Search Results

Search found 61241 results on 2450 pages for 'empty set'.

Page 425/2450 | < Previous Page | 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432  | Next Page >

  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

    Read the article

  • Writing a synchronized thread-safety wrapper for NavigableMap

    - by polygenelubricants
    java.util.Collections currently provide the following utility methods for creating synchronized wrapper for various collection interfaces: synchronizedCollection(Collection<T> c) synchronizedList(List<T> list) synchronizedMap(Map<K,V> m) synchronizedSet(Set<T> s) synchronizedSortedMap(SortedMap<K,V> m) synchronizedSortedSet(SortedSet<T> s) Analogously, it also has 6 unmodifiedXXX overloads. The glaring omission here are the utility methods for NavigableMap<K,V>. It's true that it extends SortedMap, but so does SortedSet extends Set, and Set extends Collection, and Collections have dedicated utility methods for SortedSet and Set. Presumably NavigableMap is a useful abstraction, or else it wouldn't have been there in the first place, and yet there are no utility methods for it. So the questions are: Is there a specific reason why Collections doesn't provide utility methods for NavigableMap? How would you write your own synchronized wrapper for NavigableMap? Glancing at the source code for OpenJDK version of Collections.java seems to suggest that this is just a "mechanical" process Is it true that in general you can add synchronized thread-safetiness feature like this? If it's such a mechanical process, can it be automated? (Eclipse plug-in, etc) Is this code repetition necessary, or could it have been avoided by a different OOP design pattern?

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net Cookie sharing

    - by SH
    This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

    Read the article

  • [nHibernate] casting string to bool using nHibernate Criteria

    - by code-zoop
    I have an nHibernate query using Criteria, and I am trying to cast a string to bool in the query itself. I have done the same with casting a string to int, and that works well (the "DataField" property is "1" as a string): var result = Session .CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq((Projections.Cast(NHibernateUtil.Int32, Projections.Property("DataField"), 1)) .List<Car>(); tx.Commit(); But I am trying to do the same with bool, but I do not get the expected result: var result = Session .CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq((Projections.Cast(NHibernateUtil.bool, Projections.Property("DataField"), true)) .List<Car>(); tx.Commit(); "DataField" is the string "True", but the result in an empty list, where it should contain 100 elements with the "DataField" property string set to "True". I have tried with the string "true", and "1", but the result is still an empty List. [EDIT] As Commented below, I could check for the string "True" or "False", but I would say this is a more general question than just for the Boolean. Note that the idea is to have some sort of key value representation of the data, where the value can be different data types. I need the value table to contain all data, so storing the data as string seems like the cleanest solution! I have been able to use the method above to store both int and double as string, and to the cast in the query, but I have not succeeded using the same method for DateDime and Boolean. And for DateTime it is crucial to have the actual DateTime object. How can I make the cast from string to bool, and string to DateTime work in the queries? Thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery select by two name roots and perform one of two function depending on which root was selected

    - by RetroCoder
    I'm trying to get this code to work in jQuery and I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration of each root element, its alternate root element for that same iteration doesn't contain anything. Otherwise it sets the .val("") property to an empty string. Looking for a simple solution if possible using search, find, or swap. Each matching number is on the same row level and the same iteration count. I have two input types of input text elements with two different root names like so: 1st Root is "rootA" <input type="text" name="rootA1" /> <input type="text" name="rootA2 /> <input type="text" name="rootA3" /> 2nd Root is "rootB" <input type="text" name="rootB1" /> <input type="text" name="rootB2 /> <input type="text" name="rootB3" /> On blur if any of rootA is called call function fnRootA();. On blur if any of rootB is called call function fnRootB();. Again, I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration like 1 that the alternate root doesn't contain anything, else it sets the .val("") property to an empty string of the root being blurred. My current code works for a single element but wanted to use find or search but not sure how to construct it.. $("input[name='rootA1']").blur(function(e) { fnRootA(1); // this code just removes rootA1's value val("") //if rootB1 has something in it value property // the (1) in parenthesis is the iteration number });

    Read the article

  • Visual C# Winforms App Not Displaying Graphical Elements in Design Mode

    - by Sev
    I wrote a bunch of code in the .cs file in c# for a winforms application. The application runs fine, and everything is in it's place. Something like this: using.. namespace Temp { public class Temp : Form { Button b1; TextBox t1; Temp() { b1.Text = "Some Text"; b1.Size = new Size(50,20); ... } void function1() { // stuff } static void Main() { Application.Run(new Temp()); } } } How can I modify my code (or fix it somehow) so that the design view displays the elements in their correct positions and view so that I can visually edit them instead of having to trial/error everything. Edit for Clarification My application runs fine. The problem is, that I didn't use designer to create the application and so in the designer view, the app is empty. But not empty when I run it, since everything is positioned programmatically in the .cs file. My question is, how can I fix this, so that the designer shows the objects correctly. There is no quick fix other than to redesign everything?

    Read the article

  • NUnit, CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...,...), C# Question

    - by K-Bell
    I new to NUnit and looking for an explination as to why this test fails? I get the following exception when running the test. NUnit.Framework.AssertionException: Expected: equivalent to < <....ExampleClass, <....ExampleClass But was: < <....ExampleClass, <....ExampleClass using NUnit.Framework; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; public class ExampleClass { public ExampleClass() { Price = 0m; } public string Description { get; set; } public string SKU { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public int Qty { get; set; } } [TestFixture] public class ExampleClassTests { [Test] public void ExampleTest() { var collection1 = new Collection<ExampleClass> { new ExampleClass {Qty = 1, SKU = "971114FT031M"}, new ExampleClass {Qty = 1, SKU = "971114FT249LV"} }; var collection2 = new Collection<ExampleClass> { new ExampleClass {Qty = 1, SKU = "971114FT031M"}, new ExampleClass {Qty = 1, SKU = "971114FT249LV"} }; CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(collection1, collection2); } }

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework not populating context

    - by stimms
    I'm just starting out with some entity framework exploration, I figured it was time to see what everybody was complaining about. I am running into an issue where the entities don't seem to be returning any of the object context. I generated the model from a database with three tables which link to one another. Courses Instructors CanTeach Relationships are as you would expect: a course can relate to multiple CanTeach entities and an instructor can also relate to multiple CanTeach entities. I also added an OData service to my project which also makes use of the same model. So I can run queries like from a in CanTeach where a.Instructor.FirstName == "Barry" select new { Name = a.Instructor.FirstName + " " + a.Instructor.LastName, Course = a.Course.Name} without issue against the OData endpoint using LINQPad. However when I do a simple query like public Instructor GetInstructorFromID(int ID) { return context.Instructors.Where(i => i.ID == ID).FirstOrDefault(); } The CanTeach list is empty. I know everything in EF is lazy loaded and it is possible that my context is out of scope by the time I look at the object context, however even trying to get the object context as soon as the query is run results in and empty object context. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Laravel4: Checking many-to-many relationship attribute even when it does not exist

    - by Simo A.
    This is my first time with Laravel and also Stackoverflow... I am developing a simple course management system. The main objects are User and Course, with a many-to-many relationship between them. The pivot table has an additional attribute, participant_role, which defines whether the user is a student or an instructor within that particular course. class Course extends Eloquent { public function users() { return $this->belongsToMany('User')->withPivot('participant_role')->withTimestamps(); } } However, there is an additional role, system admin, which can be defined on the User object. And this brings me mucho headache. In my blade view I have the following: @if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something here... } This works fine when the user has been assigned to that particular $course and there is an entry for this user-course combination in the pivot table. However, the problem is the system administrator, who also should be able to access course details. The if-clause above gives Trying to get property of non-object error, apparently because there is no entry in the pivot table for system administrator (as the role is defined within the User object). I could probably solve the problem by using some off-the-shelf bundle for handling role-based permissions. Or I could (but don't want to) do something like this with two internal if-clauses: if (!empty($course->pivot)) { if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something... } } Other options (suggested in partially similar entries in Stackoverflow) would include 1) reading all the pivot table entries to an array, and use in_array to check if a role exists, or even 2) SQL left join to do this on database level. However, ultimately I am looking for a compact one-line solution? Can I do anything similar to this, which unfortunately does not seem to work? if (! empty ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') ) { // do something... } The shorter the answer, the better :-). Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Winforms App Not Displaying Graphical Elements in Design Mode

    - by Sev
    I wrote a bunch of code in the .cs file in c# for a winforms application. The application runs fine, and everything is in it's place. Something like this: using.. namespace Temp { public class Temp : Form { Button b1; TextBox t1; Temp() { b1.Text = "Some Text"; b1.Size = new Size(50,20); ... } void function1() { // stuff } static void Main() { Application.Run(new Temp()); } } } How can I modify my code (or fix it somehow) so that the design view displays the elements in their correct positions and view so that I can visually edit them instead of having to trial/error everything. Edit for Clarification My application runs fine. The problem is, that I didn't use designer to create the application and so in the designer view, the app is empty. But not empty when I run it, since everything is positioned programmatically in the .cs file. My question is, how can I fix this, so that the designer shows the objects correctly. There is no quick fix other than to redesign everything?

    Read the article

  • How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

    - by brandon k
    I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

    Read the article

  • Setting Session/Cookie via ajax request made on other website

    - by user596805
    Hi, That's my problem: I have an website, example.com, in which index.html file a introduced a <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> You can see, that this is on other web server. In the js.js I have some data that I want to send to php. For that, I am using Ajax. So, I made a request to "website.net/data.php" using method get. In data.php file everything is ok,I received the value, but I want to set a cookie which value is what I received through ajax. Here is the problem. The setcookie function says that the cookie was set, but when I check in the browser, there's no cookie! It works fine if the index.html file where I use <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> is hosted on the same domain where I am making the request. If it is on another domain, it doesn't work anymore. I have read something about Ajax cross site, but I don't want to send something back to example.com. All I want is to send some data from example.com to website.net and then setting a cookie based on that value. Thank you very much, and sorry for my English! Later edit: I am not used with this website. From the example.net I take a single value. On website.net I receive that value, I check if it's not already a cookie set, if it's not, I set it. On the same page, website.net, I use this cookie too.

    Read the article

  • Obtaining command line arguments in a QT application

    - by morpheous
    The following snippet is from a little app I wrote using the QT framework. The idea is that the app can be run in batch mode (i.e. called by a script) or can be run interactively. It is important therefore, that I am able to parse command line arguments in order to know which mode in which to run etc. [Edit] I am debugging using QTCreator 1.3.1 on Ubuntu Karmic. The arguments are passed in the normal way (i.e. by adding them via the 'Project' settings in the QTCreator IDE). When I run the app, it appears that the arguments are not being passed to the application. The code below, is a snippet of my main() function. int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { //Q_INIT_RESOURCE(application); try { QApplication the_app(argc, argv); //trying to get the arguments into a list QStringList cmdline_args = QCoreApplication::arguments(); // Code continues ... } catch (const MyCustomException &e) { return 1; } return 0; } [Update] I have identified the problem - for some reason, although argc is correct, the elements of argv are empty strings. I put this little code snippet to print out the argv items - and was horrified to see that they were all empty. for (int i=0; i< argc; i++){ std::string s(argv[i]); //required so I can see the damn variable in the debugger std::cout << s << std::endl; } Does anyone know what on earth is going on (or a hammer)?

    Read the article

  • How do I add a where filter using the original Linq-to-SQL object in the following scenario

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I am performing a select query using the following Linq expression: Table<Tbl_Movement> movements = context.Tbl_Movement; var query = from m in movements select new MovementSummary { Id = m.DocketId, Created = m.DateTimeStamp, CreatedBy = m.Tbl_User.FullName, DocketNumber = m.DocketNumber, DocketTypeDescription = m.Ref_DocketType.DocketType, DocketTypeId = m.DocketTypeId, Site = new Site() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.SiteId, FirstLine = m.Tbl_Site.FirstLine, Postcode = m.Tbl_Site.Postcode, SiteName = m.Tbl_Site.SiteName, TownCity = m.Tbl_Site.TownCity, Brewery = new Brewery() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryId, BreweryName = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryName }, Region = new Region() { Description = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.Description, Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.RegionId } } }; I am also passing in an IFilter class into the method where this select is performed. public interface IJobFilter { int? PersonId { get; set; } int? RegionId { get; set; } int? SiteId { get; set; } int? AssetId { get; set; } } How do I add these where parameters into my SQL expression? Preferably I'd like this done in another method as the filtering will be re-used across multiple repositories. Unfortunately when I do query.Where it has become an IQueryable<MovementSummary>. I'm assuming it has become this as I'm returning an IEnumerable<MovementSummary>. I've only just started learning LINQ, so be gentle.

    Read the article

  • Indirect property notification

    - by Carlo
    Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • how to fill missing values from a list

    - by Stephane
    I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to create a timer in jscript that you can manually change without it being affected by timezones?

    - by Lixorp
    is it possible to create a timer where I can manually set the hours each day to a set number of hours but still remains accurate? For example; if I set the countdown for 5 hours at 2pm I want the timer to stop as soon as it hits 7pm. Also, when I set the timer for 5 hours I would like everyone in the world to see it countdown from 5 hours, no matter what the time is in their country. In the format: days hours minutes seconds. The reason I want to do this is for a streamer's website. He needs a flexible timer which can be manually changed and is the same worldwide for his viewers to know when he starts streaming. The current timer we're using at the moment; setInterval(function(){ var currentTime = new Date(); if(currentTime.getHours() > 19){ var countdownHours = (24 - currentTime.getHours()) + 19; }else if(currentTime.getHours() < 19){ var countdownHours = 19 - currentTime.getHours(); }else{ var countdownHours = 0; } var countdownMins = 59 - currentTime.getMinutes(); var countdownSecs = 60 - currentTime.getSeconds(); $('#countdown-days h1').text('0'); $('#countdown-hours h1').text(countdownHours); $('#countdown-minutes h1').text(countdownMins); $('#countdown-seconds h1').text(countdownSecs); }, 1000); As you can tell it isn't ideal for what we need it for since it counts down to 7pm in the timezone you're in. Any help/examples would be greatly appreciated, Thank you in advance, Lixorp.

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate, can i improve my MAPPING or Query

    - by dbones
    take this simple example A staff class which references other instances of the staff class public class Staff { public Staff() { Team = new List<Staff>(); } public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Staff> Team { get; set; } public virtual Staff Manager { get; set; } } The Fluent Mapping public class StaffMap : ClassMap<Staff> { public StaffMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); References(x => x.Manager).Column("ManagerId"); HasMany(x => x.Team).KeyColumn("ManagerId").Inverse(); } } Now I want to run a query, which will load all the Staff and eager load the manager and Team members. This is what I came up with IList<Staff> resutls = session.CreateCriteria<Staff>() .SetFetchMode("Team", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.DistinctRootEntity) .List<Staff>(); however the SQL (does what i want) has duplicate columns, 2 team2_.ManagerId and 2 team2_.Id SELECT this_.Id as Id0_1_, this_.Name as Name0_1_, this_.ManagerId as ManagerId0_1_, team2_.ManagerId as ManagerId3_, team2_.Id as Id3_, team2_.Id as Id0_0_, team2_.Name as Name0_0_, team2_.ManagerId as ManagerId0_0_ FROM [SelfRef].[dbo].[Staff] this_ left outer join [SelfRef].[dbo].[Staff] team2_ on this_.Id=team2_.ManagerId The question is, should this be happening? did i do something wrong in the query or map? or is it a feature of the HHib im using (which is Version 2.1.0.4000)? many thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to make paging start from 1 instead of 0 in ASP.NET MVC

    - by ssx
    I used the paging example of the Nerddinner tutorial. But I also wanted to add page Numbers, somehting like that: <<< 1 2 3 4 5 6 The code below works if i start my paging from 0, but not from 1. How can I fix this ? Here is my code: PaginatedList.cs public class PaginatedList<T> : List<T> { public int PageIndex { get; private set; } public int PageSize { get; private set; } public int TotalCount { get; private set; } public int TotalPages { get; private set; } public PaginatedList(IQueryable<T> source, int pageIndex, int pageSize) { PageIndex = pageIndex; PageSize = pageSize; TotalCount = source.Count(); TotalPages = (int) Math.Ceiling(TotalCount / (double)PageSize); this.AddRange(source.Skip(PageIndex * PageSize).Take(PageSize)); } public bool HasPreviousPage { get { return (PageIndex > 0); } } public bool HasNextPage { get { return (PageIndex+1 < TotalPages); } } } UserController.cs public ActionResult List(int? page) { const int pageSize = 20; IUserRepository userRepository = new UserRepository(); IQueryable<User> listUsers = userRepository.GetAll(); PaginatedList<User> paginatedUsers = new PaginatedList<User>(listUsers, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedUsers); } List.cshtml @if (Model.HasPreviousPage) { @Html.RouteLink(" Previous ", "PaginatedUsers", new { page = (Model.PageIndex - 1) }) } @for (int i = 1; i <= Model.TotalPages; i++) { @Html.RouteLink(@i.ToString(), "PaginatedUsers", new { page = (@i ) }) } @if (Model.HasNextPage) { @Html.RouteLink(" Next ", "PaginatedUsers", new { page = (Model.PageIndex + 1) }) }

    Read the article

  • jsf and eclipse setup. Lib in Explorer is different than lib in tomcat. How come?

    - by user384706
    Hi, I am starter in JSF2.0, and I have a question related to Eclipse (I am using Helios). 1)I create a Dynamic Project 2)I add JSF project facet. 3)I choose JSF user library (I have created it using MyFaces) All ok so far. I notice though that in the Project Explorer in WebContent/WEB-INF/lib the lib directory is empty instead of having MyFaces jars. The application works fine though. I looked into this and the jars are actually being placed in the corresponding lib directory of the app deployed under wtpwebapps of the Tomcat instance of eclipse in the .pluggins directory. Ok, it works but IMHO it is incorrect to have the Project Explorer inconsistent with the directories actually deployed. I.e. lib is shown empty in Project Explorer but with jars under wtpwebapps. Am I wrong to dislike this inconsistency? Is this how it should work or am I doing something wrong in the way I am setting my project? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Accessing Instance Variables from NSTimer selector

    - by Timbo
    Firstly newbie question: What's the difference between a selector and a method? Secondly newbie question (who would have thought): I need to loop some code based on instance variables and pause between loops until some condition (of course based on instance variables) is met. I've looked at sleep, I've looked at NSThread. In both discussions working through those options many asked why don't I use NSTimer, so here I am. Ok so it's simple enough to get a method (selector? ) to fire on a schedule. Problem I have is that I don't know how to see instance variables I've set up outside the timer from within the code NSTimer fires. I need to see those variables from the NSTimer selector code as I 1) will be updating their values and 2) will set labels based on those values. Here's some code that shows the concept… eventually I'd invalidate the timers based on myVariable too, however I've excluded that for code clarity. MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:0]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(doSomeOtherStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (void) doStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:11]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) doSomeOtherStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:22]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) updateSomeUILabel:(NSNumber *)arg{ int value = [arg intValue]; someUILabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"myVariable = %d", value]; // Updates the UI with new instance variable values }

    Read the article

  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

    Read the article

  • using threads in menu options

    - by vbNewbie
    I have an app that has a console menu with 2/3 selections. One process involves uploading a file and performing a lengthy search process on its contents, whilst another process involves SQL queries and is an interactive process with the user. I wish to use threads to allow one process to run and the menu to offer the option for the second process to run. However you cannot run the first process twice. I have created threads and corrected some compilation errors but the threading options are not working correctly. Any help appreciated. main... Dim tm As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf loadFile) Dim ts As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf reports) .... While Not response.Equals("3") Try Console.Write("Enter choice: ") response = Console.ReadLine() Console.WriteLine() If response.Equals("1") Then Console.WriteLine("Thread 1 doing work") tm.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA) tm.IsBackground = True tm.Start() response = String.Empty ElseIf response.Equals("2") Then Console.WriteLine("Starting a second Thread") ts.Start() response = String.Empty End If ts.Join() tm.Join() Catch ex As Exception errormessage = ex.Message End Try End While I realize that a form based will be easier to implement with perhaps just calling different forms to handle the processes.But I really dont have that option now since the console app will be added to api later. But here are my two processes from the menu functions. Also not sure what to do with the boolean variabel again as suggested below. Private Sub LoadFile() Dim dialog As New OpenFileDialog Dim response1 As String = Nothing Dim filepath As String = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.MyDocuments) dialog.InitialDirectory = filepath If dialog.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then fileName = dialog.FileName ElseIf DialogResult.Cancel Then Exit Sub End If Console.ResetColor() Console.Write("Begin Search -- Discovery Search, y or n? ") response1 = Console.ReadLine() If response1 = "y" Then Search() ElseIf response1 = "n" Then Console.Clear() main() End If isRunning = False End Sub and the second one Private Shared Sub report() Dim rptGen As New SearchBlogDiscovery.rptGeneration Console.WriteLine("Tread Process started") rptGen.main() Console.WriteLine("Thread Process ended") isRunning = False End Sub

    Read the article

  • Why does this sql statement keep saying it is a boolean and not a paramter? (php/Mysql)

    - by ggfan
    In this statement, I am trying to see if there if the latest posting in the database that has the exact same title, price, city, state, detail. If there is, then it would say to the user that the exact post has been already made; if not then insert the posting into the dbc. (This is one type of check so that users can't accidentally post twice. This may not be the best check, but this statement error is annoying me, so I want it to work :)) Why won't this sql work? I think it's not letting the title=$title and not getting the value in the $title... ERROR: mysqli_num_rows() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in postad.php on line 365 //there is a form that users fill out that has title, price, city, etc <form> blah blah </form> //if users click submit, then does all the checks and if all okay, insert to dbc if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // Grab the pposting data from the POST and gets rid of any funny stuff $title = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['title'])); $price = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['price'])); $city = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['city'])); $state = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['state'])); $detail = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['detail'])); if (!is_numeric($price) && !empty($price)) { echo "<p class='error'>The price can only be numbers. No special characters, etc</p>"; } //Error problem...won't let me set title=$title, detail=$detail, etc. //this statement after all the checks so that none of the variables are empty $query="Select * FROM posting WHERE user_id={$_SESSION['user_id']} AND title=$title AND price=$price AND city=$city AND state=$state AND detail=$detail"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); if(mysqli_num_rows($data)==1) { echo "You already posted this ad. Most likely caused by refreshing too many times."; } }

    Read the article

  • Python: Removing particular character (u"\u2610") from string

    - by duhaime
    I have been wrestling with decoding and encoding in Python, and I can't quite figure out how to resolve my problem. I am looping over xml text files (sample) that are apparently coded in utf-8, using Beautiful Soup to parse each file, then looking to see if any sentence in the file contains one or more words from two different list of words. Because the xml files are from the eighteenth century, I need to retain the em dashes that are in the xml. The code below does this just fine, but it also retains a pesky box character that I wish to remove. I believe the box character is this character. (You can find an example of the character I wish to remove in line 3682 of the sample file above. On this webpage, the character looks like an 'or' pipe, but when I read the xml file in Komodo, it looks like a box. When I try to copy and paste the box into a search engine, it looks like an 'or' pipe. When I print to console, though, the character looks like an empty box.) To sum up, the code below runs without errors, but it prints the empty box character that I would like to remove. for work in glob.glob(pathtofiles): openfile = open(work) readfile = openfile.read() stringfile = str(readfile) decodefile = stringfile.decode('utf-8', 'strict') #is this the dodgy line? soup = BeautifulSoup(decodefile) textwithtags = soup.findAll('text') textwithtagsasstring = str(textwithtags) #this method strips everything between anglebrackets as it should textwithouttags = stripTags(textwithtagsasstring) #clean text nonewlines = textwithouttags.replace("\n", " ") noextrawhitespace = re.sub(' +',' ', nonewlines) print noextrawhitespace #the boxes appear I tried to remove the boxes by using noboxes = noextrawhitespace.replace(u"\u2610", "") But Python threw an error flag: UnicodeDecodeError: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0xe2 in position 280: ordinal not in range(128) Does anyone know how I can remove the boxes from the xml files? I would be grateful for any help others can offer.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432  | Next Page >