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• android numberformat exception

  - by asifkt

  my application shows this number format exception errror while running. 1 0-22 11:09:06.095: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.Long.parseLong(Long.java:330) 10-22 11:09:06.095: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.Long.parseLong(Long.java:307) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.htc.socialnetwork.facebook.FacebookUtils.getSyncInterval(FacebookUtils.java:54) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.htc.socialnetwork.facebook.remote.FacebookReceiver.getSyncInterval(FacebookReceiver.java:269) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.htc.socialnetwork.facebook.remote.FacebookReceiver.onReceive(FacebookReceiver.java:196) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleReceiver(ActivityThread.java:2751) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$3100(ActivityThread.java:126) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1982) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4603) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) 10-22 11:09:06.115: WARN/System.err(290): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) anybody please help me to get the reason for this error

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• Using MEF with exporting project that uses resources (xml) contained in the xap.

  - by JSmyth

  I'm doing a proof of concept app in SL4 using MEF and as part of the app I am importing another xap from an existing Silverlight Project and displaying it in my host project. The problem is that the existing app uses some .xml files (as content) and it uses linq2xml to load these files which are (assumed to be) bundled in the xap. When I compose the application the initalization fails because the host app doesn't contain the xml files. If I copy these xml files into the host project and run it the composition works fine. However, I need to keep the xml files in the original project. Is there a way that I can download a xap and look at it's contents for xml files and then load them into the host xap at runtime so that after the compostion takes place the xml resources that are required can be found? Or should I work out some kind of contract with an import/export to pass the xml files to the host xap? As the people developing the imported xaps (should the project go ahead) are from a different company, I would like to keep changes to the way they develop their apps to a minimum.

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• Load XML file on seperate thread, overwrite old , and save.

  - by Luis Tovar

  Hey everyone... so Im trying to figure out how to do this. I have bounced around alot of forums to try and find my answer, but no success. Either their process it too complicated for me to understand, or is just overkill. What I am trying to do is this. I have an XML file within my app. Its a 500k xml file that i dont want the user to have to wait on when loading. SO... I put it in my app which kills the load time, and makes the app available offline. What i want to do is, when the app loads, in the background (seperate thread) download the SAME xml file which MIGHT be updated with new data. Once the xml file is complete, i want to REPLACE the xml file that was used to load the file. Any suggestions or code hints would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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• ASP.NET Memory Usage in IIS is FAR greater than in DevEnv. Is this normal?

  - by Tom

  Greetings! I have an ASP.NET app that scrapes data from a handful of external pages, parses the relevant bits and displays them in a table. Total data retrieved is 3-4MB and the resulting page is about 1MB. I am using synchronous WebRequest GetResponse for the retrieval, but the same problem existed using an asynchronous BeginGetResponse/EndGetResponse process. There is no database access, no session storage, no caching, but an in-memory list of about 100 objects (total 1MB of data), plus a good amount of AJAX (AjaxControlToolkit). This issue appears on the very first run of the app, even if I have restarted IIS. The issue: When I run the app on my dev computer, the maximum commit charge is about 1.5GB. The biggest user, measured by Task Manager's VM Size, is WebDev.WebServer.exe (600MB). The app runs perfectly. When I run it on my rent-a-server (IIS 7.5, 1GB RAM), the maximum commit charge is over 3.8GB. The biggest user is w3wp.exe at 2.7GB. IIS grinds to a halt and spits out a timed-out error page. Given my limited server budget and the hope of having multiple simultaneous users, I'm kind of in a panic. Is this normal? If I bump the server RAM up to 4GB, will that be enough? Will multiple users require even more memory? Could the culprit be AJAX or the list of objects? Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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• Problem with TTWebController… alternative view controller template for UIWebView?

  - by prendio2

  I have a UIWebView with content populated from a Last.fm API call. This content contains links, many of which are handled by parsing info from the URL in: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)aWbView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType; …and passing that info on to appropraite view controllers. When I cannot handle a URL I would like to push a new view controller on the stack and load the webpage into a UIWebView there. The TTWebController in Three20 looks very promising since it has also implemented a navigation toolbar, loading indicators etc. Somewhat naively perhaps I thought I would be able to use this controller to display web content in my app, without implementing Three20 throughout the app. I followed the instructions on github to add Three20 to my project and added the following code to deal with URLs in shouldStartLoadWithRequest: TTWebController* browser = [[TTWebController alloc]init]; [browser openURL:@"http://three20.info"]; //initially test with this URL [self.navigationController pushViewController:navigator animated:YES]; This crashes my app however with the following notice: *** -[TTNavigator setParentViewController:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3d5db70 What else do I need to do to implement the TTWebController in my app? Or do you know of an alternative view controller template that I can use instead of the Three20 implementation?

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• Cucumber-rails on jruby installs gem into my apps root directory with bundler

  - by brad

  Just installed cucumber 0.7.2 and cucumber-rails 0.3.1 with jruby-1.4.0 on OSX. When I run a bundle install, it places a cucumber-rails directory in my main app with all of the gem code/dependencies. First off, this is definitely not what I want and I'm not sure why this happens for cucumber-rails only. Second, if I delete this folder and just manually install cucumber-rails, when I run script/generate feature blah I get /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/source_index.rb:344:in `refresh!': source index not created from disk (RuntimeError) from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:34:in `refresh!' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:29:in `initialize' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:21:in `new' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:21:in `add_frozen_gem_path' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:298:in `add_gem_load_paths' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:132:in `process' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `run' from /Users/bradrobertson/Repos/app/source/trunk/config/environment.rb:13 from /Users/bradrobertson/Repos/app/source/trunk/config/environment.rb:1:in `require' from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/commands/generate.rb:1 from /Users/bradrobertson/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/commands/generate.rb:3:in `require' from script/generate:3 Similarly running rake cucumber I get rake aborted! source index not created from disk So something obviously doesn't work. If I add that cucumber-rails directory back in, then my rake cucumber actually runs. Can someone tell me why it would need to install the gem right in my rails app? I've never seen this before. setup jruby-1.4.0 cucumber-0.7.2 cucumber-rails 0.3.1 bundler 0.9.23 webrat 0.7.1

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• Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

  - by Pandafox

  Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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• CakePHP: Custom Function in bootstrap that uses $ajax->link not working

  - by nekko

  Hello I have two questions: (1) Is it best practice to create global custom functions in the bootstrap file? Is there a better place to store them? (2) I am unable use the following line of code in my custom function located in my bootstrap.php file: $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); echo $url; I receive the following error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: ajax [APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271] Code } function testAjax () { $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); testAjax - APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271 include - APP\views\event\queue.ctp, line 19 View::_render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 649 View::render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 372 Controller::render() - CORE\cake\libs\controller\controller.php, line 766 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 211 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 181 [main] - APP\webroot\index.php, line 91 However it works as intended if I place that same code in my view: <a onclick=" event.returnValue = false; return false;" id="link1656170149" href="/shout/events/delete/22">Delete</a> Please help :) Thanks in advance!!

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• Algorithm to produce Cartesian product of arrays in depth-first order

  - by Yuri Gadow

  I'm looking for an example of how, in Ruby, a C like language, or pseudo code, to create the Cartesian product of a variable number of arrays of integers, each of differing length, and step through the results in a particular order: So given, [1,2,3],[1,2,3],[1,2,3]: [1, 1, 1] [2, 1, 1] [1, 2, 1] [1, 1, 2] [2, 2, 1] [1, 2, 2] [2, 1, 2] [2, 2, 2] [3, 1, 1] [1, 3, 1] etc. Instead of the typical result I've seen (including the example I give below): [1, 1, 1] [2, 1, 1] [3, 1, 1] [1, 2, 1] [2, 2, 1] [3, 2, 1] [1, 3, 1] [2, 3, 1] etc. The problem with this example is that the third position isn't explored at all until all combinations of of the first two are tried. In the code that uses this, that means even though the right answer is generally (the much larger equivalent of) 1,1,2 it will examine a few million possibilities instead of just a few thousand before finding it. I'm dealing with result sets of one million to hundreds of millions, so generating them and then sorting isn't doable here and would defeat the reason for ordering them in the first example, which is to find the correct answer sooner and so break out of the cartesian product generation earlier. Just in case it helps clarify any of the above, here's how I do this now (this has correct results and right performance, but not the order I want, i.e., it creates results as in the second listing above): def cartesian(a_of_a) a_of_a_len = a_of_a.size result = Array.new(a_of_a_len) j, k, a2, a2_len = nil, nil, nil, nil i = 0 while 1 do j, k = i, 0 while k < a_of_a_len a2 = a_of_a[k] a2_len = a2.size result[k] = a2[j % a2_len] j /= a2_len k += 1 end return if j > 0 yield result i += 1 end end UPDATE: I didn't make it very clear that I'm after a solution where all the combinations of 1,2 are examined before 3 is added in, then all 3 and 1, then all 3, 2 and 1, then all 3,2. In other words, explore all earlier combinations "horizontally" before "vertically." The precise order in which those possibilities are explored, i.e., 1,1,2 or 2,1,1, doesn't matter, just that all 2 and 1 are explored before mixing in 3 and so on.

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• How do I [legally] get the current first responder on the screen on an iPhone?

  - by Anthony D

  I submitted my app a little over a week ago and got the dreaded rejection email today. It reads as follows: Dear -----------, Thank you for submitting --------- to the App Store. Unfortunately it cannot be added to the App Store because it is using a private API. Use of non-public APIs, which as outlined in the iPhone Developer Program License Agreement section 3.3.1 is prohibited: "3.3.1 Applications may only use Documented APIs in the manner prescribed by Apple and must not use or call any private APIs." The non-public API that is included in your application is firstResponder. Regards, iPhone Developer Program Now, the offending API call is actually a solution I found here on SO: UIWindow *keyWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; UIView *firstResponder = [keyWindow performSelector:@selector(firstResponder)]; So this is my question; How do I get the current first responder on the screen? I'm looking for a legal way that won't get my app rejected. Thanks. I figured this out based on the solution provided by Thomas below. Here is what the final code looks like: @implementation UIView (FindFirstResponder) - (UIView *)findFirstResonder { if (self.isFirstResponder) { return self; } for (UIView *subView in self.subviews) { UIView *firstResponder = [subView findFirstResonder]; if (firstResponder != nil) { return firstResponder; } } return nil; } @end

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• Best practice PHP Form Action

  - by Rob

  Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

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• Excel Automation - creating a new worksheet

  - by Andrew Shepherd

  I am attempting what seems like a simple task: using C# to create a new Excel document containing new worksheets. For some reason, I am getting a strange COM error (0x800A03EC) Has anyone managed to get this to work? Does anyone have suggestions as to how to troubleshoot this? I've isolated this into the minimum amount of code: using Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; using System.Diagnostics; namespace ExcelAutomation { public static class ExcelTests { public static void CreateWorksheet() { try { var app = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application(); app.Visible = true; var workBooks = app.Workbooks; var newWorkbook = app.Workbooks.Add(XlWBATemplate.xlWBATWorksheet); Worksheet existingWorksheet = (Worksheet)newWorkbook.Sheets[1]; Worksheet workSheet = (Worksheet)newWorkbook.Sheets.Add ( null, // before existingWorksheet, null, // 1, null //XlSheetType.xlWorksheet ); } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException ex) { Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Caught COMException. Message: \"{0}\"", ex.Message)); } } } } The output window now says: Caught COMException. Message: "Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC"

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• Get email address from OpenID provider (Janrain openid library)

  - by Moak

  When signing in to stackoverflow with google I get this message Stackoverflow.com is asking for some information from your Google Account [email protected] • Email address: [email protected] However on my site I can log in with openid but I can't ask for the email address. I get this message You are signing in to example.com with your Google Account [email protected] Also I'm finding it hard to know at what step I need to ask for it, here's some code where I think that step should be built into. /** * Authenticates the given OpenId identity. * Defined by Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface. * * @throws Zend_Auth_Adapter_Exception If answering the authentication query is impossible * @return Zend_Auth_Result */ public function authenticate() { $id = $this->_id; $consumer = new Auth_OpenID_Consumer($this->_storage); if (!empty($id)) { $authRequest = $consumer->begin($id); if (is_null($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", 'Unknown error')); } if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", "Could not redirect to server: " . $authRequest->message)); } $redirectUrl = $authRequest->redirectUrl($this->_root, $this->_returnTo); if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($redirectUrl)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", $redirectUrl->message)); } Zend_OpenId::redirect($redirectUrl); } else { $response = $consumer->complete(Zend_OpenId::selfUrl()); switch($response->status) { case Auth_OpenID_CANCEL: case Auth_OpenID_FAILURE: return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, null, array("Authentication failed. " . @$response->message)); break; case Auth_OpenID_SUCCESS: return $this->_constructSuccessfulResult($response); break; } } } It seems like such an obvious thing but I'm having a hard time googling and combing through the code just to find this. Thanks!

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• In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

  - by Bytecode Ninja

  In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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• Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

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• BWToolkit inclusion crashing

  - by Schroedinger

  Hey guys I'm using the latest version of XCode (3.2.2) and I've linked the framework using the tutorial. I was building my app and tested it and I get a BWToolkit exception on decoding. I've included the Framework in the frameworks and added it to the copy files stage. I even created a new dummy app including the framework and adding it to the copy files stage and it still crashes when I try to run. Any ideas? Do I need to include it somewhere in the app? I'm worried I've overlooked something really simple. 2010-04-13 14:14:24.540 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-04-13 14:14:24.543 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView) 2010-04-13 14:14:24.545 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidUnarchiveOperationException', reason: '*** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView)' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77d24 __exceptionPreprocess + 180 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff82ba00f3 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77b47 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 103 3 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77ad4 +[NSException raise:format:] + 148 4 Foundation 0x00007fff83804aa6 _decodeObjectBinary + 2427 5 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 6 Foundation 0x00007fff83805d65 -[NSArray(NSArray) initWithCoder:] + 462 7 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 8 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 9 AppKit 0x00007fff8069fbfb -[NSView initWithCoder:] + 362 10 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 11 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 12 AppKit 0x00007fff806adfbb -[NSWindowTemplate initWithCoder:] + 3824 13 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 14 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 15 Foundation 0x00007fff83805268 -[NSSet(NSSet) initWithCoder:] + 447 16 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 17 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 18 AppKit 0x00007fff8062fcde -[NSIBObjectData initWithCoder:] + 1983 19 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 20 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 21 AppKit 0x00007fff8062f40d loadNib + 146 22 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e96d +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) _loadNibFile:nameTable:withZone:ownerBundle:] + 248 23 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e7a5 +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) loadNibNamed:owner:] + 326 24 AppKit 0x00007fff8062bd27 NSApplicationMain + 279 25 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001891 main + 33 26 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001868 start + 52 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' That's the crash report

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• Inserting bits into byte

  - by JB_SO

  I was looking at an example of reading bits from a byte and the implementation looked simple and easy to understand. I was wondering if anyone has a similar example of how to insert bits into a byte or byte array, that is easier to understand and also implement like the example below. Here is the example I found of reading bits from a byte (http://bytes.com/topic/c-sharp/answers/505085-reading-bits-byte-file): static int GetBits3(byte b, int offset, int count) { return (b >> offset) & ((1 << count) - 1); } Here is what i'm trying to do....and this is my current implementation.....just a little confused with the bit-masking/shifting, etc, that's why I'm trying to find out if there is an easier way to do what i'm doing BYTE Msg[2]; Msg_Id = 3; Msg_Event = 1; Msg_Ready = 2; Msg[0] = ( ( Msg_Event << 4 ) & 0xF0 ) | ( Msg_Id & 0x0F ) ; Msg[1] = Msg_Ready & 0x0F; //MsgReady & Unused Thanks for your help!

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• Conditionally overriding a system method via categories in Objective-C?

  - by adib

  Hi Is there a way to provide a method implementation (that bears the exact same name of a method defined by the framework) only when the method isn't already defined in the system? For example method [NSSomeClass someMethod:] exists only in Mac OS X 10.6 and if my app runs in 10.5, I will provide that method's definition in a category. But when the app runs in 10.6, I want the OS-provided method to run. Background: I'm creating an app targeted for both 10.5 and 10.6. The problem is that I recently realized that method +[NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:ascending:] only exists in 10.6 and my code is already littered by that method call. I could provide a default implementation for it (since this time it's not too difficult to implement it myself), but I want the "native" one to be called whenever my app runs on 10.6. Furthermore if I encounter similar problems in the future (with more difficult-to-implement-myself methods), I might not be able to get away with providing a one-liner replacement. This question vaguely similar to Override a method via ObjC Category and call the default implementation? but the difference is that I want to provide implementations only when the system doesn't already has one. Thanks.

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• Applet Not Loading In Java 1.6.0_16

  - by Wayne Hartman

  I am running a Java applet compiled in 1.5 and am experiencing odd behavior when running it on computers running 1.6.0_07 and 1.6.0_16. On the *_07 version, the applet initializes and loads in the browser perfectly fine. However, computers with the *_16 are not loading at all. Even more strange, there is nothing in the Java Console to indicate any problems will loading the applet in the browser. If I run the applet from as a standalone app on said machines, it loads up just fine. The compatibility mode in the JNLP is set to 1.5+. Firefox reports no errors attempting to load the applet. Even with full tracing and logging set to all, nothing is reported in the console window. Quick facts: The JAR is signed Compiled in 1.5 Works flawlessly in browsers (FF & IE) running *_07 Does not work in browsers (FF & IE) running *_16 Works running as stand alone app in *_16 JNLP set to 1.5+ Clients are mixed *_07, *_16, and other version of 1.6 Things I have tried: Forcing the JVM to use version 1.6.0_07. This requires the user to download *_07. In my situation this is not an option, unfortunately. Ran the app on *_16 as a standalone app. This works fine, but this needs to run as an applet. Ideas?

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• How to best future proof my application that needs to connect to Outlook?

  - by Troy

  I have a contact management application written in Delphi which has a “Sync with Outlook” feature that I developed 10 years ago. Now, I’m going back to add some features and fix some bugs. This sync feature uses the Outlook object model to get started, but it has an optional mode called “Use MAPI Enhancements” where it uses pure MAPI to speed up how it looks for changes, and it allows notes to be synced w/ RTF instead of just plain text. I'm wondering if supporting two parallel paths of execution is a good idea or not. If I went with all MAPI, I believe I'd avoid some security prompts, and I'd avoid situations where anti-virus has "script-blocking" features which block my app from connecting to Outlook. But I believe that on the down side, my 32-bit app would not be able to to connect with 64-bit Outlook 2010 using MAPI. And I wonder about the future of MAPI in general. If I stick with the Outlook object model, will my 32-bit app be able to connect to the Outlook object model (since it's out of process COM)? If so, this is a compelling reason to keep my Outlook object model execution path in place. But if not, and if my app needs to be compiled for x64, then why not just go with pure MAPI?

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• Is it important to dispose SolidBrush and Pen?

  - by Joe

  I recently came across this VerticalLabel control on CodeProject. I notice that the OnPaint method creates but doesn't dispose Pen and SolidBrush objects. Does this matter, and if so how can I demonstrate whatever problems it can cause? EDIT This isn't a question about the IDisposable pattern in general. I understand that callers should normally call Dispose on any class that implements IDisposable. What I want to know is what problems (if any) can be expected when GDI+ object are not disposed as in the above example. It's clear that, in the linked example, OnPaint may be called many times before the garbage collector kicks in, so there's the potential to run out of handles. However I suspect that GDI+ internally reuses handles in some circumstances (for example if you use a pen of a specific color from the Pens class, it is cached and reused). What I'm trying to understand is whether code like that in the linked example will be able to get away with neglecting to call Dispose. And if not, to see a sample that demonstrated what problems it can cause. I should add that I have very often (including the OnPaint documentation on MSDN) seen WinForms code samples that fail to dispose GDI+ objects.

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• mod_rewrite with location-based ACL in apache?

  - by Alexey

  Hi. There is a CGI-script that provides some API for our customers. Call syntax is: script.cgi?module=<str>&func=<str>[&other-options] The task is to make different authentiction rules for different modules. Optionally, it will be great to have nice URLs. My config: <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/example ServerName example.com # Global policy is to deny all <Location /> Order deny,allow Deny from all </Location> # doesn't work :( <Location /api/foo> Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.1 </Location> RewriteEngine On # The only allowed type of requests: RewriteRule /api/(.+?)/(.+) /cgi-bin/api.cgi?module=$1&func=$2 [PT] # All others are forbidden: RewriteRule /(.*) - [F] RewriteLog /var/log/apache2/rewrite.log RewriteLogLevel 5 ScriptAlias /cgi-bin /var/www/example <Directory /var/www/example> Options -Indexes AddHandler cgi-script .cgi </Directory> </VirtualHost> Well, I know that problem is order of processing that directives. <Location>s will be processed after mod_rewrite has done its work. But I believe there is a way to change it. :) Using of standard Order deny,allow + Allow from <something> directives is preferable because it's commonly used in other places like this. Thank you for your attention. :)

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• New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

  - by Meltemi

  I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

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• Why does my .NET 4 application know .NET 4 is not installed

  - by Tergiver

  I developed an application that targeted .NET 4 the other day and XCOPY-installed it to a Windows XP machine. I had told the owner of the machine that they would need to install .NET Framework 4 to run my app and he told me he did (not a reliable source). When I ran the application I was presented with a message box that said this app requires .NET Framework 4, would I like to install it? Clicking the Yes button took me to the Microsoft web site and a few clicks later .NET 4 was installed, and the application successfully launched. Now I normally don't develop applications that target the latest version of .NET, I always target the lowest version I can (what features do I really need?). So this was my first .NET 4 app (and I only targeted 4 because it used a library that did). In the past, XCOPY-installing .NET applications to a machine that didn't have the correct version of .NET installed resulted in the application simply crashing on startup with no useful information presented to the user. Was it built into my app because I targeted .NET X? Was it something already installed on the target machine? I love the feature, I just want to know precisely how to leverage it in the future.

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• Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

  - by Kai

  I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

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