSet Dim dSet As DataSet = New DataSet Dim da As SqlDataAdapter Dim cmd As SqlCommand Dim SQL As StringBuilder Dim connStr As StringBuilder = New StringBuilder("") connStr.AppendFormat("server={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERserver").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("database={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERdb").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("uid={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERuid").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("pwd={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERpwd").ToString()) Dim conn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(connStr.ToString()) Try SQL = New StringBuilder cmd = New SqlCommand SQL.Append("SELECT m.MESSAGE_ID, m.SYSTEM_ID, m.DATE_CREATED, m.EXPIRE_DATE, ISNULL(s.SYSTEM_DESC,'ALL SYSTEMS') AS SYSTEM_DESC, m.MESSAGE ") SQL.Append("FROM MESSAGE m ") SQL.Append("LEFT OUTER JOIN [SYSTEM] s ") SQL.Append("ON m.SYSTEM_ID = s.SYSTEM_ID ") SQL.AppendFormat("WHERE m.SYSTEM_ID IN ({0}) ", sSystems) SQL.Append("OR m.SYSTEM_ID is NULL ") SQL.Append("ORDER BY m.DATE_CREATED DESC; ") SQL.Append("SELECT mm.MESSAGE_ID, mm.MODEL_ID, m.MODEL_DESC ") SQL.Append("FROM MESSAGE_MODEL mm ") SQL.Append("JOIN MODEL m ") SQL.Append(" ON m.MODEL_ID = mm.MODEL_ID ") cmd.CommandText = SQL.ToString cmd.Connection = conn da = New SqlDataAdapter(cmd) da.Fill(dSet) dSet.Tables(0).TableName = "BASE" dSet.Tables(1).TableName = "MODEL" Return dSet Catch ev As Exception cLog.EventLog.logError(ev, cmd) Finally 'conn.Close() End Try End Function

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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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  • NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

    - by chiccodoro
    I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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  • How can I assign a name to a task in TPL

    - by mehrandvd
    I'm going to use lots of tasks running on my application. Each bunch of tasks is running for some reason. I would like to name these tasks so when I watch the Parallel Tasks window, I could recognize them easily. With another point of view, consider I'm using tasks at the framework level to populate a list. A developer that use my framework is also using tasks for her job. If she looks at the Parallel Tasks Window she will find some tasks having no idea about. I want to name tasks so she can distinguish the framework tasks from her tasks. It would be very convenient if there was such API: var task = new Task(action, "Growth calculation task") or maybe: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(action, "Populating the datagrid") or even while working with Parallel.ForEach Parallel.ForEach(list, action, "Salary Calculation Task" Is it possible to name a task? Is it possible to give ???Parallel.ForEach a naming structure (maybe using a lambda) so it creates tasks with that naming? Is there such API somewhere that I'm missing? I've also tried to use an inherited task to override it's ToString(). But unfortunately the Parallel Tasks window doesn't use ToString()! class NamedTask : Task { private string TaskName { get; set; } public NamedTask(Action action, string taskName):base(action) { TaskName = taskName; } public override string ToString() { return TaskName; } }

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  • Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

    - by user169867
    I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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  • NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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  • Getting a Specified Cast is not valid while importing data from Excel using Linq to SQL

    - by niceoneishere
    This is my second post. After learning from my first post how fantastic is to use Linq to SQL, I wanted to try to import data from a Excel sheet into my SQL database. First My Excel Sheet: it contains 4 columns namely ItemNo ItemSize ItemPrice UnitsSold I have a created a database table with the following fields table name ProductsSold Id int not null identity --with auto increment set to true ItemNo VarChar(10) not null ItemSize VarChar(4) not null ItemPrice Decimal(18,2) not null UnitsSold int not null Now I created a dal.dbml file based on my database and I am trying to import the data from excel sheet to db table using the code below. Everything is happening on click of a button. private const string forecast_query = "SELECT ItemNo, ItemSize, ItemPrice, UnitsSold FROM [Sheet1$]"; protected void btnUpload_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var importer = new LinqSqlModelImporter(); if (fileUpload.HasFile) { var uploadFile = new UploadFile(fileUpload.FileName); try { fileUpload.SaveAs(uploadFile.SavePath); if(File.Exists(uploadFile.SavePath)) { importer.SourceConnectionString = uploadFile.GetOleDbConnectionString(); importer.Import(forecast_query); gvDisplay.DataBind(); pnDisplay.Visible = true; } } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Source.ToString()); lblInfo.Text = ex.Message; } finally { uploadFile.DeleteFileNoException(); } } } // Now here is the code for LinqSqlModelImporter public class LinqSqlModelImporter : SqlImporter { public override void Import(string query) { // importing data using oledb command and inserting into db using LINQ to SQL using (var context = new WSDALDataContext()) { using (var myConnection = new OleDbConnection(base.SourceConnectionString)) using (var myCommand = new OleDbCommand(query, myConnection)) { myConnection.Open(); var myReader = myCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (myReader.Read()) { context.ProductsSolds.InsertOnSubmit(new ProductsSold() { ItemNo = myReader.GetString(0), ItemSize = myReader.GetString(1), ItemPrice = myReader.GetDecimal(2), UnitsSold = myReader.GetInt32(3) }); } } context.SubmitChanges(); } } } can someone please tell me where am I making the error or if I am missing something, but this is driving me nuts. When I debugged I am getting this error when casting from a number the value must be a number less than infinity I really appreciate it

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  • ObjectDisposedException when .Show()'ing a form that shouldn't be disposed.

    - by user320781
    ive checked out some of the other questions and obviously the best solution is to prevent the behavior that causes this issue in the first place, but the problem is very intermittent, and very un-reproduceable. I basically have a main form, with sub forms. The sub forms are shown from menus and/or buttons from the main form like so: private void myToolStripMenuItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { xDataForm.Show(); xDataForm.Activate(); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR 10103"); ErrorLogging newLogger = new ErrorLogging("10103"); Thread errorThread = new Thread(ErrorLogging.writeErrorToLog); errorThread.Start(); } } and the sub forms are actually in the main form(for better or worse. i would actually like to change this but would be a considerable amount of time to do so): public partial class FormMainScreen : Form { Form xDataForm = new xData(); ...(lots more here) public FormMainScreen(int pCount, string pName) { InitializeComponent(); ... } ... } The Dispose function for the sub form is modified so that, the 'close' and 'X' buttons actually hide the form so we dont have to re-create it every time. When the main screen closes, it sets a "flag" to 2, so the other forms know that it is actually ok to close; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (FormMainScreen.isExiting == 2) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } else { if (xData.ActiveForm != null) { xData.ActiveForm.Hide(); } } } So, the question is, why would this work over and over and over again flawlessly, but, literally, about every 1/1000 of the time, cause an exception, or rather, why is my form being disposed? I had a suspicion that the garbage collector was getting confused, because it occurs slightly more frequently after it has been running for many hours.

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  • Django: DatabaseLockError exception with Djapian

    - by jul
    Hi, I've got the exception shown below when executing indexer.update(). I have no idea about what to do: it used to work and now index database seems "locked". Anybody can help? Thanks Environment: Request Method: POST Request URL: http://piem.org:8000/restaurant/add/ Django Version: 1.1.1 Python Version: 2.5.2 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.comments', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'registration', 'djapian', 'resto', 'multilingual'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'django.middleware.locale.LocaleMiddleware', 'multilingual.middleware.DefaultLanguageMiddleware') Traceback: File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 92. response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "/home/jul/atable/../atable/resto/views.py" in addRestaurant 639. Restaurant.indexer.update() File "/home/jul/python-modules/Djapian-2.3.1-py2.5.egg/djapian/indexer.py" in update 181. database = self._db.open(write=True) File "/home/jul/python-modules/Djapian-2.3.1-py2.5.egg/djapian/database.py" in open 20. xapian.DB_CREATE_OR_OPEN, File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/xapian.py" in __init__ 2804. _xapian.WritableDatabase_swiginit(self,_xapian.new_WritableDatabase(*args)) Exception Type: DatabaseLockError at /restaurant/add/ Exception Value: Unable to acquire database write lock on /home/jul/atable /djapian_spaces/resto/restaurant/resto.index.restaurantindexer: already locked

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  • Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

    - by Christian Fazzini
    I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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