Search Results

Search found 12537 results on 502 pages for 'solid state'.

Page 428/502 | < Previous Page | 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435  | Next Page >

  • How deserealizing JSON with GSON

    - by loko
    I have one result of APPI http://developer.yahoo.com/geo/placefinder/guide/examples.html, I need to deserealizing the result JSON of example only with GSON http://where.yahooapis.com/geocode?location=San+Francisco,+CA&flags=J&appid=yourappid But i dont now have to do the class for deserealizing one JSON with array This is the reponse: {"ResultSet": {"version":"1.0", "Error":0, "ErrorMessage":"No error", "Locale":"en_US", "Quality":40, "Found":1, "Results":[ {"quality":40, "latitude":"37.779160", "longitude":"-122.420049", "offsetlat":"37.779160", "offsetlon":"-122.420049", "radius":5000, "name":"", "line1":"", "line2":"San Francisco, CA", "line3":"", "line4":"United States", "house":"", "street":"", "xstreet":"", "unittype":"", "unit":"", "postal":"", "neighborhood":"", "city":"San Francisco", "county":"San Francisco County", "state":"California", "country":"United States", "countrycode":"US", "statecode":"CA", "countycode":"", "uzip":"94102", "hash":"C1D313AD706E3B3C", "woeid":12587707, "woetype":9}] } } Im trying to deserealizing of this way but i couldn´t do that, please help me to do the correct class to get the JSON with GSON. public class LocationAddress { private ResultSet resultset; public static class ResultSet{ private String version; private String Error; private String ErrorMessage; private List<Results> results; } public static class Results{ private String quality; private String latitude; private String longitude; public String getQuality() { return quality; } public void setQuality(String quality) { this.quality = quality; } public String getLatitude() { return latitude; } public void setLatitude(String latitude) { this.latitude = latitude; } public String getLongitude() { return longitude; } public void setLongitude(String longitude) { this.longitude = longitude; } } }

    Read the article

  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Custom Solr sorting

    - by Tom
    Hello everyone, I've been asked to do an evaluation of Solr as an alternative for a commercial search engine. The application now has a very particular way of sorting results using something called "buckets". I'll try to explain with a bit of details: In the interface they have 2 fields: "what" and "where". Both fields are actually sets of fields (what = category, name, contact info... and where= country, state, region, city...) so the copyfield feature of Solr immediately comes to mind. Now based on the field generated the actual match the result should end up in a specific bucket. In particular the first bucket contains all the result documents that have an exact match on the category field, in the second bucket all exact matches on name, the third partial matches on category, the fourth partial matches on name, the fifth matches on contact info etc... Then within each of those first tier buckets all results are placed in second tier buckets depending on what location was matched: city, then region, then province and so on. To even complicate things more there is also a third tier bucket where results are placed according to the value of a ranking field: all documents with the value 1 in the ranking field go in bucket 1 and so on. And finally results should be randomized in the third tier bucket... On top of this they obviously want support for facets and paging. My apologies for the long mail but I would greatly appreciate feedback and/or suggestions. I'm aware that this that this is a very particular problem but everything that points me in the right direction is helpful. Cheers, Tom

    Read the article

  • Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

    Read the article

  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

    Read the article

  • Show/hide text based on optgroup selection using Jquery

    - by general exception
    I have the following HTML markup:- <select name="Fault" class="textbox" id="fault"> <option>Single Light Out</option> <option>Light Dim</option> <option>Light On In Daytime</option> <option>Erratic Operating Times</option> <option>Flashing/Flickering</option> <option>Causing Tv/Radio Interference</option> <option>Obscured By Hedge/Tree Branches</option> <option>Bracket Arm Needs Realigning</option> <option>Shade/Cover Missing</option> <option>Column In Poor Condition</option> <option>Several Lights Out (please state how many)</option> <option>Column Leaning</option> <option>Door Missing/Wires Exposed</option> <option>Column Knocked Down/Traffic Accident</option> <option>Lantern Or Bracket Broken Off/Hanging On Wires</option> <option>Shade/Cover Hanging Open</option> </select> <span id="faulttext" style="color:Red; display:none">Text in the span</span> This Jquery snippet adds the last 5 options into an option group. $('#fault option:nth-child(n+12)').wrapAll('<optgroup label="Urgent Reasons">'); What I want to do is, remove the display:none if any of the items within the <optgroup> are selected, effectively displaying the span message, possibly with a fade in transition, and also hide the message if any options outside of the <optgroup> are selected.

    Read the article

  • [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

    - by Juliet
    You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

    Read the article

  • Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

    - by jpierson
    I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

    Read the article

  • Access DB Transaction Insert limit

    - by user986363
    Is there a limit to the amount of inserts you can do within an Access transaction before you need to commit or before Access/Jet throws an error? I'm currently running the following code in hopes to determine what this maximum is. OleDbConnection cn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\temp\myAccessFile.accdb;Persist Security Info=False;"); try { cn.Open(); oleCommand = new OleDbCommand("BEGIN TRANSACTION", cn); oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); oleCommand.CommandText = "insert into [table1] (name) values ('1000000000001000000000000010000000000000')"; for (i = 0; i < 25000000; i++) { oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } oleCommand.CommandText = "COMMIT"; oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception ex) { } finally { try { oleCommand.CommandText = "COMMIT"; oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch{} if (cn.State != ConnectionState.Closed) { cn.Close(); } } The error I received on a production application when I reached 2,333,920 inserts in a single uncommited transaction was: "File sharing lock count exceeded. Increase MaxLocksPerFile registry entry". Disabling transactions fixed this problem.

    Read the article

  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using application roles with DataReader

    - by Shahar
    I have an application that should use an application role from the database. I'm trying to make this work with queries that are actually run using Subsonic (2). To do this, I created my own DataProvider, which inherits from Subsonic's SqlDataProvider. It overrides the CreateConnection function, and calls sp_appsetrole to set the application role after the connection is created. This part works fine, and I'm able to get data using the application role. The problem comes when I try to unset the application role. I couldn't find any place in the code where my provider is called after the query is done, so I tried to add my own, by changing SubSonic code. The problem is that Subsonic uses a data reader. It loads data from the data reader, and then closes it. If I unset the application role before the data reader is closed, I get an error saying: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. If I unset the application role after the data reader is closed, I get an error saying ExecuteNonQuery requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is closed. I can't seem to find a way to close the data reader without closing the connection.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

    Read the article

  • How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

    - by user1277160
    Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Node & Redis: Crucial Design Issues in Production Mode

    - by Ali
    This question is a hybrid one, being both technical and system design related. I'm developing the backend of an application that will handle approx. 4K request per second. We are using Node.js being super fast and in terms of our database struction we are using MongoDB, with Redis being a layer between Node and MongoDB handling volatile operations. I'm quite stressed because we are expecting concurrent requests that we need to handle carefully and we are quite close to launch. However I do not believe I've applied the correct approach on redis. I have a class Student, and they constantly change stages(such as 'active', 'doing homework','in lesson' etc. Thus I created a Redis DB for each state. (1 for being 'active', 2 for being 'doing homework'). Above I have the structure of the 'active' students table; xa5p - JSON stringified object #1 pQrW - JSON stringified object #2 active_student_table - {{studentId:'xa5p'}, {studentId:'pQrW'}} Since there is no 'select all keys method' in Redis, I've been suggested to use a set such that when I run command 'smembers' I receive the keys and later on do 'get' for each id in order to find a specific user (lets say that age older than 15). I've been also suggested that in fact I used never use keys in production mode. My question is, no matter how 'conceptual' it is, what specific things I should avoid doing in Node & Redis in production stage?. Are they any issues related to my design? Students must be objects and I sure can list them in a list but I haven't done yet. Is it that crucial in production stage?

    Read the article

  • How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

    - by Decker
    I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

    Read the article

  • Image insert problem php sqlserver

    - by Termedi
    Hi I can not save image inside a sql server 2000 database. datatype is image here is the code: // Image Upload <?php include('config.php'); if(is_uploaded_file($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'])) { $fileName = $_FILES['userfile']['name']; $tmpName = $_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name']; $fileSize = $_FILES['userfile']['size']; $fileType = $_FILES['userfile']['type']; $size = filesize($tmpName); set_magic_quotes_runtime(0);//to desactive the default escape spacials caracters made by PHP in the externes files $img_binaire = base64_encode(fread(fopen(str_replace("'","''",$tmpName), "r"), $size)); $query = "INSERT INTO test_image (image_name, image_content, image_size) ". "VALUES ('{$fileName}','{$img_binaire}', '{$size}')"; odbc_exec($conn, $query) or die('Error, query failed'); echo "<br>File $fileName uploaded<br>"; echo "<br>File Size: $fileSize <br>"; } ?> // Image Show <?php include('config.php'); $sql = "select * from test_image where id =2"; $rsl = odbc_exec($conn, $sql); $image_info = odbc_fetch_array($rsl); //$count = sizeof($image_info['image_content']); //header('Accept-Ranges: bytes'); //header('Content-Length: '.$image_info['image_size']); //header("Content-length: 17397"); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); echo base64_decode($image_info['image_content']); //echo bindec($image_info['image_content']); ?> Error: Warning: odbc_exec() [function.odbc-exec]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Operand type clash: text is incompatible with image, SQL state 22005 in SQLExecDirect in C:\xampp\htdocs\test\upload.php on line 25 Error, query failed

    Read the article

  • [C#]Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being apdated frequently bey some services. I have a c# Winform Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

    Read the article

  • How to move point on arc?

    - by bbZ
    I am writing an app that is simulating RobotArm movement. What I want to achieve, and where I have couple of problems is moving a Point on arc (180degree) that is arm range of movement. I am moving an arm by grabbing with mouse end of arm (Elbow, the Point I was talking about), robot can have multiple arms with diffrent arm lenghts. If u can help me with this part, I'd be grateful. This is what I have so far, drawing function: public void draw(Graphics graph) { Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D) graph.create(); graph.setColor(color); graph.fillOval(location.x - 4, location.y - 4, point.width, point.height); //Draws elbow if (parentLocation != null) { graph.setColor(Color.black); graph.drawLine(location.x, location.y, parentLocation.x, parentLocation.y); //Connects to parent if (arc == null) { angle = new Double(90 - getAngle(parentInitLocation)); arc = new Arc2D.Double(parentLocation.x - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentLocation.y - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentDistance * 2, parentDistance * 2, 90 - getAngle(parentInitLocation), 180, Arc2D.OPEN); //Draws an arc if not drawed yet. } else if (angle != null) //if parent is moved, angle is moved also { arc = new Arc2D.Double(parentLocation.x - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentLocation.y - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentDistance * 2, parentDistance * 2, angle, 180, Arc2D.OPEN); } g2d.draw(arc); } if (spacePanel.getElbows().size() > level + 1) {//updates all childElbows position updateChild(graph); } } I just do not know how to prevent moving Point moving outside of arc line. It can not be inside or outside arc, just on it. Here I wanted to put a screenshot, sadly I don't have enough rep. Am I allowed to put link to this? Maybe you got other ways how to achieve this kind of thing. Here is the image: Red circle is actual state, and green one is what I want to do. EDIT2: As requested, repo link: https://github.com/dspoko/RobotArm

    Read the article

  • Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being updated frequently by some services. I have a c# Winforms Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

    Read the article

  • Qt/PyQt dialog with togglable fullscreen mode - problem on Windows

    - by Guard
    I have a dialog created in PyQt. It's purpose and functionality don't matter. The init is: class MyDialog(QWidget, ui_module.Ui_Dialog): def __init__(self, parent=None): super(MyDialog, self).__init__(parent) self.setupUi(self) self.installEventFilter(self) self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Dialog | Qt.WindowTitleHint) self.showMaximized() Then I have event filtering method: def eventFilter(self, obj, event): if event.type() == QEvent.KeyPress: key = event.key() if key == Qt.Key_F11: if self.isFullScreen(): self.setWindowFlags(self._flags) if self._state == 'm': self.showMaximized() else: self.showNormal() self.setGeometry(self._geometry) else: self._state = 'm' if self.isMaximized() else 'n' self._flags = self.windowFlags() self._geometry = self.geometry() self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Tool | Qt.FramelessWindowHint) self.showFullScreen() return True elif key == Qt.Key_Escape: self.close() return QWidget.eventFilter(self, obj, event) As can be seen, Esc is used for dialog hiding, and F11 is used for toggling full-screen. In addition, if the user changed the dialog mode from the initial maximized to normal and possibly moved the dialog, it's state and position are restored after exiting the full-screen. Finally, the dialog is created on the MainWindow action triggered: d = MyDialog(self) d.show() It works fine on Linux (Ubuntu Lucid), but quite strange on Windows 7: if I go to the full-screen from the maximized mode, I can't exit full-screen (on F11 dialog disappears and appears in full-screen mode again). If I change the dialog's mode to Normal (by double-clicking its title), then go to full-screen and then return back, the dialog is shown in the normal mode, in the correct position, but without the title line. Most probably the reason for both cases is the same - the setWindowFlags doesn't work. But why? Is it also possible that it is the bug in the recent PyQt version? On Ubuntu I have 4.6.x from apt, and on Windows - the latest installer from the riverbank site.

    Read the article

  • Pre-populate iPhone Safari SQLite DB

    - by Matt Rogish
    I'm working with a PhoneGap app that uses Safari local storage (SQlite DB) via Javascript: http://developer.apple.com/safari/library/documentation/iPhone/Conceptual/SafariJSDatabaseGuide/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase.html On first load, the app creates the database, tables, and populates the data via a series of INSERT statements. If the user closes the app while this processing is happening, then my app database is left in an inconsistent state. What I prefer to do is deploy the SQLite DB as part of my iTunes App packaging so nothing must be populated at app cold start. However, I'm not sure if that is possible -- all of the google hits for this topic that I can find are referring to the core-data provided SQLite which is not what we're using... If it's not possible, could I wrap the entire thing in a transaction and keep re-trying it when the app is restarted? Failing that, I guess I can create a simple table with one boolean column "is_app_db_loaded?" and set it to true after I've processed all my inserts. But that's really gross... Ideas? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Insert data in an object to a database.

    - by paul
    I am facing the following design/implementation dilemma. I have a class Customer which is below with getters and setters. I would like to insert the value of the Customer into a "Customer" table of a database. But Customer has an address which is of type "Address". How do I go about inserting this field into the database?(I am using sqlite3). I thought of writing a separate table "Address(customerId,doorNo,city,state,country,pinCode)". But I am having second thoughts about generating the primary key(customerId) which should be same for both the "customer" and "Address" table. Sqlite3 faq states that I can do "Integer Primary Key" to use the field to generate an auto number. But if I do that in customer table, I would have to retrieve the same Id to be used in Address table. This kinda looks wrong to me :-?. There should be an elegant method to solve this. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; class Customer { private String id; private String name; private Address address; private Connection connection; private ResultSet resultSet; private PreparedStatement preparedStatement; public void insertToDatabase(){ } } class Address{ private String doorNumber; private String streetName; private String cityName; private String districtName; private String stateName; private String countryName; private long pinCode; }

    Read the article

  • Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

    Read the article

  • asp net jquery popup dialog form in asp:formview

    - by qwebek
    Hi, i have following problem, i am using a popup jquery dialog with asp:formview . the purpose of this popup is for user to enter a hyperlink which is placed then in textbox control in formview the popup dialog div is located outside a formview just after body tag <body style="background-color: #FFFFFF; font-family:Lucida Console;"> <div id="dialog-form" title="sdfdfsdf" style="font-size:14px; "> <form> <fieldset> <label for="link">sdfdf</label> <input type="text" name="sdfsdf" id="link" size="32" /> </fieldset> </form> </div> <form id="form1" runat="server" style="margin-top:50px;" > <div> <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" ....... <InsertItemTemplate> ... <sometextbox ...../> <button id="create-user" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all">Create link</button> ... </InsertItemTemplate> After clicking a button a popup window is shown BUT the page starts to refresh immidiately ((( and ofc popup s hidden after that if relocate the button outside the formview - the page is not refreshed, but i need it in formview.. any ideas what to do?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435  | Next Page >