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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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  • Building an extension framework for a Rails app

    - by obvio171
    I'm starting research on what I'd need in order to build a user-level plugin system (like Wordpress plugins) for a Rails app, so I'd appreciate some general pointers/advice. By user-level plugin I mean a package a user can extract into a folder and have it show up on an admin interface, allowing them to add some extra configuration and then activate it. What is the best way to go about doing this? Is there any other opensource project that does this already? What does Rails itself already offer for programmer-level plugins that could be leveraged? Any Rails plugins that could help me with this? A plugin would have to be able to: run its own migrations (with this? it's undocumented) have access to my models (plugins already do) have entry points for adding content to views (can be done with content_for and yield) replace entire views or partials (how?) provide its own admin and user-facing views (how?) create its own routes (or maybe just announce its presence and let me create the routes for it, to avoid plugins stepping on each other's toes) Anything else I'm missing? Also, is there a way to limit which tables/actions the plugin has access to concerning migrations and models, and also limit their access to routes (maybe letting them include, but not remove routes)? P.S.: I'll try to keep this updated, compiling stuff I figure out and relevant answers so as to have a sort of guide for others.

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  • Event OnClick ASP:LinkButton not firing with jquery overlay

    - by rolando
    Hi there, So i have this: <asp:LinkButton runat="server" id="lkbTomeChichi" class="modalInput contratacionVinculos" rel="#prueba" OnClick="PruebaBrava" >LinkPrueba</asp:LinkButton> <div id="prueba" class="simple_overlayFondoBlanco" style="margin: auto; z-index: 99;"> hola como está todo ;) </div> and i have this: <script type="text/javascript"> function pageLoad() { var triggers = $("a.modalInput").overlay({ // some expose tweaks suitable for modal dialogs expose: { color: '#333', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.3, zIndex: 99 }, top: '25%', closeOnClick: true }); } </script> as you can see i'm using a LinkButton who transforms into an 'a' tag on rendering so jquery pageLoad function can use it to show an overlay. My problem is i need the 'OnClick="PruebaBrava' to execute before the overlay shows. If i use a button instead of a LinkButton it works perfectly but i need to use the linkbutton and with it that event is not firing. What can i do? Thankyou all very much for your answers ;)

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  • Qmake does not specify a valid qt

    - by Comptrol
    After installing Qt SDK for Open Source C++ development on Mac OS by following the respective steps Note for the binary package: If you have the binary package, simply double-click on the Qt.mpkg and follow the instructions to install Qt. . Yes, that is all I have done to install Qt on MacOsX. Everything was going fine, until I run a sample application, of which compile output resulted in: No valid Qt version set. Set one in Preferences Error while building project qtilk When executing build step 'QMake' Canceled build. Then I tried to change the respective Qt version in Preferences and I hovered over the Path, I realized my mkspec isn't set: Then I tried querying qmake by qmake -query : QT_INSTALL_PREFIX:/ QT_INSTALL_DATA:/usr/local/Qt4.6 QT_INSTALL_DOCS:/Developer/Documentation/Qt QT_INSTALL_HEADERS:/usr/include QT_INSTALL_LIBS:/Library/Frameworks QT_INSTALL_BINS:/Developer/Tools/Qt QT_INSTALL_PLUGINS:/Developer/Applications/Qt/plugins QT_INSTALL_TRANSLATIONS:/Developer/Applications/Qt/translations QT_INSTALL_CONFIGURATION:/Library/Preferences/Qt QT_INSTALL_EXAMPLES:/Developer/Examples/Qt/ QT_INSTALL_DEMOS:/Developer/Examples/Qt/Demos QMAKE_MKSPECS:/usr/local/Qt4.6/mkspecs QMAKE_VERSION:2.01a QT_VERSION:4.6.2 QMAKE_MKSPECS seems to be set here?? Will setting my mkspec solve my building problem? I tried setting by typing export mkspec=macx-g++. Still, mkspec seems not to be set to anything. I am all ears waiting for your answers. Thanks in advance.

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  • Ember model is gone when I use the renderTemplate hook

    - by Mickael Caruso
    I have a single template - editPerson.hbs <form role="form"> FirstName: {{input type="text" value=model.firstName }} <br/> LastName: {{input type="text" value=model.lastName }} </form> I want to render this template when the user wants to edit an existing person or create a new person. So, I set up routes: App.Router.map(function(){ this.route("createPerson", { path: "/person/new" }); this.route("editPerson", { path: "/person/:id}); // other routes not show for brevity }); So, I define two routes - one for create and one for edit: App.CreatePersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ renderTemplate: function(){ this.render("editPerson", { controller: "editPerson" }); }, model: function(){ return {firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" }; } }); App.EditPersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(id){ return {firstName: "John Existing", lastName: "Smith Existing" }; } }); So, I hard-code the models. I'm concerned about the createPerson route. I'm telling it to render the editPersonTemplate and to use the editPerson controller (which I don't show because I don't think it matters - but I made one, though.) When I use renderTemplate, I lose the model John Smith, which in turn, won't display on the editTemplate on the web page. Why? I "fixed" this by creating a separate and identical (to editPerson.hbs) createPerson.hbs, and removing the renderTemplate hook in the CreatePerson. It works as expected, but I find it somewhat troubling to have a separate and identical template for the edit and create cases. I looked everywhere for how to properly do this, and I found no answers.

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  • Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

    - by Leif Ericson
    Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

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  • What specific features of LabView are frustrating to you?

    - by Underflow
    Please bear with me: this isn't a language debate or a flame. It's a real request for opinions. Occasionally, I have to help educate a traditional text coder in how to think in LabVIEW (LV). Often during this process, I get to hear about how LV sucks. Rarely is this insight accompanied by rational observations other than "Language X is just so much better!". While this statement is satisfying to them, it doesn't help me understand what is frustrating them. So, for those of you with LabVIEW and text language experience, what specific things about LV drive you nuts? ------ Summaries ------- Thanks for all the answers! Some of the issues are answered in the comments below, some exist on other sites, and some are just genuine problems with LV. In the spirit of the original question, I'm not going to try to answer all of these here: check LAVA or NI's website, and you'll be pleasantly surprised at how many of these things can be overcome. Unintentional concurrency No access to tradition text manipulation tools Binary-only source code control Difficult to branch and merge Too many open windows Text has cleaner/clearer/more expressive syntax Clean coding requires a lot of time and manipulation Large, difficult to access API/palette system Mouse required File namespacing: no duplicate files with the same name in memory LV objects are natively by-value only Requires dev environment to view code Lack of zoom Slow startup Memory pig "Giant" code is difficult to work with UI lockup is easy to do Trackpads and LV don't mix well String manipulation is graphically bloated Limited UI customization "Hidden" primitives (yes, these exist) Lack of official metaprogramming capability (not for much longer, though) Lack of unicode support [1]: http://www.lavag.org LAVA

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  • C#/.Net Error: MySql.Data Object reference not set to an instance of an object.

    - by Simon
    Hello, I get this exception on my Windows 7 64bit in application running in VS 2008 express. I am using Connector/Net 6.2.2.0: Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source: MySql.Data in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.NativeDriver.GetResult(Int32& affectedRow, Int32& insertedId) Stack trace: in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.Driver.GetResult(Int32 statementId, Int32& affectedRows, Int32& insertedId) in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.Driver.NextResult(Int32 statementId) in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.NextResult() in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.Close() in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection.Close() in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection.Dispose(Boolean disposing) in System.ComponentModel.Component.Finalize() No inner exception. This exception is unhalted and the debugger dont point on any code line. It just say "Object reference not set to an instance of an object. MySql.Data" This error is really hard to repeat. On my Windows XP 32bit is all ok. Could it be error in 64bit Windows 7? Thank you very much for your answers. Regards, simon

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  • Python script, runs well, but not perfectly, debugging help.

    - by S1syphus
    What it does (sort of)... or is meant to, the script reads from a csv file that contains information on sound files and create a play list exactly 60 minutes long. An example csv, contains: their title, duration (in seconds), minium total time to be played (in minutes) An example is: Soundfoo,120,10 Soundbar,30,6 Sounddev,60,20 Soundrandom,15,8 The script works out the minimum instances of plays, take 'Soundfoo' for example, the length of each sample is 120 seconds and the minimum time to be played is 10 minutes, so basic maths 10*60/120 gives the number of instances the song is to be played, in this case 5. It is meant to take minimum number of instances and spread out equally from each other; so there will never be a period where for example Soundbar is played twice in a row. Then if the minium instances of each song has been used, and there is still time with in the 60 min, how is it possible to tell it to go back and fill the time by selecting each sound and including it till the 60 min is filled while remaining sparsely populated. Heres the issue(s)! The script fails to calculate the actual time require to play all the sounds in a file and the total time of the playlist, the thing is tho it doesn't get it wrong all the time maybe 3/5 times, even if I run it on the same csv file it will give me different answers. Here is the file I shall run the script on e for sake of ease to see the issue: Sound1,60,10 Sound2,60,10 Sound3,60,10 Sound4,60,10 Sound5,60,10 Sound6,60,10 I'll do it three times and post the results: 1 Required playtime in minutes: 60 Actual time in minutes to play all required ads: 62 Total playtime in minutes: 62.0 2 Required playtime in minutes: 60 Actual time in minutes to play all required ads: 71 Total playtime in minutes: 71.0 3 Required playtime in minutes: 60 Actual time in minutes to play all required ads: 60 Total playtime in minutes: 60.0 Relevant Code: pastebin.com/demkBXk6 And finally... in context: http://pastebin.com/demkBXk6 If you made it down to here, thanks for staying and reading, kudos.

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  • Rebinding and singleton-behaviour [NInject]

    - by Maximilian Csuk
    Hi! I have set up a NInject (using version 1.5) binding like this: Bind<ISessionFactory>().ToMethod<ISessionFactory>(ctx => { try { // create session factory, might fail because of database issues like wrong connection string } catch (Exception e) { throw new DatabaseException(e); } }).Using<SingletonBehavior>(); As you can see, this binding uses a singleton behavior but can also throw exception when something is not configured correctly, like a wrong connection string to the database. Now, when the creation of a session factory fails at first (throwing a database exception), NInject doesn't try to create the object again but always returns null. I would need NInject to check for null first and recreate when the instance is null, but of course not when there already is an instance successfully constructed (keeping it singleton). Like this: var a = Kernel.Get<ISessionFactory>(); // might fail, a = null // ... change some database settings var b = Kernel.Get<ISessionFactory>(); // might not fail anymore, b = ISessionFactory object Would I need to write a custom behavior or am I missing something else? Thanks for your answers!

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  • Selenium and Firefox 9's "Will you help improve Mozilla Firefox" popup

    - by Rup
    I'm trying to test a Java web app using Selenium 2.16.1. When Selenium opens Firefox, I see a band at the top of the page with message "Will you help improve Mozilla Firefox" For some reason this breaks selenium.click("id=submit"); selenium.waitForPageToLoad("60000"); which is trying to log in - it becomes a no-op, and the test fails because it's then expecting to have logged in. If I break on the click line and clear the 'will you help' band before continuing then the form submit succeeds. Is there a way to suppress this band from appearing? (I expect that would mean setting a property in Firefox's default profile - where do I find that?) Or is there a way to get Selenium to spot and dismiss this first? Thanks! I'm using Firefox 9.0.1. Solved - thanks Danny! Just in case it isn't clear from the answers and comments below: This was an issue with 2.16.1 and IMO the best solution is to upgrade to 2.17 or later.

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  • Do servlet containers prevent web applications from causing each other interference and how do they do it?

    - by chrisbunney
    I know that a servlet container, such as Apache Tomcat, runs in a single instance of the JVM, which means all of its servlets will run in the same process. I also know that the architecture of the servlet container means each web application exists in its own context, which suggests it is isolated from other web applications. As depicted here: Accepting that each web application is isolated, I would expect that you could create 2 copies of an identical web application, change the names and context paths of each (as well as any other relevant configuration), and run them in parallel without one affecting the other. The answers to this question appear to support this view. However, a colleague disagrees based on their experience of attempting just that. They took a web application and tried to run 2 separate instances (with different names etc) in the same servlet container and experienced issues with the 2 instances conflicting (I'm unable to elaborate more as I wasn't involved in that work). Based on this, they argue that since the web applications run in the same process space, they can't be isolated and things such as class attributes would end up being inadvertently shared. This answer appears to suggest the same thing The two views don't seem to be compatible, so I ask you: Do servlet containers prevent web applications deployed to the same container from conflicting with each other? If yes, How do they do this? If no, Why does interference occur? and finally, Under what circumstances could separate web applications conflict and cause each other interference?, perhaps scenarios involving resources on the file system, native code, or database connections?

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  • Delphi 2009 dbExpress and Interbase: Unicode migration steps and risks?

    - by mjustin
    Currently, our database uses Win1252 as the only character encoding. We will have to support Unicode in the database tables soon, which means we have to perform this migration for four databases and around 80 Delphi applications which run in-house in a 24/7 environment. Are there recommendations for database migrations to UTF-8 (or UNICODE_FSS) for Delphi applications? Some questions listed below. Many thanks in advance for your answers! are there tools which help with the migration of the existing databases (sizes between 250 MB and 2 GB, no Blob fields), by dumping the data, recreating the database with UNICODE_FSS or UTF-8, and loading the data back? are there known problems with Delphi 2009, dbExpress and Interbase 7.5 related to Unicode character sets? would you recommend to upgrade the databases to Interbase 2009 first? (This upgrade is planned but does not have a high priority) can we simply migrate the database and Delphi will handle the Unicode character sets automatically, or will we have to change all character field types in every Datamodule (dfm and source code) too? which strategy would you recommend to work on the migration in parallel with the normal development and maintenance of the existing application? The application runs in-house so development and database administration is done internally. Update: one problem I found now is that there are two different persistent field types for Unicode and non Unicode character fields. For the existing database, dbExpress creates TStringField objects. For the Unicode database fields, dbExpress creates (or expects!) TWideStringField objects. This looks like a lot of work lies ahead. While we could try to avoid persistent fields (and add calculated fields at run time), Of course we would prefer a solution which does not require so many changes in existing units and DFM files.

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  • Need suggestions on how to extract data from .docx/.doc file then into mssql

    - by DarkPP
    I'm suppose to develop an automated application for my project, it will load past-year examination/exercises paper (word file), detect the sections accordingly, extract the questions and images in that section, and then store the questions and images into the database. (Preview of the question paper is at the bottom of this post) So I need some suggestions on how to extract data from a word file, then inserting them into a database. Currently I have a few methods to do so, however I have no idea how I could implement them when the file contains textboxes with background image. The question has to link with the image. Method One (Make use of ms office interop) Load the word file - Extract image, save into a folder - Extract text, save as .txt - Extract text from .txt then store in db Question: How i detect the section and question. How I link the image to the question. Extract text from word file (Working): private object missing = Type.Missing; private object sFilename = @"C:\temp\questionpaper.docx"; private object sFilename2 = @"C:\temp\temp.txt"; private object readOnly = true; object fileFormat = Word.WdSaveFormat.wdFormatText; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Word.Application wWordApp = new Word.Application(); wWordApp.DisplayAlerts = Word.WdAlertLevel.wdAlertsNone; Word.Document dFile = wWordApp.Documents.Open(ref sFilename, ref missing, ref readOnly, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); dFile.SaveAs(ref sFilename2, ref fileFormat, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing,ref missing, ref missing,ref missing,ref missing,ref missing,ref missing, ref missing,ref missing); dFile.Close(ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); } Extract image from word file (Doesn't work on image inside textbox): private Word.Application wWordApp; private int m_i; private object missing = Type.Missing; private object filename = @"C:\temp\questionpaper.docx"; private object readOnly = true; private void CopyFromClipbordInlineShape(String imageIndex) { Word.InlineShape inlineShape = wWordApp.ActiveDocument.InlineShapes[m_i]; inlineShape.Select(); wWordApp.Selection.Copy(); Computer computer = new Computer(); if (computer.Clipboard.GetDataObject() != null) { System.Windows.Forms.IDataObject data = computer.Clipboard.GetDataObject(); if (data.GetDataPresent(System.Windows.Forms.DataFormats.Bitmap)) { Image image = (Image)data.GetData(System.Windows.Forms.DataFormats.Bitmap, true); image.Save("C:\\temp\\DoCremoveImage" + imageIndex + ".png", System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Png); } } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { wWordApp = new Word.Application(); wWordApp.Documents.Open(ref filename, ref missing, ref readOnly, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); try { for (int i = 1; i <= wWordApp.ActiveDocument.InlineShapes.Count; i++) { m_i = i; CopyFromClipbordInlineShape(Convert.ToString(i)); } } finally { object save = false; wWordApp.Quit(ref save, ref missing, ref missing); wWordApp = null; } } Method Two Unzip the word file (.docx) - Copy the media(image) folder, store somewhere - Parse the XML file - Store the text in db Any suggestion/help would be greatly appreciated :D Preview of the word file: (backup link: http://i.stack.imgur.com/YF1Ap.png)

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  • Java UTF-8 to ASCII conversion with supplements

    - by bozo
    Hi, we are accepting all sorts of national characters in UTF-8 string on the input, and we need to convert them to ASCII string on the output for some legacy use. (we don't accept Chinese and Japanese chars, only European languages) We have a small utility to get rid of all the diacritics: public static final String toBaseCharacters(final String sText) { if (sText == null || sText.length() == 0) return sText; final char[] chars = sText.toCharArray(); final int iSize = chars.length; final StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(iSize); for (int i = 0; i < iSize; i++) { String sLetter = new String(new char[] { chars[i] }); sLetter = Normalizer.normalize(sLetter, Normalizer.Form.NFC); try { byte[] bLetter = sLetter.getBytes("UTF-8"); sb.append((char) bLetter[0]); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { } } return sb.toString(); } The question is how to replace all the german sharp s (ß, Ð, d) and other characters that get through the above normalization method, with their supplements (in case of ß, supplement would probably be "ss" and in case od Ð supplement would be either "D" or "Dj"). Is there some simple way to do it, without million of .replaceAll() calls? So for example: Ðonardan = Djonardan, Blaß = Blass and so on. We can replace all "problematic" chars with empty space, but would like to avoid this to make the output as similar to the input as possible. Thank you for your answers, Bozo

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  • Two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and don't provide straight forward answers. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • How do I label a group of radio boxes for WCAG / 508 Compliance? Is ASP.NET doing it wrong?

    - by Mark Brittingham
    I am trying to bring an existing web site into greater conformance with WCAG 2.0 Guidelines and am a bit confused over the output emitted by Microsoft (ASP.NET 4.0 although it was the same in 3.5). Suppose you have a question like: "How would you rate your health?" and a set of 5 answers created using an ASP.NET RadioButtonList. I place the question in an asp:Label with an "AssociatedControlID" that matches the ID of the RadioButtonList (e.g. "SelfRatingBox"). Seems pretty easy... Only the output that is generated has an html "label" with a "For" that is equal to the ID of a table that wraps up the RadioButtons. I assumed that this would work with page readers but our 508 compliance guy is saying that the reader isn't associating the label with the radio controls. The WCAG guidelines indicate that you have to use a fieldset around the entire group and a legend to capture the associated text (the question). So what gives? It would be ideal if MS could take my label and the radiobuttonlist and generate the appropriate fieldset and legend tags but it seems pretty clear that to achieve WCAG compliance, I'll have to roll my own. Is this correct or am I missing something?

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  • String to array or Array to string tips on formats, etc

    - by user316841
    hi, first of all thanks for taking your time! I'm a junior Dev, working with PHP + mysql. My issue: I'm saving data from a form to my database. From this form, there's only need to save the contacts: Name, phone number, address. But, it would be nice to have a small reference to the user answers. Let's say for each question we've got a value betwee 1 and 4. Since there's no need to create a table just for it, because what's needed is just the personal contacts. I'm thinking of recording each question/answer, as a letter and its correspondent value. Example (A2, B1, C5, D3, etc). My question is: Is there a format I could afterwards, handle easily ? Convert to array (string to array) in case the client change ideas, and ask this data, placed in table columns ? Just to prevent this situation! Example, From (A2, B1, C5 ) to array( "A" = "1", "B" = "1", "C" = "5" ) For now I guess, Regex is the answer, but it's allways hard to figure it out and I'm allways getting in troubles =) Thanks!

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  • Code Golf: Shortest Turing-complete interpreter.

    - by ilya n.
    I've just tried to create the smallest possible language interpreter. Would you like to join and try? Rules of the game: You should specify a programming language you're interpreting. If it's a language you invented, it should come with a list of commands in the comments. Your code should start with example program and data assigned to your code and data variables. Your code should end with output of your result. It's preferable that there are debug statements at every intermediate step. Your code should be runnable as written. You can assume that data are 0 and 1s (int, string or boolean, your choice) and output is a single bit. The language should be Turing-complete in the sense that for any algorithm written on a standard model, such as Turing machine, Markov chains, or similar of your choice, it's reasonably obvious (or explained) how to write a program that after being executred by your interpreter performs the algorithm. The length of the code is defined as the length of the code after removal of input part, output part, debug statements and non-necessary whitespaces. Please add the resulting code and its length to the post. You can't use functions that make compiler execute code for you, such as eval(), exec() or similar. This is a Community Wiki, meaning neither the question nor answers get the reputation points from votes. But vote anyway!

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  • When virtual inheritance IS a good design?

    - by 7vies
    EDIT3: Please be sure to clearly understand what I am asking before answering (there are EDIT2 and lots of comments around). There are (or were) many answers which clearly show misunderstanding of the question (I know that's also my fault, sorry for that) Hi, I've looked over the questions on virtual inheritance (class B: public virtual A {...}) in C++, but did not find an answer to my question. I know that there are some issues with virtual inheritance, but what I'd like to know is in which cases virtual inheritance would be considered a good design. I saw people mentioning interfaces like IUnknown or ISerializable, and also that iostream design is based on virtual inheritance. Would those be good examples of a good use of virtual inheritance, is that just because there is no better alternative, or because virtual inheritance is the proper design in this case? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify, I'm asking about real-life examples, please don't give abstract ones. I know what virtual inheritance is and which inheritance pattern requires it, what I want to know is when it is the good way to do things and not just a consequence of complex inheritance. EDIT2: In other words, I want to know when the diamond hierarchy (which is the reason for virtual inheritance) is a good design

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  • iPhone multitouch - Some touches dispatch touchesBegan: but not touchesMoved:

    - by zkarcher
    I'm developing a multitouch application. One touch is expected to move, and I need to track its position. For all other touches, I need to track their beginnings and endings, but their movement is less critical. Sometimes, when 3 or more touches are active, my UIView does not receive touchesMoved: events for the moving touch. This problem is intermittent, and can always be reproduced after a few attempts: Touch the screen with 2 fingers. Touch the screen with another finger, and move this finger around. The moving finger always dispatches touchesBegan: and touchesEnded:, but sometimes does not dispatch any touchesMoved: events. Whenever the moving touch does not dispatch touchesMoved: events, I can force it to dispatch touchesMoved: if I move one of the other touches. This seems to "force" every touch to recheck its position, and I successfully receive a touchesMoved: event. However, this is clumsy. This bug is reproducible on both the iPhone 2G and 3GS models. My question is: How do I ensure that my moving touch dispatches touchesMoved: events? Does anyone have any experience with this issue? I've spent few fruitless days searching the web for answers. I found a post describing how to sync touch events with the VBL: http://www.71squared.com/2009/04/maingameloop-changes/ . However, this has not solved the problem. I really don't know how to proceed. Any help is appreciated!

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  • jQuery Validate plugin - password check - minimum requirements - Regex

    - by QviXx
    I've got a little problem with my password-checker. There's got a registration form with some fields. I use jQuery Validate plugin to validate user-inputs. It all works except the password-validation: The password should meet some minimum requirements: minimum length: 8 - I just use 'minlength: 8' at least one lower-case character at least one digit Allowed Characters: A-Z a-z 0-9 @ * _ - . ! At the moment I use this code to validate the password: $.validator.addMethod("pwcheck", function(value, element) { return /^[A-Za-z0-9\d=!\-@._*]+$/.test(value); }); This Code works for the allowed characters but not for minimum requirements. I know that you can use for example (?=.*[a-z]) for a lower-case-requirement. But I just don't get it to work. If I add (?=.*[a-z]) the whole code doesn't work anymore. I need to know how to properly add the code to the existing one. Thank you for your answers! This is the complete code <script> $(function() { $("#regform").validate({ rules: { forename: { required: true }, surname: { required: true }, username: { required: true }, password: { required: true, pwcheck: true, minlength: 8 }, password2: { required: true, equalTo: "#password" }, mail1: { required: true, email: true }, mail2: { required: true, equalTo: "#mail1" } }, messages: { forename: { required: "Vornamen angeben" }, surname: { required: "Nachnamen angeben" }, username: { required: "Usernamen angeben" }, password: { required: "Passwort angeben", pwcheck: "Das Passwort entspricht nicht den Kriterien!", minlength: "Das Passwort entspricht nicht den Kriterien!" }, password2: { required: "Passwort wiederholen", equalTo: "Die Passwörter stimmen nicht überein" }, mail1: { required: "Mail-Adresse angeben", email: "ungültiges Mail-Format" }, mail2: { required: "Mail-Adresse wiederholen", equalTo: "Die Mail-Adressen stimmen nicht überein" } } }); $.validator.addMethod("pwcheck", function(value, element) { return /^[A-Za-z0-9\d=!\-@._*]+$/.test(value); }); }); </script>

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  • Allowing user to edit only the page content and some custom fields in wordpress

    - by GaVrA
    This is the site: http://www.backpackers.rs Using "User Role Editor" i have user group that can only read and edit published pages so i can have as many users as i want in that user group and they all will have only one published page on their own so they can edit only that page. Now, this is how a user in that user group currently is seeing "edit page" page: http://i39.tinypic.com/rwuesh.png What i need is to disable all those things that have a red border around it + something with custom fields. So i need to disable these things for user in that user group: ability to change status of the page entire "Attributes" block is something that he/she must not see or be able to change ability to change something in "Discussion" block he/she shouldnt see "Page revisions" block i need a way to give those users ability to use only some custom fields. Currently we have 6 custom fields, and i want to give these users ability to only use 4 of those custom fields. i need to disable these users from creating new custom fields. I dont need complete answers for these things, something to get me started is really what i need. I have been reading codex a lot, but still didnt find something to help me with this, so basically any answer is more then appreciated!

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  • Can't override "From" address in MailMessage class using .config login credentials

    - by Jeff
    I'm updating some existing code that sends a simple email using .Net's SMTP classes. Sample code is below. The SMTP host is google and login info is contained in the App.config as shown below (obviously not real login info :)). The problem I'm having, and I haven't been able to find any answers Googling, is that I can NOT override the display of the "from" email address that's contained in the "username" attribute off the Network element in the config in the delivered email. In the line below that explicitly sets the From property off the myMailMessage object, that value, "[email protected]" does NOT display when the email is received. It still shows as "[email protected]" from the Network tag. However, the From name "Sparky" does appear in the email. I've tried adding a custom "From" header to the Header property of the myMailMessage but that didn't work either. Is there anyway to login to the smtp server, as shown below using the Network tag credentials, but in the actual email received override the From email address that's displayed? Sample code: MailMessage myMailMessage = new MailMessage(); myMailMessage.Subject = "My New Mail"; myMailMessage.Body = "This is my test mail to check"; myMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "Sparky"); myMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]", "receiver name")); SmtpClient mySmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mySmtpClient.Send(myMailMessage); in App.config: <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" from="[email protected]"> <network host="smtp.gmail.com" port="587" userName="[email protected]" password="mypassword" defaultCredentials="false"/> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net>

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  • How to html encode the output of an MVC view?

    - by jessegavin
    I am building a web app which will generate lots of different code templates (HTML tables, XML documents, SQL scripts) that I want to render on screen as encoded HTML so that people can copy and paste those templates. I would like to be able to use asp.net mvc views to generate the code for these templates (rather than, say, using a StringBuilder). Is there a way using asp.net mvc to store the results of a rendered view into a string? Something like the following perhaps? public ContentResult HtmlTable(string format) { var m = new MyViewModel(); m.MyDataElements = _myDataRepo.GetData(); // Somehow render the view and store it as a string? // Not sure how to achieve this part. var viewHtml = View(m); var htmlEncodedView = Server.HtmlEncode(viewHtml); return Content(htmlEncodedView); } NOTE: My original question mentioned NHaml views specifically, but I realized that this wasn't view engine specific. So if you see answers related to NHaml, that's why.

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