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• Archive log transfer from Oracle 9i to Oracle 10g

  - by Jamie Love

  Hi all, I have a situation where I need to transfer Oracle 9i archive logs to an Oracle 10g database, from where they are to be mined by a log-miner and then used by an Oracle streams capture/apply processes. (Oracle 9 archive logs can be read by the Oracle 10 logminer - I can manually copy the archive logs across, manually register them and have them mined, captured then applied). The difficulty is that the way Oracle does archive log transfer changed quite a bit between 9i and 10g and setting up the 9i database to transfer to the remote machine like so: log_archive_dest_state_2 = enable log_archive_dest_2 = "service=OTHERMACHINE arch optional" no longer works. I get this in the 9i logs: *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.149 RFS network connection lost at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching RFS server to standby instance at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching to destination LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2 standby host 'OTHERMACHINE' Heartbeat failed to connect to standby 'OTHERMACHINE'. Error is 3113. *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.150 kcrrfail: dest:2 err:3113 force:0 ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel And in the 10g log I get: Fri May 22 04:07:42 2009 WARNING: inbound connection timed out (ORA-3136) My question is: Does anyone know how I could configure my 9i or 10g server such that the 10g server will accept the 9i connection in such a way that I can transfer the 9i archive logs to the 10g server. It would be a bonus if the archive logs would be automatically registered in the 10g server. Note I have not set up a full DataGuard configuration here and the 10g database is not a secondary server. Thanks for any suggestions. Edit Note that I can log on to the 10g server from the 9i server via sqlplus, so connectivity is not the problem Edit 2 After a large amount of time searching for a solution, I've finally decided that such a mechanism doesn't work, and that a non-Oracle method of transferring archive logs from 9i to 10g will need to be used (e.g. rsync).

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• Is it possible to make a persistent connection between a Python web service and a .Net WCF Client?

  - by Ad Hock

  I have a .Net 3.5 SOAP client written in C# using the WCF. It's expecting basicHTTPBinding and a persistent connection with HTTP/1.1. I'm trying to create a Python 2.6 application that will act as a web-service for the client. My problem is that the client keeps closing the connection and opening a new one for every command to the web service. How does the .Net WCF client know to stay open when connecting with a .Net Service? When I create a dummy .Net web service the client connects fine and the connection remains persistent. From what I can tell, when connected to a .Net server, there are no special HTTP headers being sent, that makes sense since HTTP/1.1 assumes a persistent connection unless otherwise specified (right?). However, with the python web service I accept/open a connection and eventually the client will send a TCP FIN and the connection will close (the client never sends a FIN or RST when connecting to a .Net service). The communication goes something like this: Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #1 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- Body of Command #1 Outgoing -- ACK Command #1 (HTTP headers and body) Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #2 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- TCP FIN <Connection closes> <New connection opens and SOAP command #2 (with full HTTP headers) is sent> I'm using a SocketServer.ThreadingTCPServer as the server and a BaseHTTPServer.BaseHTTPRequestHandler for any requests. The handler is actually a derived class of that with a do_POST method to handle the HTTP headers. I've looked at WireShark captures and I'm stumped. I've tried setting socket options to SO_KEEPALIVE and SO_REUSEADDR in the server but that didn't seem to change anything. What am I missing?

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• General Drools Question

  - by El Guapo

  For the last few months my company has been using a product from a company called Informatica (previously AgentLogic) called RulePoint. This product has proven itself very easy to use with a well-developed and easy-to-use SDK for customization. The way we use the product for CEP is fairly trivial, we have 2 sources which we monitor for our rule data, the first being a JMS Queue, the second being a Jabber IM account. The product runs on any java-based application server (WebLogic, Tomcat, etc) and runs just about flawlessly. Last week my boss says, "Hey, I've heard that we may be able to do the same thing we are doing with RulePoint with an open-source product called Drools. Check it out and let me know what you think." I've heard of people using Drools for flow-based operations (validation, etc), however, I've never heard of anyone using their CEP product (Fusion) in practice. So, being the diligent worker, I have undertaken this task. I've downloaded all the files (version 5.0) and accompanying documentation and have started to read. I've read through just about all the docs and run most of the examples, but I still don't really see HOW drools works for CEP. While there are examples for using Data (or Facts, I guess) from JMS, I don't see how this thing stays "running", continuously monitoring a queue until the application is actually stopped. RulePoint pretty must just sits and listens, however, Drools seems to not. I could probably write a full-blown command-line application for our needs, however, I was hoping to leverage some of the benefits of using a application server provides. I guess I'm looking for some good tutorials or an example of how someone is using Drools and CEP in production. Thanks in advanced for any information, advice you may be able to provide.

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• The woes of (sometimes) storing "date only" in datetimes

  - by Heinzi

  We have two fields from and to (of type datetime), where the user can store the begin time and the end time of a business trip, e.g.: From: 2010-04-14 09:00 To: 2010-04-16 16:30 So, the duration of the trip is 2 days and 7.5 hours. Often, the exact times are not known in advance, so the user enters the dates without a time: From: 2010-04-14 To: 2010-04-16 Internally, this is stored as 2010-04-14 00:00 and 2010-04-16 00:00, since that's what most modern class libraries (e.g. .net) and databases (e.g. SQL Server) do when you store a "date only" in a datetime structure. Usually, this makes perfect sense. However, when entering 2010-04-16 as the to date, the user clearly did not mean 2010-04-16 00:00. Instead, the user meant 2010-04-16 24:00, i.e., calculating the duration of the trip should output 3 days, not 2 days. I can think of a few (more or less ugly) workarounds for this problem (add "23:59" in the UI layer of the to field if the user did not enter a time component; add a special "dates are full days" Boolean field; store "2010-04-17 00:00" in the DB but display "2010-04-16 24:00" to the user if the time component is "00:00"; ...), all having advantages and disadvantages. Since I assume that this is a fairly common problem, I was wondering: Is there a "standard" best-practice way of solving it? If there isn't, have you experienced a similar requirement, how did you solve it and what were the pros/cons of that solution?

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• Different versions of JBoss on the same host

  - by Vladimir Bezugliy

  I have JBoss 4 installed on my PC to directory C:\JBoss4 And environment variable JBOSS_HOME set to this directory: JBOSS_HOME=C:\JBoss4 I need to install JBoss 5.1 on the same PC. I installed it into C:\JBoss51 In order to start JBoss 5.1 on the same host where JBoss 4 was already started, I need to redefine properties jboss.home.dir, jboss.home.url, jboss.service.binding.set: C:\JBoss51\bin\run.sh -Djboss.home.dir=C:/JBoss51 \ -Djboss.home.url=file:/C:/JBoss51 \ -Djboss.service.binding.set=ports-01 But in C:\JBoss51\bin\run.sh I can see following code: … if [ "x$JBOSS_HOME" = "x" ]; then # get the full path (without any relative bits) JBOSS_HOME=`cd $DIRNAME/..; pwd` fi export JBOSS_HOME … runjar="$JBOSS_HOME/bin/run.jar" JBOSS_BOOT_CLASSPATH="$runjar" And this code does not depend either on jboss.home.dir or on jboss.home.dir. So when I start JBoss 5.1 script will use jar files from JBoss 4.3? Is it correct? Should I redefine environment variable JAVA_HOME when I start JBoss 5.1? In this case script will use correct jar files. Or if I redefined properties jboss.home.dir, jboss.home.url then JBoss will not use any variables set in run.sh? How does it works?

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• jQuery click event on IE7-8, does not execute on the div, only on its text

  - by user3665301

  I have a problem using the jQuery click event with IE7-8-9. I apply the event on a div. But on these two IE versions, I have to click on the text contained within the div to make the event work. I don't understand because it was still normally working on these versions until I made a few changes (like adding the font css properties) but when I try to delete these changes it stil does not work as I want; Here is a jsfiddle illustrating the situation and its full screen result. http://jsfiddle.net/rC632/ function clickEvent(){ $('.answerDiv').click(function(){ $( "div:animated" ).stop(); if ( idPreviousClick === $(this)[0].id) { } else { if (idPreviousClick != -1) { $("#"+idPreviousClick).css({height:'100px', width:'100px', top:'0', 'line-height': '100px'}); $("#"+idPreviousClick).parent().css({height:'100px', width:'100px', top:'0'}); } $(this).animate({height:'120px', width:'120px', 'line-height': '120px'}); $(this).parent().animate({height:'120px', width:'120px', top:'-10px'}); idPreviousClick = $(this)[0].id; } }); } $(document).ready(function(){ clickEvent(); }); var idPreviousClick = -1; http://jsfiddle.net/rC632/embedded/result/ Could you have any idea of what is missing ? Thanks

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• XamlWriter fails to serialize objects in WinForms app

  - by Eddie

  Apparently XamlWriter doesn't works correctly in a WinForms application. XamlWriter uses MarkupWriter.GetMarkupObjectFor(object obj). I suppose that there's a problem to determine the full list of properties to serialize. var ar = new AssemblyReference(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies().First()); var str = XamlWriter.Save(ar); Running an ASP.NET or WPF application I got this result: <AssemblyReference AssemblyName="mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" HintPath="file:///c:/WINDOWS/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/mscorlib.dll" SpecificVersion="False" xmlns="clr-namespace:Ivolutia.TypeModel;assembly=ivoTypeModel" /> But running the same code in a WinForms application I got this: <AssemblyReference xmlns="clr-namespace:Ivolutia.TypeModel;assembly=ivoTypeModel" /> this is the class definition: public class AssemblyReference : DependencyObject { public string AssemblyName { get; set; } public string HintPath { get; set; } public bool SpecificVersion { get; set; } public AssemblyReference() { } public AssemblyReference(Assembly assembly) { AssemblyName = assembly.FullName; HintPath = assembly.CodeBase; } public override string ToString() { return AssemblyName; } }

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• ASP.NET Chart Control errors in Event Viewer

  - by Richard Reddy

  Hi, I have been using the ASP.NET chart controls for a while on win2k3 (32bit) setups without any issue but have noticed that on our new win2k8 (64bit) box I am getting a warning message showing up in the event viewer from the chart control. In my web.config file I have the following tag telling the Chart Control where I can store the Temp Files: <add key="ChartImageHandler" value="storage=file;timeout=20;dir=c:\TempImageFiles\;" /> Below is the warning message produced by the control: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event time (UTC): 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event ID: 237c3b208962429e8bbc5a48ffd177f0 Event sequence: 2860 Event occurrence: 26 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT-1-128993655360497729 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: C:\data\sites\mydomain.com\ Machine name: 231692-WEB Process information: Process ID: 4068 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ArgumentException Exception message: The image is not found. Request information: Request URL: http://www.mydomain.com/ChartImg.axd?i=chart%5F0%5F3.png&g=bccc8aa11abb470980c60e8cf1e71e15 Request path: /ChartImg.axd User host address: my domain ip User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.ProcessSavedChartImage(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) It's worth pointing out that ALL of the chart images are displayed correctly on the screen so I'm not sure when/where the image not found error is being caused. Is this a 64bit issue? Thanks, Rich

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• Perl OO frameworks and program design - Moose and Conway's inside-out objects (Class::Std)

  - by Emmel

  This is more of a use-case type of question... but also generic enough to be more broadly applicable: In short, I'm working on a module that's more or less a command-line wrapper; OO naturally. Without going into too many details (unless someone wants them), there isn't a crazy amount of complexity to the system, but it did feel natural to have three or four objects in this framework. Finally, it's an open source thing I'll put out there, rather than a module with a few developers in the same firm working on it. First I implemented the OO using Class::Std, because Perl Best Practices (Conway, 2005) made a good argument for why to use inside-out objects. Full control over what attributes get accessed and so on, proper encapsulation, etc. Also his design is surprisingly simple and clever. I liked it, but then noticed that no one really uses this; in fact it seems Conway himself doesn't really recommend this anymore? So I moved to everyone's favorite, Moose. It's easy to use, although way way overkill feature-wise for what I want to do. The big, major downside is: it's got a slew of module dependencies that force users of my module to download them all. A minor downside is it's got way more functionality than I really need. What are recommendations? Inconvenience fellow developers by forcing them to use a possibly-obsolete module, or force every user of the module to download Moose and all its dependencies? Is there a third option for a proper Perl OO framework that's popular but neither of these two?

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• Looped jQuery slideshow with smooth cross-fades

  - by artlung

  I'm trying to do a simple rotating image on the home page. Under the hood I'm reading a directory and then populating urls for the images into an array. What I want to do is cross-fade the images. If it was just a matter of showing the next one, it's easy, but since I need to cross-fade, it's a bit harder. I think what I want to do is do the fades by calling animate() on the opacity value of the <img> tag, and in between swapping out the css background-image property of the enclosing <div>. But the results are not that great. I've used tools for more full featured slideshows, but I don't want the overhead of adding a plugin if I can avoid it, and a simple crossfade seems like it should be easier. Here's my JavaScript (I'm using jQuery 1.3.2): var slideshow_images = ["http:\/\/example.com\/wordpress\/wp-content\/themes\/testtheme\/sidebar-home-bg\/bg1.jpg","http:\/\/example.com\/wordpress\/wp-content\/themes\/testtheme\/sidebar-home-bg\/bg2.jpg","http:\/\/example.com\/wordpress\/wp-content\/themes\/testtheme\/sidebar-home-bg\/bg3.jpg"]; var slideshow_index = 0; var delay = 4000; var swapSlides = function() { var slideshow_count = slideshow_images.length; // initialize the background to be the current image $('#home-slideshow').css({ 'background-image': 'url(' + slideshow_images[slideshow_index] + ')', 'background-repeat:': 'no-repeat', 'width': 200, 'overflow': 'hidden' }); slideshow_index = ((slideshow_index + 1) == slideshow_count) ? 0 : slideshow_index + 1; // fade out the img $('#home-slideshow img').animate({opacity: 0}, delay); // now, the background is visible // next change the url on the img $('#home-slideshow img').attr('src', slideshow_images[slideshow_index]); // and fade it up $('#home-slideshow img').animate({opacity: 1.0}, delay); // do it again setTimeout('swapSlides()', 4000); } jQuery(document).ready(function(){ if (swapSlides) { swapSlides(); } }); And here's the markup I'm using: <div id="home-slideshow"><img src="http://example.com/wordpress/wp-content/themes/testtheme/sidebar-home-bg/bg1.jpg" alt="" /></div>

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• Low Latency Serial Communications In .Net

  - by bvillersjr

  I have been researching various third party libraries and approaches to low latency serial communications in .Net. I've read enough that I have now come full circle and know as little as I did when I started due to the variety of conflicting opinions. For example, the functionality in the Framework was ruled out due to some convincing articles stating: "that the Microsoft provided solution has not been stable across framework versions and is lacking in functionality." I have found articles bashing many of the older COM based libraries. I have found articles bashing the idea of a low latency .Net app as a whole due to garbage collection. I have also read articles demonstrating how P/Invoking Windows API functionality for the purpose of low latency communication is unacceptable. THIS RULES OUT JUST ABOUT ANY APPROACH I CAN THINK OF! I would really appreciate some words from those with been there / done that experience. Ideally, I could locate a solid library / partner and not have to build the communications library myself. I have the following simple objectives: Sustained low latency serial communication in C# / VB.Net 32/64 bit Well documented (if the solution is 3rd party) Relatively unimpacted (communication and latency wise) by garbage collection . Flexible (I have no idea what I will have to interface with in the future!) The only requirement that I have for certain is that I need to be able to interface with many different industrial devices such as RS485 based linear actuators, serial / microcontroller based gauges, and ModBus (also RS485) devices. Any comments, ideas, thoughts or links to articles that may iron out my confusion are much appreciated!

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• Need advice on OOP philosophy

  - by David Jenings

  I'm trying to get the wheels turning on a large project in C#. My previous experience is in Delphi, where by default every form was created at applicaton startup and form references where held in (gasp) global variables. So I'm trying to adapt my thinking to a 100% object oriented environment, and my head is spinning just a little. My app will have a large collection of classes Most of these classes will only really need one instance. So I was thinking: static classes. I'm not really sure why, but much of what I've read here says that if my class is going to hold a state, which I take to mean any property values at all, I should use a singleton structure instead. Okay. But there are people out there who for reasons that escape me, think that singletons are evil too. None of these classes is in danger of being used anywhere except in this program. So they could certainly work fine as regular objects (vs singletons or static classes) Then there's the issue of interaction between objects. I'm tempted to create a Global class full of public static properties referencing the single instances of many of these classes. I've also considered just making them properties (static or instance, not sure which) of the MainForm. Then I'd have each of my classes be aware of the MainForm as Owner. Then the various objects could refer to each other as Owner.Object1, Owner.Object2, etc. I fear I'm running out of electronic ink, or at least taxing the patience of anyone kind enough to have stuck with me this long. I hope I have clearly explained my state of utter confusion. I'm just looking for some advice on best practices in my situation. All input is welcome and appreciated. Thanks in advance, David Jennings

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• Flex: How to resize DisplayObject to fit panel in Flex application

  - by ohm

  I am trying to attach some of my actionscript class, inherited from Sprite, to my Flex application by attaching it to a UIComponent, then add UIComponent to a panel. However, the size of my Sprite class appears to be larger than the panel. So, I try to resize it using DisplayObject.scale property, but I need to know the size of my container. Since I try to make my code reusable, I figure that I should let my Sprite class handle the resize by getting it via its parent property (let's say, I can resize it by set this.scaleX = this.parent.Width/this.width or something like this) However, my Sprite class's parent, which is the UIComponent, has width/height of 0. So, my question is: 1) Is there any better way to resize DisplayObject class to fit its container when attached to Flex object? 2) If you know, why my UIComponent's size remain 0 and my DisplayObject still appears at its full size? Here's my code, using Flash Builder 4: private var loader:Loader = new Loader(); private function testLoader():void { var urlRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/welcome.png"); loader.load(urlRequest); loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,onLoaderLoadComplete); } private function onLoaderLoadComplete(e:Event):void { loader.contentLoaderInfo.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,onLoaderLoadComplete); var ui : UIComponent = new UIComponent(); ui.addChild(loader); panelTest.addElement(ui); trace("ui.width = " + ui.width); trace("ui.height = " + ui.height); trace("loader.width = " + loader.width); trace("loader.height = " + loader.height); trace("panelTest.width = " + panelTest.width); trace("panelTest.height = " + panelTest.height); } And this is the result when run: ui.width = 0 ui.height = 0 loader.width = 571 loader.height = 411 panelTest.width = 480 panelTest.height = 320

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• ASP.NET MVC Image refreshing

  - by user295541

  Hi, I have an Employee object which has an image property. Image class contains image metadata as image caption, and image file name. If I upload a new image for an employee on async way without full post back the new image is not appeared on the page. I use GUID to name the image file to avoid the page caching. I do the image modifying the following way: ctrEmployee employee = Repository.Get(PassedItemID); if (employee.ctrImage != null) { string fullFileName = serverFolder + employee.ctrImage.FileName; FileInfo TheFile = new FileInfo(fullFileName); if (TheFile.Exists) { TheFile.Delete(); } fileName = Guid.NewGuid() + ".jpg"; employee.ctrImage.FileName = fileName; } resizedBmp.Save(string.Format("{0}{1}", serverFolder, fileName), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); Repository.Edit<ctrEmployee>(employee); ImageID = employee.Image.Value; return PartialView(UserControlPaths.Thumbnail, new ThumbnailDataModel(employee.Image.Value, 150, 150)); The partial view has an image tag which gets the saved image url string which is a GUID. Anybody has an idea what I do wrong?

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• Problem using Hibernate Projections

  - by Lucas

  Hello! I'm using Richfaces + HibernateQuery to create a data list. I'm trying to use Hibernate Projections to group my query result. Here is the code: final DetachedCriteria criteria = DetachedCriteria .forClass(Class.class, "c") .setProjection(Projections.projectionList() .add(Projections.groupProperty("c.id"))); ... in the .xhtml file i have the following code: <rich:dataTable width="100%" id="dataTable" value="#{myBean.dataModel}" var="row"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> ...... </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{row.id}"/> </h:column> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{row.name}"/> </h:column> But when i run the page it gives me the following error: Error: value="#{row.id}": The class 'java.lang.Long' does not have the property 'id'. If i take out the Projection from the code it works correctly, but it doesn't group the result. So, which mistake could be happening here? EDIT: Here is the full criteria: final DetachedCriteria criteria = DetachedCriteria.forClass(Class.class, "c"); criteria.setFetchMode("e.zzzzz", FetchMode.JOIN); criteria.createAlias("e.aaaaaaaa", "aa"); criteria.add(Restrictions.ilike("aa.information", "informations....")); criteria.setProjection(Projections.distinct(Projections.projectionList() .add(Projections.groupProperty("e.id").as("e.id")))); getDao().findByCriteria(criteria); if i take the "setProjection" line it works fine. I don't understand why it gives that error putting that line.

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• I set up better-edit-in-place but still cannot edit in place in Rails

  - by Angela

  I installed the plugin better-edit-in-place (http://github.com/nakajima/better-edit-in-place) but I dont' seem to be able to make it work. When I use firebug, it is rendering the value to be edited correctly: <span rel="/emails/1" id="email_1_days" class="editable">7</span> And it is showing the full javascript which should work on class editable: var Editable = Class.create({ 5 initialize: function(element, options) { 6 this.element = $(element); 7 Object.extend(this, options); 8 9 // Set default values for options 10 this.editField = this.editField || {}; 11 this.editField.type = this.editField.type || 'input'; 12 this.onLoading = this.onLoading || Prototype.emptyFunction; 13 this.onComplete = this.onComplete || Prototype.emptyFunction; 14 15 this.field = this.parseField(); 16 this.value = this.element.innerHTML; 17 18 this.setupForm(); 19 this.setupBehaviors(); 20 }, 21 22 // In order to parse the field correctly, it's necessary that the element 23 // you want to edit in place for have an id of (model_name)_(id)_(field_name). 24 // For example, if you want to edit the "caption" field in a "Photo" model, 25 // your id should be something like "photo_#{@photo.id}_caption". 26 // If you want to edit the "comment_body" field in a "MemberBlogPost" model, 27 // it would be: "member_blog_post_#{@member_blog_post.id}_comment_body" 28 parseField: function() { 29 var matches = this.element.id.match(/(.*)_\d*_(.*)/); 30 this.modelName = matches[1]; 31 this.fieldName = matches[2]; 32 if (this.editField.foreignKey) this.fieldName += '_id'; 33 return this.modelName + '[' + this.fieldName + ']'; 34 }, But when I point my mouse at the element, no in-place-editing action!

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• Is there a more useful explanation for UITableViewStylePlain?

  - by mystify

  From the docs: In the plain style, section headers and footers float above the content if the part of a complete section is visible. A table view can have an index that appears as a bar on the right hand side of the table (for example, "a" through "z"). You can touch a particular label to jump to the target section. I find that very hard to grasp. First, this one: if the part of a complete section is visible What do they mean by this? This is paradox. Which one is it? A) Table must be exactly the height of that section. If I have 5 Rows, and each row is 50px high, I must make it 5*50 high. The full section must be visible on the screen. Otherwise, if I have 100 rows but my table view is only 400 high, this will not apply. Nothing will float above my content. Sounds wrong. B) It doesn't matter how high my table view actually is. Header and Footer is floating above the content and I can scroll the section. Makes more sense. But is completely against this nonsense making sentence: 'if the part of a complete section is visible' Can anyone explain it better than they did?

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• The RSA key container could not be opened

  - by TenaciousImpy

  Hi, I've been developing an ASP.NET site on an older machine running XP home. I recently got a new Win 7 PC and moved all my project files across. When I try and run the project, I get this error message: "Failed to decrypt using provider 'MyRsaProtectedConfigurationProvider'. Error message from the provider: The RSA key container could not be opened." I realised that I encrypted parts of my web.config file using a RSA encryption. This is where the problem now lies. I'm not sure how to get that key working again so that I can use it on my new machine. I exported the key from the older machine and imported it using: aspnet_regiis -pi "RSAProviderName" "C:\RSA_configkey.xml" This was imported successfully. I then ran the project, but the same error message came up. I figured it might be a permission thing, so I ran: aspnet_regiis -pa "RSAProviderName" "\Desktop" -full This was also successful, but I still get the error. From reading around, I've seen people use "ASPNET" instead of "\Desktop" (Desktop is my machine name). However, when I try and use "ASPNET", I get: No mapping between account name and security IDs was done. <Exception from HRESULT = 0x80070534 I can't work on the project until this is fixed, so any help is much appreciated. Thanks!

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• Subsonic - How to use SQL Schema / Owner name as part of the namespace?

  - by CResults

  Hi there, I've just started using Subsonic 2.2 and so far very impressed - think it'll save me some serious coding time. Before I dive into using it full time though there is something bugging me that I'd like to sort out. In my current database (a SQL2008 db) I have split the tables, views, sps etc. up into separate chunks by schema/owner name, so all the customer tables are in the customer. schema, products in the product. schema etc., so a to select from the customers address table i'd do a select * from customer.address Unfortunately, Subsonic ignores the schema/owner name and just gives me the base table name. This is fine as I've no duplicates between schemas (e.g Customer.Address and Supplier.Address don't both exist) but I just feel the code could be clearer if I could split by schema. Ideally I'd like to be able to alter the namespace by schema/owner - I think this would have least impact on SubSonic yet make the resulting code easier to read. Problem is, I've crawled all over the Subsonic source and don't have a clue how to do this (doesn't help that I code in VB not C# = yes I know, blame the ZX Spectrum!!) If anyone has tackled this before or has an idea on how to solve it, I'd be really grateful, Thanks in advance. Ed

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• Algorithm to match list of regular expressions

  - by DSII

  I have two algorithmic questions for a project I am working on. I have thought about these, and have some suspicions, but I would love to hear the community's input as well. Suppose I have a string, and a list of N regular expressions (actually they are wildcard patterns representing a subset of full regex functionality). I want to know whether the string matches at least one of the regular expressions in the list. Is there a data structure that can allow me to match the string against the list of regular expressions in sublinear (presumably logarithmic) time? This is an extension of the previous problem. Suppose I have the same situation: a string and a list of N regular expressions, only now each of the regular expressions is paired with an offset within the string at which the match must begin (or, if you prefer, each of the regular expressions must match a substring of the given string beginning at the given offset). To give an example, suppose I had the string: This is a test string and the regex patterns and offsets: (a) his.* at offset 0 (b) his.* at offset 1 The algorithm should return true. Although regex (a) does not match the string beginning at offset 0, regex (b) does match the substring beginning at offset 1 ("his is a test string"). Is there a data structure that can allow me to solve this problem in sublinear time? One possibly useful piece of information is that often, many of the offsets in the list of regular expressions are the same (i.e. often we are matching the substring at offset X many times). This may be useful to leverage the solution to problem #1 above. Thank you very much in advance for any suggestions you may have!

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• Automate the signature of the update.rdf manifest for my firefox extension

  - by streetpc

  Hello, I'm developing a firefox extension and I'd like to provide automatic update to my beta-testers (who are not tech-savvy). Unfortunately, the update server doesn't provide HTTPS. According to the Extension Developer Guide on signing updates, I have to sign my update.rdf and provide an encoded public key in the install.rdf. There is the McCoy tool to do all of this, but it is an interactive GUI tool and I'd like to automate the extension packaging using an Ant script (as this is part of a much bigger process). I can't find a more precise description of what's happening to sign the update.rdf manifest than below, and McCoy source is an awful lot of javascript. The doc says: The add-on author creates a public/private RSA cryptographic key pair. The public part of the key is DER encoded and then base 64 encoded and added to the add-on's install.rdf as an updateKey entry. (...) Roughly speaking the update information is converted to a string, then hashed using a sha512 hashing algorithm and this hash is signed using the private key. The resultant data is DER encoded then base 64 encoded for inclusion in the update.rdf as an signature entry. I don't know well about DER encoding, but it seems like it needs some parameters. So would anyone know either the full algortihm to sign the update.rdf and install.rdf using a predefined keypair, or a scriptable alternative to McCoy whether a command-line tool like asn1coding will suffise a good/simple developer tutorial on DER encoding

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• Help! I've learned jQuery... now I want to learn JavaScript

  - by Derek Adair

  I am a self-taught web developer/programmer. I started out about two years ago by learning how to make simple dynamic websites with HTML/CSS/PHP. Then I started dabbling with animation... Enter jQuery I've become quite proficient with jQuery over the last year and I've even started making my own plugins. I've spent most of my effort learning how to beautify websites with fancy effects and what not. Upon tackling my first full-blown application, I realized how under-developed my knowledge of JavaScript actually is. jQuery has allowed me to rely on its framework so heavily that I rarely use any interesting functions, techniques, or whatever that are 'native' to the JavaScript language. For example: I have a basic understanding of what a closure is... but I am unsure where this technique can actually benefit me. Although as I understand it, that's what my jQuery plugins do with (function ($){//plugin code here})(jQuery). I've seen many posts/blogs/whatever about memory leaks and circular references which is concerning. I'm frustrated because I can wrap my head around the basic concepts of what these are just by reading the articles, but I'm finding that the deeper I go the more I don't understand. The vocabulary alone is burdensome. Let alone how to actually use these techniques/functions/language features. I am trying to figure out what I don't know I'm looking to gather any advice, techniques, articles, books, videos, snippets, examples, potential pitfalls... really anything you have regarding application development with JavaScript/jQuery.

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• Python fit polynomial, power law and exponential from data

  - by Nadir

  I have some data (x and y coordinates) coming from a study and I have to plot them and to find the best curve that fits data. My curves are: polynomial up to 6th degree; power law; and exponential. I am able to find the best fit for polynomial with while(i < 6): coefs, val = poly.polyfit(x, y, i, full=True) and I take the degree that minimizes val. When I have to fit a power law (the most probable in my study), I do not know how to do it correctly. This is what I have done. I have applied the log function to all x and y and I have tried to fit it with a linear polynomial. If the error (val) is lower than the others polynomial tried before, I have chosen the power law function. Am I correct? Now how can I reconstruct my power law starting from the line y = mx + q in order to draw it with the original points? I need also to display the function found. I have tried with: def power_law(x, m, q): return q * (x**m) using x_new = np.linspace(x[0], x[-1], num=len(x)*10) y1 = power_law(x_new, coefs[0], coefs[1]) popt, pcov = curve_fit(power_law, x_new, y1) but it seems not to work well.

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• Databinding problem in dropdownlist box by generics in C#

  - by sakir-ali

  I want to implement stack in my program by Genericx. I have a textbox and button to add elements in stack, a dropdownlist box and a button to bind total stack in dropdownlist box. I have generic class and the code is below: [Serializable] public class myGenClass<T> { private T[] _elements; private int _pointer; public myGenClass(int size) { _elements = new T[size]; _pointer = 0; } public void Push(T item) { if (_pointer > _elements.Length - 1) { throw new Exception("Stack is full"); } _elements[_pointer] = item; _pointer++; } public T Pop() { _pointer--; if (_pointer < 0) { throw new Exception("Stack is empty"); } return _elements[_pointer]; } public T[] myBind() { T[] showall = new T[_pointer]; Array.Copy(_elements,showall, _pointer); T[] newarray = showall; Array.Reverse(showall); return showall; } } and my .cs page is below: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { myGenClass<int> mystack = new myGenClass<int>(25); protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { mystack.Push(Int32.Parse(TextBox1.Text)); //DropDownList1.Items.Add(mystack.Pop().ToString()); TextBox1.Text = string.Empty; TextBox1.Focus(); } protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //string[] db; //db = Array.ConvertAll<int, string>(mystack.myBind(), Convert.ToString); DropDownList1.DataSource = mystack.myBind(); DropDownList1.DataBind(); } } but when I bind the datasource property of dropdownlist box to generic type return array (i.e. myBind()), it shows empty... Please help..

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• EJB3 Entity and Lazy Problem

  - by Stefano

  My Entity beAN have 2 list: @Entity @Table(name = "TABLE_INTERNAL") public class Internal implements java.io.Serializable { ...SOME GETTERS AND SETTERS... private List<Match> matchs; private List<Regional> regionals; } mapped one FetchType.LAZY and one FetchType.EAGER : @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.LAZY,mappedBy = "internal") public List<Match> getMatchs() { return matchs; } public void setMatchs(List<Match> matchs) { this.matchs = matchs; } @ManyToMany(targetEntity = Regional.class, mappedBy = "internals", fetch =FetchType.EAGER) public List<Regional> getRegionals() { return regionals; } public void setRegionals(List<Regional> regionals) { this.regionals = regionals; } I need both lists full ! But I cant put two FetchType.EAGER beacuse it's an error. I try some test: List<Internal> out; out= em.createQuery("from Internal").getResultList(); out= em.createQuery("from Internal i JOIN FETCH i.regionals ").getResultList(); I'm not able to fill both lists...Help!!! Stefano

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