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• a question related to URL

  - by Robert

  Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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• In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

  - by David

  Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

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• How to Open Multiple PopUp windows with JQuery on form submission (popUps should be relative to form

  - by Ole Jak

  I have A HTML form like this: <form> <fieldset class="ui-widget-content ui-corner-all"> <select id="Streams" class="multiselect ui-widget-content ui-corner-all" multiple="multiple" name="Streams[]"> <option value="35"> Example Name (35)</option> <option value="44"> Example Name (44)</option> <option value="5698"> Example Name (5698)</option> <option value="777"> Example Name (777)</option> <option value="12"> Example Name (12)</option> </select> <input type="submit" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all" name="submitForm" id="submitForm" value="Play Stream from selected URL's!"/> </fieldset> </form> in my JS + HTML page I use JQuery. As you can see I allow user to select multiple Items. I want to open on Submit button click as many popup windows as many Items he selected in a list. Each popUp window should open some url like www.example.com/test.php?id=OPTION_SELECTED . And here I mean by PopUp Window a real browser window. So for each of the selected options I ll get a pop up window whith diferent url. Please Help.

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• Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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• Detaching all entities of T to get fresh data

  - by Goran

  Lets take an example where there are two type of entites loaded: Product and Category, Product.CategoryId - Category.Id. We have available CRUD operations on products (not Categories). If on another screen Categories are updated (or from another user in the network), we would like to be able to reload the Categories, while preserving the context we currently use, since we could be in the middle of editing data, and we do not want changes to be lost (and we cannot depend on saving, since we have incomplete data). Since there is no easy way to tell EF to get fresh data (added, removed and modified), we thought of twp possible ways: 1) Getting products attached to context, and categories detached from context. This would mean that we loose the ability to access Product.Category.Name, which we do sometimes require, so we would need to manually resolve it (example when printing data). 2) detaching / attaching all Categories from current context. Context.ChangeTracker.Entries().Where(x => x.Entity.GetType() == typeof(T)).ForEach(x => x.State = EntityState.Detached); And then reload the categories, which will get fresh data. Do you find any problem with this second approach? We understand that this will require all constraints to be put on foreign keys, and not navigation properties, since when detaching all Categories, Product.Category navigation properties would be reset to null also. Also, there could be a potential performance problem, which we did not test, since there could be couple of thousand products loaded, and all would need to resolve navigation property when reloading. Which of the two do you prefer, and is there a better way (EF6 + .NET 4.0)?

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• What kind of storage with two-way replication for multi site C# application?

  - by twk

  Hi I have a web-based system written using asp.net backed by mssql. A synchronized replica of this system is to be run on mobile locations and must be available regardless of the state of the connection to the main system (few hours long interruptions happens). For now I am using a copy of the main web application and a copy of the mssql server with merge replication to the main system. This works unreliably, and setting the replication is a pain. The amount of data the system contains is not huge, so I can migrate to different storage type. For the new version of this system I would like to implement a new replication system. I am considering migration to db4o for storage with it's replication support. I am thinking about other possible solutions like couchdb which had native replication support. I would like to stay with C#. Could you recommend a way to go for such a distributed environment? PS. Master-Slave replication is not an option: any side must be allowed to add/update data.

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• Really strange problem with jailbroken iPhone 4. Lags but fixes by running Cydia a second

  - by Charkel

  I have jailbreaked my iPhone 4 iOS 4.1 with both limera1n and greenpois0n and the outcome is the same. My phone is really slow opening apps. (including Phone.app an SMS.app) they take about 10-15seconds to load. BUT if I start Cydia for only one second everything goes back to normal. (Please note that I have to have 3G or WI-FI access to do this) Until I let my phone sit for about 15 minutes then it's the same again. Please note that if I don't exit the apps they seem to continue working but with a bit of lag. Cydia also seems to be the only app not affected by the delay. "Loding Data" appears as quick as normal. These issues did not start to appear until about 2 weeks after I jailbreaked my phone. I have tried running "speed test" while it's in its slow state. I start the app and the app loads for like 15 seconds and then the result shows everyhting is good. All green. Since Cydia seems for fix it temporarily i figured it's jailbreak-related and not hardware-related.

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• Question about cloning in Java

  - by devoured elysium

  In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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• Custom Solr sorting

  - by Tom

  Hello everyone, I've been asked to do an evaluation of Solr as an alternative for a commercial search engine. The application now has a very particular way of sorting results using something called "buckets". I'll try to explain with a bit of details: In the interface they have 2 fields: "what" and "where". Both fields are actually sets of fields (what = category, name, contact info... and where= country, state, region, city...) so the copyfield feature of Solr immediately comes to mind. Now based on the field generated the actual match the result should end up in a specific bucket. In particular the first bucket contains all the result documents that have an exact match on the category field, in the second bucket all exact matches on name, the third partial matches on category, the fourth partial matches on name, the fifth matches on contact info etc... Then within each of those first tier buckets all results are placed in second tier buckets depending on what location was matched: city, then region, then province and so on. To even complicate things more there is also a third tier bucket where results are placed according to the value of a ranking field: all documents with the value 1 in the ranking field go in bucket 1 and so on. And finally results should be randomized in the third tier bucket... On top of this they obviously want support for facets and paging. My apologies for the long mail but I would greatly appreciate feedback and/or suggestions. I'm aware that this that this is a very particular problem but everything that points me in the right direction is helpful. Cheers, Tom

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• Ajax with Jsf 1.1 implementation

  - by Rohan Ved

  I am using JSF1.1 in that, have this code_ <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.azureworlds.org" prefix="azure"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://myfaces.apache.org/tomahawk" prefix="x"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.asifqamar.com/jsf/asif" prefix="a"%> ... <x:selectOneMenu value="#{hotelBean.state}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapStates }" /> <x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" /> </x:selectOneMenu> <h:outputText value="City* " /> <x:selectOneMenu id="city" value="#{hotelBean.city}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapCities }" /> </x:selectOneMenu> line x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" is not working , i searched but got JSF1.1 not support for Ajax. then what can i do for this? and i have less knowledge of JS. Thanx

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• NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

  - by Matthew Weiss

  I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

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• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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• Terminate function on System.in .. possible?

  - by Ronald

  I am currently working on a project where I have to make an agent to interact with a server. Each 50ms, the server will receive the last thing I outputted to System.out and send me a new set of lines as a 'state' through the System.in printstream to analyze and send my next message to System.out. Also, if the server receives multiple outputs from me, it only regards the most recent one. .. As for my question: My program originally constructed a tree and then analyzed each leaf node to see which would be optimal, and then waited around for the next input, but I can recursively do a deeper tree search that would make my output 'better' (and again and again to keep returning a better result). Using this and the fact that if the server receives multiple outputs, it only takes the most recent one, I could do each level, print my result and start the next level. But here comes my problem... I can't be stuck in some complex algorithm while I am supposed to receiving the next input as I will then miss it. So I was wondering if there is a way to cancel anything else I am doing when I receive something via System.in and then go back to the beginning of the function and start the search again with the new set of input (and rinse and repeat..) I hope this all makes sense, Thank ye all

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• Really cool way to create custom UITabBar for iPhone app?

  - by ludicco

  Hi, I am doing a lot of researching lately about how to get a different looking with nice effects UITabBar on my iPhone app, but unfortunately I am only finding things on how to replace background color etc. Well, I've checked out this app called Momento which is pretty cool and presents a very slick tabBar: So there are a couple of elements here I would like to ask you guys if you could help me by giving me the right directions on how to get a similar effect :) Arrow above items: as you can see this app has this animated arrow that runs above the selected item with a very smooth animation. Selected Stated of the item's image is not that blue-ish default one neither the default state which displays in a different shade of brown and gray version. nice Items separators with beveled vertical lines. diferrent background image for the tabBar different height for the tabBar At this point after some research I am able to set the height and background image by subclassing UITabBarController but I'm still not sure on how to accomplish the other items specially the first one related to the nice arrow effect. If someone knows about a very good tutorial on how to do this it would be great for clarifying what can or can't be done by subclassing the UITabBarController and specially if can be done in Interface Builder :) I am just starting on this world off app development for iOS so if you could help me on that it would be really appreciated Thanks a lot in advance

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• Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

  - by umesh awasthi

  Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

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• Controls in UIActionSheet are positioning wrong

  - by Dave

  I need to display a pop with a UISwitch and a Done button when user taps on a button and save the state of the switch when the done button in the pop up is tapped. So I use UIActionSheet to do this - sheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Switch Setting" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:nil destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:@"Done", nil]; theSwitch = [[UISwitch alloc] init]; [sheet addSubview:theSwitch]; [sheet showInView:self.view]; - (void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if (buttonIndex == actionSheet.firstOtherButtonIndex) { theSwitch .on? NSLog(@"Switch is on") : NSLog(@"Switch if off"); } } All this works great. I have problem with positioning. Unfortunately, I don't have a screen shot at the moment to post here. But the switch appears at the very top on the same line with the Action Sheet title and then below that is the Done button. Please someone help me how to position the switch below the Title and increase the Action Sheet size so it looks neat. I need this asap. Thanks.

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• Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

  - by swmi

  Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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• Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

  - by jpierson

  I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

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• RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

  - by epitka

  I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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• Hide table rows if Cookie is there

  - by kuswantin

  Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

  - by Decker

  I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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• Passing variable from main to Async class

  - by Bigflow

  Somehow, I can't get this done. This is all what I tried till now: Main: private String myState; public String getState() { return myState; } public void setState(String s) { myState = s; } Async: Main appState = ((Main)getApplicationContext()); String state = appState.getState(); Error: No enclosing instance of the type Main is accessible in scope Tried with Helper(Globals) class. public class Globals extends Application{ private String test= "1"; } Main: private Globals mGlobals; mGlobals = new Globals(); mGlobals.test = "2"; //Do Async thing Async: private Globals mGlobals; mGlobals = new Globals(); print mGlobals.test; // (result is 1, should be 2) Also something else, but don't remember good. Tried alot of things (backspace and del buttons are over-used :p ) But I can't get everything working. Async class doesn't have an activity. Code pasted: http://pastebin.com/ikcsdL1p

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• Checking if a console application is still running using the Process class

  - by Ced

  I'm making an application that will monitor the state of another process and restart it when it stops responding, exits, or throws an error. However, I'm having trouble to make it reliably check if the process (Being a C++ Console window) has stopped responding. My code looks like this: public void monitorserver() { while (true) { server.StartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(textbox_srcdsexe.Text, startstring); server.Start(); log("server started"); log("Monitor started."); while (server.Responding) { if (server.HasExited) { log("server exitted, Restarting."); break; } log("server is running: " + server.Responding.ToString()); Thread.Sleep(1000); } log("Server stopped responding, terminating.."); try { server.Kill(); } catch (Exception) { } } } The application I'm monitoring is Valve's Source Dedicated Server, running Garry's Mod, and I'm over stressing the physics engine to simulate it stopping responding. However, this never triggers the process class recognizing it as 'stopped responding'. I know there are ways to directly query the source server using their own protocol, but i'd like to keep it simple and universal (So that i can maybe use it for different applications in the future). Any help appreciated

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• [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

  - by Juliet

  You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

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• How to vertically align text in a button with a background drawable?

  - by neutrino

  I had a simple button set up with a background image defined like android:background="?attr/button" where ?attr/button was a reference to a simple 9-patch png. Everything worked fine, text in the button was aligned correctly. Then I needed to have a different background for a pressed state of the button. So I changed that to android:background="@drawable/state_button" where @drawable/state_button is an xml with the following states <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- pressed --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- focused --> <item android:drawable="@drawable/button" /> <!-- default --> </selector> And after that I can't align the text properly. If I put android:gravity="center_vertical" the text is drawn about 1/4 of the button height from the top. I double-checked my 9-patch images, everything seems fine with them. And I also tried having regular pngs for the background, it also doesn't change anything.

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