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  • Cocoa's newbie question: is it possible to bind a NSTableView's selection to another tableview's selection?

    - by cocoaOverloaded
    http://img651.imageshack.us/img651/6999/modelsf.jpg Let'say, I've 2 entities in the Core Data's Model file, one being all "transactions" ever done by X company. The "transactions" entity has among other properties, a "DATE" property and a to-one relationship "COMPANY"(specifying the company with which X company has done that particular transaction). The other entity:"companies" of course contains all the companies' info ,with which X company has done transaction. The "companies" entity has a to-many relationships "TRANSACTIONS" which is an inverse relationship to "transactions" entity's "COMPANY" relationship. So within IB, I created a NSTableView(with its own NSArrayController) showing all the transactions on a particular Date (with the help of NSPredicate). Then I create another table view showing the to-many relationship "TRANSACTIONS" of the company of the selected transaction in the first table view(which shows transactions on a particular date). The 2nd table view's NSArrayController binding is like this: ** bind to: "name of the first tableview's controller", Controller Key: selection, Model Key Path:COMPANY.TRANSACTIONS(the to-many relationship in the "companies" entity)** Everythings work fine up to this moment, the 2nd tableview shows all the transactions X company has done with the company of the selected transactions in the 1st table view. But I have a group of textfields showing details of a particular transactions. Binding the these textfields with the controller of the 1st table view(the one showing transactions on a particular date) is pretty straightforward. But what I want to do are: 1/ Look up the transactions on a particular date in the first table view, select any one of them 2/ Then, check all previous transactions of the company of that transaction( selected in the first table view) from the 2nd table view 3/ Select any previous transactions and check the details of the transaction from that group of textfields So naturally I should have bind the textfields' gp to the 2nd table view's controller. But I found the default selected row in the 2nd table view(the one show all previous transactions of a company) wasn't the transaction I've selected in the 1st tableView for a particular date. Of course, i can manually select that transaction in the 2nd table view again.... So I just want to know if it's possible to have the 2nd table view automatically select the transaction according to the transaction I've selected in the 1st table view thr binding?? After hours of googling, I solved the problem by implementing the tableview Delegate protocol: - (void)tableViewSelectionDidChange:(NSNotification *)aNotification { if (["nameOf1stTableView" selectedRow] > -1) { NSArray *objsArray = ["nameOf2ndTableView'sController" arrangedObjects]; for (id obj in objsArray) { if ([[obj valueForKey:@"DATE"] isEqualToDate: ["nameOf1stTableView'sController".selection valueForKey:@"DATE"]]) { ["nameOf2ndTableView" selectRowIndexes:[NSIndexSet indexSetWithIndex:[objsArray indexOfObject:obj]] byExtendingSelection:NO]; } } } } But,this just look too cumbersome... can it be done with binding alone? Thanks in Advance,

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  • Crossthread exception and invokerequired solution doesn't change my control value

    - by Pilouk
    EDIT Solution : Here i'm setting my byref value in each object then i'm running a backgroundworker Private Sub TelechargeFichier() Dim DocManquant As Boolean = False Dim docName As String = "" Dim lg As String = "" Dim telechargementFini As Boolean = False lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1478") prgBar.Maximum = m_listeFichiers.Count For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeFichiers.Count - 1 m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefLabel(lblMessage) m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefPrgbar(prgBar) m_listeThreads.Add(New Thread(AddressOf m_listeFichiers(i).DownloadMe)) Next m_bgWorker = New BackgroundWorker m_bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = True AddHandler m_bgWorker.DoWork, AddressOf DownloadFiles m_bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync() ''Completed 'lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1383") 'Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK End Sub Here is my downloadFiles function : Note that each start will do the downloadMe function see below too Private Sub DownloadFiles(sender As Object, e As DoWorkEventArgs) For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Start() Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Join() Next End Sub I have multiple thread that each will download a ftp file. I would like that each file that have been completed will set a value to a progress bar and a label from my UI thread. For some reason invokerequired never change to false. Here is my little function that start all the thread Private Sub TelechargeFichier() Dim DocManquant As Boolean = False Dim docName As String = "" Dim lg As String = "" Dim telechargementFini As Boolean = False lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1478") prgBar.Maximum = m_listeFichiers.Count For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeFichiers.Count - 1 m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefLabel(lblMessage) m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefPrgbar(prgBar) m_listeThreads.Add(New Thread(AddressOf m_listeFichiers(i).DownloadMe)) Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Start() Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Join() Next 'Completed lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1383") Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK End Sub Here my property that hold the Byref control from the UI thread. This is in my object which content the addressof function that will download the file (DownloadMe) Public Sub Set_ByRefPrgbar(ByRef prgbar As ProgressBar) m_prgBar = prgbar End Sub Public Sub Set_ByRefLabel(ByRef lbl As EasyDeal.Controls.EasyDealLabel3D) m_lblMessage = lbl End Sub Here is the download function : Public Sub DownloadMe() Dim ftpReq As FtpWebRequest Dim ftpResp As FtpWebResponse = Nothing Dim streamInput As Stream Dim fileStreamOutput As FileStream Try ftpReq = CType(WebRequest.Create(EasyDeal.Controls.Common.FTP_CONNECTION & m_downloadFtpPath & m_filename), FtpWebRequest) ftpReq.Credentials = New NetworkCredential(FTP_USER, FTP_PASS) ftpReq.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile ftpResp = ftpReq.GetResponse streamInput = ftpResp.GetResponseStream() fileStreamOutput = New FileStream(m_outputPath, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.ReadWrite) ReadWriteStream(streamInput, fileStreamOutput) Catch ex As Exception 'Au pire la fichier sera pas downloader Finally If ftpResp IsNot Nothing Then ftpResp.Close() End If Dim nomFichier As String = m_displaynameEN If EasyDealChangeLanguage.GetCurrentLanguageTypes = EasyDealChangeLanguage.EnumLanguageType.Francais Then nomFichier = m_displaynameFR End If If m_lblMessage IsNot Nothing Then EasyDealCommon.TH_SetControlText(m_lblMessage, String.Format(EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1479"), nomFichier)) End If If m_prgBar IsNot Nothing Then EasyDealCommon.TH_SetPrgValue(m_prgBar, 1) End If End Try End Sub Here is the crossthread invoke solution function : Public Sub TH_SetControlText(ByVal ctl As Control, ByVal text As String) If ctl.InvokeRequired Then ctl.BeginInvoke(New Action(Of Control, String)(AddressOf TH_SetControlText), ctl, text) Else ctl.Text = text End If End Sub Public Sub TH_SetPrgValue(ByVal prg As ProgressBar, ByVal value As Integer) If prg.InvokeRequired Then prg.BeginInvoke(New Action(Of ProgressBar, Integer)(AddressOf TH_SetPrgValue), prg, value) Else prg.Value += value End If End Sub The problem is the invokerequired never get to false it actually goes in to beginInvoke but never end in the Else section to set the value.

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  • How to replace an object in an NSMutableArray at a given index with a new object

    - by shakeelw
    Hi guys. I have an NSMutableArray object(retained, synthesized as all) that is initiated just fine and I can easily add objects to it using the 'addObject:' method. But if I want to replace an object at a certain index with a new one in that NSMutableArray, it doesn't work. For example: ClassA.h @interface ClassA : NSObject { NSMutableArray *list; } @property (nonatomic, copy, readwrite) NSMutableArray *list; end ClassA.m import "ClassA.h" @implementation ClassA @synthesize list; (id)init { [super init]; NSMutableArray *localList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.list = localList; [localList release]; //Add initial data [list addObject:@"Hello "]; [list addObject:@"World"]; } // Custom set accessor to ensure the new list is mutable (void)setList:(NSMutableArray *)newList { if (list != newList) { [list release]; list = [newList mutableCopy]; } } -(void)updateTitle:(NSString *)newTitle:(NSString *)theIndex { int i = [theIndex intValue]-1; [self.list replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:newTitle]; NSLog((NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:i]); // gives the correct output } However, the change remains true only inside the method. from any other method, the NSLog((NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:i]); gives the same old value. How can I actually get the old object replaced with the new one at a specific index so that the change can be noticed from within any other method as well. I even modified the method like this, but the result is the same: -(void)updateTitle:(NSString *)newTitle:(NSString *)theIndex { int i = [theIndex intValue]-1; NSMutableArray *localList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; localList = [localList mutableCopy]; for(int j = 0; j < [list count]; j++) { if(j == i) { [localList addObject:newTitle]; NSLog(@"j == 1"); NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", j]); } else { [localList addObject:(NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:j]]; } } [self.list release]; //self.list = [localList mutableCopy]; [self setList:localList]; [localList release]; } Please help out guys :)

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  • Cannot .Count() on IQueryable (NHibernate)

    - by Bruno Reis
    Hello, I'm with an irritating problem. It might be something stupid, but I couldn't find out. I'm using Linq to NHibernate, and I would like to count how many items are there in a repository. Here is a very simplified definition of my repository, with the code that matters: public class Repository { private ISession session; /* ... */ public virtual IQueryable<Product> GetAll() { return session.Linq<Product>(); } } All the relevant code in the end of the question. Then, to count the items on my repository, I do something like: var total = productRepository.GetAll().Count(); The problem is that total is 0. Always. However there are items in the repository. Furthermore, I can .Get(id) any of them. My NHibernate log shows that the following query was executed: SELECT count(*) as y0_ FROM [Product] this_ WHERE not (1=1) That must be that "WHERE not (1=1)" clause the cause of this problem. What can I do to be able .Count() the items in my repository? Thanks! EDIT: Actually the repository.GetAll() code is a little bit different... and that might change something! It is actually a generic repository for Entities. Some of the entities implement also the ILogicalDeletable interface (it contains a single bool property "IsDeleted"). Just before the "return" inside the GetAll() method I check if if the Entity I'm querying implements ILogicalDeletable. public interface IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll(); ... } public abstract class Repository<TEntity, TId> : IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { public virtual IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll() { if (typeof (ILogicalDeletable).IsAssignableFrom(typeof (TEntity))) { return session.Linq<TEntity>() .Where(x => (x as ILogicalDeletable).IsDeleted == false); } else { return session.Linq<TEntity>(); } } } public interface ILogicalDeletable { bool IsDeleted {get; set;} } public Product : Entity<Product, int>, ILogicalDeletable { ... } public IProductRepository : IRepository<Product, int> {} public ProductRepository : Repository<Product, int>, IProductRepository {} Edit 2: actually the .GetAll() is always returning an empty result-set for entities that implement the ILogicalDeletable interface (ie, it ALWAYS add a WHERE NOT (1=1) clause. I think Linq to NHibernate does not like the typecast.

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  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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  • Hibernate/Spring: getHibernateTemplate().save(...) Freezes/Hangs

    - by ashes999
    I'm using Hibernate and Spring with the DAO pattern (all Hibernate dependencies in a *DAO.java class). I have nine unit tests (JUnit) which create some business objects, save them, and perform operations on them; the objects are in a hash (so I'm reusing the same objects all the time). My JUnit setup method calls my DAO.deleteAllObjects() method which calls getSession().createSQLQuery("DELETE FROM <tablename>").executeUpdate() for my business object table (just one). One of my unit tests (#8/9) freezes. I presumed it was a database deadlock, because the Hibernate log file shows my delete statement last. However, debugging showed that it's simply HibernateTemplate.save(someObject) that's freezing. (Eclipse shows that it's freezing on HibernateTemplate.save(Object), line 694.) Also interesting to note is that running this test by itself (not in the suite of 9 tests) doesn't cause any problems. How on earth do I troubleshoot and fix this? Also, I'm using @Entity annotations, if that matters. Edit: I removed reuse of my business objects (use unique objects in every method) -- didn't make a difference (still freezes). Edit: This started trickling into other tests, too (can't run more than one test class without getting something freezing) Transaction configuration: <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdvice" transaction-manager="txManager"> <!-- the transactional semantics... --> <tx:attributes> <!-- all methods starting with 'get' are read-only --> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true" /> <tx:method name="find*" read-only="true" /> <!-- other methods use the default transaction settings (see below) --> <tx:method name="*" /> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <!-- my bean which is exhibiting the hanging behavior --> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="beanNameHere" expression="execution(* com.blah.blah.IMyDAO.*(..))" /> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdvice" pointcut-ref="beanNameHere" /> </aop:config>

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  • How can I obtain the IPv4 address of the client?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code setup to listen for incoming TCP connection requests from clients after the parent socket has been created and is set to listen... int sockfd, newfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="Test message sent"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; . . //parent socket creation and listen code omitted for simplicity . //wait for connection requests from clients while(1) { //Returns the socketID and address of client connecting to socket if( ( newfd = accept(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *)&client, &len) ) == -1 ){ perror("Accept"); exit(-1); } if( (rv = recv(newfd, buf, MAXLEN-1, 0 )) == -1) { perror("Recv"); exit(-1); } struct sockaddr_in *clientAddr = ( struct sockaddr_in *) get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)&client); inet_ntop(client.ss_family, clientAddr, ip, sizeof ip); printf("Receive from %s: query type is %s\n", ip, buf); if( ( st = send(newfd, msg, strlen(msg), 0)) == -1 ) { perror("Send"); exit(-1); } //ntohs is used to avoid big-endian and little endian compatibility issues printf("Send %d byte to port %d\n", ntohs(clientAddr->sin_port) ); close(newfd); } } I found the get_in_addr function online and placed it at the top of my code and use it to obtain the IP address of the client connecting... // get sockaddr, IPv4 or IPv6: void *get_in_addr(struct sockaddr *sa) { if (sa->sa_family == AF_INET) { return &(((struct sockaddr_in*)sa)->sin_addr); } return &(((struct sockaddr_in6*)sa)->sin6_addr); } but the function always returns the IPv6 IP address since thats what the sa_family property is set as. My question is, is the IPv4 IP address stored anywhere in the data I'm using and, if so, how can I access it? Thanks so much in advance for all your help!

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  • How does Page.IsValid work?

    - by Lijo
    I have following code with a RequiredFieldValidator. The EnableClientScript property is set as "false" in the validation control. Also I have disabled script in browser. I am NOT using Page.IsValid in code behind. Still, when I submit without any value in textbox I will get error message. From comments of @Dai, I came to know that this can be an issue, if there is any code in Page_Load that is executed in a postback. There will be no validation errors thrown. (However, for button click handler, there is no need to check Page.IsValid) if (Page.IsPostBack) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; txtEmpName.Text = value + "Appended"; } QUESTION Why the server side validation does not happen before Page_Load? Why it works fine when I use Page.IsValid? UPDATE It seems like, we need to add If(Page.IsValid) in button click also if we are using a Custom Validator with server side validation. Refer CustomValidator not working well. Note: Client side validation question is present here: Whether to use Page_IsValid or Page_ClientValidate() (for Client Side Events) MARKUP <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> alert('haiii'); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ValidationSummary runat="server" ID="vsumAll" DisplayMode="BulletList" CssClass="validationsummary" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmpName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valEmpName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtEmpName" EnableClientScript="false" ErrorMessage="RequiredFieldValidator" Text="*" Display="Dynamic" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> CODE BEHIND protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; SubmitEmployee(value); } References: Should I always call Page.IsValid? ASP.NET Validation Controls – Important Points, Tips and Tricks CustomValidator not working well

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  • IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T>

    - by Safak Gür
    My problem is that I have a method that can take a collection as parameter that, Has a Count property Has an integer indexer (get-only) And I don't know what type should this parameter be. I would choose IList<T> before .NET 4.5 since there is no other indexable collection interface for this and arrays implement it, which is a big plus. But .NET 4.5 introduces the new IReadOnlyList<T> interface and I want my method to support that, too. How can I write this method to support both IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T> without violating the basic principles like DRY? Can I convert IList<T> to IReadOnlyList<T> somehow in an overload? What is the way to go here? Edit: Daniel's answer gave me some pretty ideas, I guess I'll go with this: public void Do<T>(IList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } public void Do<T>(IReadOnlyList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } private void DoInternal<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection, int count, Func<int, T> indexer) { // Stuff } Or I could just accept a ReadOnlyList<T> and provide an helper like this: public static class CollectionEx { public static IReadOnlyList<T> AsReadOnly<T>(this IList<T> collection) { if (collection == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("collection"); return new ReadOnlyWrapper<T>(collection); } private sealed class ReadOnlyWrapper<T> : IReadOnlyList<T> { private readonly IList<T> _Source; public int Count { get { return _Source.Count; } } public T this[int index] { get { return _Source[index]; } } public ReadOnlyWrapper(IList<T> source) { _Source = source; } public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { return _Source.GetEnumerator(); } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return GetEnumerator(); } } } Then I could call Do(array.AsReadOnly())

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  • jquery animation problem using stop

    - by Flanders
    Hi! When running a Jquery animation like slideDown(), it looks like a number of element-specific css properties is set to be updated at a specific interval and when the animation is complete these properties are unset and the display property is simply set to auto or whatever. At least in firebug you can't see those temporary properties any more. The problem I've encountered is the scenario where we stop the slide down with stop(). The element is then left with the current temporary css values. Which is fine because it has to, but let us say that I stoped the slidedown because I have decided to slide it back up again a bit prematurely. It would look something like this: $(this).slideDown(2000) //The below events is not in queue but will rather start execute almost simultaneously as the above line. (dont remember the exact syntax) $(this).delay(1000).stop().slideUp(2000) The above code might not make much sense, but the point is: After 1 second of sliding down the animation is stopped and it starts to slide back up. Works like a charm. BUT!!! And here is the problem. Once it it has slid back up the elements css properties are reset to the exact values it had 1000ms into the slideDown() animation (when stop() was called). If we now try to run the following: $(this).slideDown(2000) It will slide down to the very point the prior slideDown was aborted and not further at half the speed (since it uses the same time for approximately half the height). This is because the css properties were saved as I see it. But it is not especially wished for. Of course I want it to slide all the way down this time. Due to UI interaction that is hard to predict everything might soon break. The longer animations we use increases the risk of something like this happening. Is this to be considered a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Or maybe it's just a feature that is not supported? I guess I can use a callback function to reset the css properties, but depending on the animation used, different css properties are used to render it, and covering your back would result in quite a not-so-fancy solution.

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  • Using PHP5s SOAP Client to send data to an ASP/.NET based SOAP server.

    - by user325143
    I am trying to write a snippet of PHP to connect to a third party's API via SOAP to enter some data into their database. The API requires me to pass several mandatory fields for every call (username, password, companyid, entitytype) in addition to the mandatory data fields. It also requires me to call the "ValidateEntity" funciton before calling the "CreateEntity" function. Documentation can be found here: http://wiki.agemni.com/Getting_Started/APIs/Database_API I have never worked with SOAP before, so I am very new to this. Here is what I have so far: error_reporting(E_ALL); ini_set('display_errors', '1'); $client = new SoapClient("http://agemni.com/AgemniWebservices/service1.asmx?WSDL", array('trace'=> true)); $options = array( 'username' => "myuser", 'password' => "mypassword", 'companyid' => myID, 'entitytype' => 2 ); $params = array( 'fname' => "John", 'lname' => "Doe", 'phone' => "859-333-3333", 'zip' => "40332", 'area id' => "12345", 'lead id' => "28222", 'contactdate' => "4/10/2010" ); $validate = $client->__soapCall("ValidateEntity", array($params), array($options)); $client->__soapCall("CreateEntity", array($params), array($options)); echo "<pre>"; var_dump($client-> __getLastRequestHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastRequest()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponseHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponse()); var_dump($result); echo "</pre>"; Upon executing this code, I get the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [Client] SOAP-ERROR: Encoding: object hasn't 'objecttype' property in /www/tmp/index-soap.php:24 Stack trace: #0 /www/tmp/index-soap.php(24): SoapClient->__soapCall('ValidateEntity', Array) #1 {main} thrown in /www/stealth/tmp/index-soap.php on line 24 I guess my question is.. am I even going about doing this the right way? I know this is a very broad question, but I appreciate any advice you can give me about making this work. Please let me know if you require more detail. Thanks!

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  • Meshing different systems of keys together in XML Schema

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO, I'd like to ask people's thoughts on an XSD problem I've been pondering. The system I am trying to model is thus: I have a general type that represents some item in a hypothetical model. The type is abstract and will be inherited by all manner of different model objects, so the model is heterogeneous. Furthermore, some types exist only as children of other types. Objects are to be given an identifier, but the scope of uniqueness of this identifier varies. Some objects - we will call them P (for Parent) objects - must have a globally unique identifier. This is straightforward and can use the xs:key schema element. Other objects (we can call them C objects, for Child) are children of a P object and must have an identifier that is unique only in the scope of that parent. For example, object P1 has two children, object C1 and C2, and object P2 has one child, object C3. In this system, the identifiers given could be as follows: P1: 1 (1st P object globally) P2: 2 (2nd P object globally) C1: 1 (1st C object of P1) C2: 2 (2nd C object of P1) C3: 1 (1st C object of P2) I want the identity syntax of every model object to be identical if possible, therefore my first pass at implementing is to define a single type: <xs:complexType name="ModelElement"> <xs:attribute name="IDMode" type="IdentityMode"/> <xs:attribute name="Identifier" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> where the IdentityMode is an enumerated value: <xs:simpleType name="IdentityMode"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Identified"/> <xs:enumeration value="Indexed"/> <xs:enumeration value="None"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> Here "Identified" signifies a global identifier, and "Indexed" indicates an identifier local only to the parent. My question is, how do I enforce these uniqueness conditions using unique, key or other schema elements based on the IdentityMode property of the given subtype of ModelElement?

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  • how to populate the tables within xmlDataDocument.DataSet

    - by alex
    Hi all: I am working on a C# application that involves using XML schema file as databases for message definitions and XML file as databases for message data. I was following the example I found:http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.xml.xmldatadocument.dataset%28v=VS.100%29.aspx I wrote my own xsd and XML file. I used the same approach in the example, read the xsd file and then load the xml file. But I don't have any "Rows" created for my DataTable. I used debugger to step through my codes. When I am get my DataTable use xmlDataDocument.DataSet.Tables["name of the table"], the Rows property of that tables is 0. Does anybody know what might cause the DataSet tables not get populated after I loaded the xmlDataDocument with XML file? Here is a fragment of XSD file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema id="test" targetNamespace="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" > <xs:element name="reboot_msg"> <xs:complexType> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="header_s"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="que_name"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="4"/> <xs:maxLength value="8"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="priority" type="xs:unsignedShort"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> and here is a fragment of the XML file: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <test xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <reboot_msg> <message_length>16</message_length> <message_type>7</message_type> <message_sequence>0</message_sequence> <que_name>NONE</que_name> <priority>5</priority> </reboot_msg> It could be the XML and XSD file I created missed something. Please help. Thanks

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  • Yii Many_Many Relationship and Form

    - by Thorpe Obazee
    // Post model return array( 'categories' => array(self::HAS_MANY, 'Category', 'posts_categories(post_id, category_id)') ); I already have the setup of tables posts id, title, content categories id, name posts_categories post_id, category_i The problem I have is that I am getting an error when creating this form: <?php $form=$this->beginWidget('CActiveForm', array( 'id'=>'post-form', 'enableAjaxValidation'=>false, )); ?> <p class="note">Fields with <span class="required">*</span> are required.</p> <?php echo $form->errorSummary($model); ?> <div class="row"> <?php echo $form->labelEx($model,'title'); ?> <?php echo $form->textField($model,'title',array('size'=>60,'maxlength'=>255)); ?> <?php echo $form->error($model,'title'); ?> </div> <div class="row"> <?php echo $form->labelEx($model,'uri'); ?> <?php echo $form->textField($model,'uri',array('size'=>60,'maxlength'=>255)); ?> <?php echo $form->error($model,'uri'); ?> </div> <div class="row"> <?php echo $form->labelEx($model,'content'); ?> <?php echo $form->textArea($model,'content',array('rows'=>6, 'cols'=>50)); ?> <?php echo $form->error($model,'content'); ?> </div> <div class="row"> <?php // echo $form->labelEx($model,'content'); ?> <?php echo CHtml::activeDropDownList($model,'category_id', CHtml::listData(Category::model()->findAll(), 'id', 'name')); ?> <?php // echo $form->error($model,'content'); ?> </div> <div class="row buttons"> <?php echo CHtml::submitButton($model->isNewRecord ? 'Create' : 'Save'); ?> </div> <?php $this->endWidget(); ?> The error is: Property "Post.category_id" is not defined. I am quite confused. What should I be doing to correct this?

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  • Node.js Cron Job Messing with Date Object

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    I'm trying to schedule several cron jobs to generate serial numbers for different entities within my web app. However I am running into this problem, when I'm looping each table, it says it has something to do with date.js. I'm not doing anything with a date object ? Not at this stage anyway. A couple of guesses is that the cron object is doing a date thing in its code and is referencing date.js. I'm using date.js to get access to things like ISO date. for (t in config.generatorTables) { console.log("t = " + config.generatorTables[t] + "\n\n"); var ts3 = azure.createTableService(); var jobSerialNumbers = new cronJob({ //cronTime: '*/' + rndNumber + ' * * * * *', cronTime: '*/1 * * * * *', onTick: function () { //console.log(new Date() + " calling topUpSerialNumbers \n\n"); manageSerialNumbers.topUpSerialNumbers(config.generatorTables[t], function () { }); }, start: false, timeZone: "America/Los_Angeles" }); ts3.createTableIfNotExists(config.generatorTables[t], function (error) { if (error === null) { var query = azure.TableQuery .select() .from(config.generatorTables[t]) .where('PartitionKey eq ?', '0') ts3.queryEntities(query, function (error, serialNumberEntities) { if (error === null && serialNumberEntities.length == 0) { manageSerialNumbers.generateNewNumbers(config.maxNumber, config.serialNumberSize, config.generatorTables[t], function () { jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } else jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } }); } And this is the error message I'm getting when I examine the server.js.logs\0.txt file: C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56 onsole.log('isDST'); return this.toString().match(/(E|C|M|P)(S|D)T/)[2] == "D" ^ TypeError: Cannot read property '2' of null at Date.isDST (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:110) at Date.getTimezone (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:228) at Object._getNextDateFrom (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:88:30) at Object.sendAt (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:51:17) at Object.getTimeout (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:58:30) at Object.start (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:279:33) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:169:46 at Object.generateNewNumbers (C:\node\w\WebRole1\utils\manageSerialNumbers.js:106:5) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:168:45 at C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\azure\lib\services\table\tableservice.js:485:7 I am using this line in my database.js file: require('../public/javascripts/date'); is that correct that I only have to do this once, because date.js is global? I.e. it has a bunch of prototypes (extensions) for the inbuilt date object. Within manageSerialNumbers.js I am just doing a callback, their is no code executing as I've commented it all out, but still receiving this error. Any help or advice would be appreciated.

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  • program received signal SIGABRT (xcode)

    - by manish1990
    #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface tableview : UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *listOfItems; } @property(nonatomic,retain) NSArray *listOfItems; @end #import "tableview.h" @implementation tableview @synthesize listOfItems; - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier ]autorelease]; } //NSString *cellValue = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } #pragma mark - View lifecycle - (void)viewDidLoad { listOfItems = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"first",@"second",@"third", nil]; //listOfItems = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; // [listOfItems addObject:@"first"]; //[listOfItems addObject:@"second"]; [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view from its nib. } -(void)dealloc { [listOfItems release]; [super dealloc]; } @end GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1708) (Mon Aug 15 16:03:10 UTC 2011) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 438. 2012-04-27 13:33:23.276 tableview test[438:207] -[UIView tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x6855500 2012-04-27 13:33:23.362 tableview test[438:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[UIView tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x6855500' * First throw call stack: (0x13bb052 0x154cd0a 0x13bcced 0x1321f00 0x1321ce2 0x1ecf2b 0x1ef722 0x9f7c7 0x9f2c1 0xa228c 0xa6783 0x51322 0x13bce72 0x1d6592d 0x1d6f827 0x1cf5fa7 0x1cf7ea6 0x1d8330c 0x23530 0x138f9ce 0x1326670 0x12f24f6 0x12f1db4 0x12f1ccb 0x12a4879 0x12a493e 0x12a9b 0x2282 0x21f5) terminate called throwing an exceptionCurrent language: auto; currently objective-c (gdb)

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  • Disable Dojo validation on certain fields

    - by Eric LaForce
    I would like to disable client side validation on certain fields in my user form. Currently I have two sets of fields that are displayed depending on the value of a previous drop down list. i.e. if the drop down list is set to value "A" 1 new field appears in the form. If the drop down list is set to value "B" 3 new fields appear in the form (mutually exclusive from the new form field when "A" is selected). Currently my Dojo client side validation fails because the fields that are not shown to the user (and thus no data can be inserted into those fields) fails to validate. Currently I determined that I can set the "validate" attribute to return true like so: <input type="text" id="companycity" name="companycity" class="textinput" value="<?php echo set_value('companycity'); ?>" style="<?php if(isset($errorData['companycity'])){echo $errorData['companycity'];} ?>" dojotype="dijit.form.ValidationTextBox" required="true" trim="true" validate='return true'" regexp="([a-zA-Z]{1,25})" invalidMessage="Invalid value. Must be between 1 and 25 alphabetic characters long."> This fixes my issue for hidden fields. However this now means that no validation is performed when this field becomes visible to the user (i.e. the validate attribute is still set to return true). I have tried removing the validate property when a field is displayed to the user like so: dijit.byId('companycode').attr('validate',''); This just set the attribute to nothing. This however gives errors in firebug saying validate method not found, so I take that to mean I did not remove this attribute correctly or removing this attribute is not the appropriate way to do this. I have also looked at overriding the validator method here but this doesnt seem like what I want either. I do not want to have to rewrite all the validation methods in place of dojo's. I just want dojo not to validate if the field is not visible to the user. Thanks for any advice or help.

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  • WPF: Can't get to original source from ExecutedRoutedEventArgs

    - by Ikhail
    I have a problem getting to the original source of a command using ExecutedRoutedEventArgs. I'm creating a simple splitbutton, in which a menu will appear below a dedicated button, as another button is pressed. When I click a menuitem in the appearing menu a command is fired. This command is registered on the splitbutton. And the idea is to get to the menuitem beeing clicked, by using the ExecutedRoutedEventsArgs. Ok, now the problem. If I choose to have the popup menu shown by default (IsOpen="True") and I click one of the menuitems I can get to the originalsource (thus the menuitem) from the ExecutedRoutedEventArgs - no problem. However, if I first click the button to show the menu and THEN click on a menuitem, the originalsource of the command will be the button instead of the MenuItem! Here's the controltemplate for the splitbutton: <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type usc:SplitButton}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Button Name="mybutton"> <StackPanel> <Popup usc:SplitButton.IsPopup="True" IsOpen="True" Name="myPopup" PlacementTarget="{Binding ElementName=mybutton}" StaysOpen="False" Placement="Bottom"> <Border BorderBrush="Beige" BorderThickness="1"> <Menu Width="120"> <MenuItem Header="item1" Command="usc:SplitButton.MenuItemClickCommand" /> <MenuItem Header="item2" /> <MenuItem Header="item3" /> </Menu> </Border> </Popup> <TextBlock Text="MySplitbutton" /> </StackPanel> </Button> <Button Content="OK" Command="usc:SplitButton.ShowMenuCommand" /> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> The OK button fires a ShowMenuCommand on the SplitButton, which sets the IsOpen property on the Popup to True. Any ideas why the OK button (after having activated the menu) is the OriginalSource when a menuitem is clicked? Thanks.

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  • How do I overlay text on an image who's size is to be set?

    - by Mike
    I am trying to make a bar chart using tables, which I have almost accomplished to my liking. The last step I want is text over my image which represents the bar. Here is the code I have thus far for building my little bar charts: $height = 50; //build length $width = 450; $multi = $brewAvg / 5; $width = $width * $multi; print " <tr > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; And this produces something like this: You can see in the code how I simply calculate the length of the bar based on a breweries rating. What I want to do next is have the rating number show on top of each breweries on the left hand side. How would I go about accomplishing this? Update: I tried a tutorial I read here: http://www.kavoir.com/2009/02/css-text-over-image.html and I changed my code to this: print "<div class=\"overlay\"> "; print " <tr valign=\"middle\" > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; print" <div class=\"text\"> <p> $brewAvg </p> </div> </div> "; And my css I added was this: <style> .overlay { position:relative; float:left; /* optional */ } .overlay .text { position:absolute; top:10px; /* in conjunction with left property, decides the text position */ left:10px; width:300px; /* optional, though better have one */ } </style> And it did put any of the value son top of my images. All the text is in a list above all the bars like this:

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  • Single entity with single view or two views in mvc3 vs2010?

    - by user2905798
    I have the following entity model public class Employee { public int Employee ID{get;set;} public string employeename{get;set;} public datetime employeeDOb{get;set;} public datetime? employeeDateOfJoin{get;set;} public string empFamilyname{get;set;} public datetime empFamilyDob{get;set;} } here I have to design a view for collecting employee information and employee family information. Since I am working on already available data, where in empFamilyDob was not mandatory. But now it is being made mandatory, the previous data doesn't contain EmpFamilyDob. So naturally I have added this new property EmpFamilyDob to the Model and made it required through DataAnnotations. Now there are two set of views to be developed. 1. A view which simply allows to collect the employee information without employee family information. i.e, empFamilyName and EmpFamilyDob.--This view is used by the Hr section to insert empplyee details Since the empFamilyname and EmpFamilyDob being now made mandatory, some other section will edit the data and update the EmpFamilyName and EmpFamilyDob as and when the information about employee family details are received. I have action controller for CreateNew and Edit Which is being generated by using the default model. There are two user actions being performed. 1.When the user clicks the Create new -- he will be able to update only the Employee information 2.As and when the other section receives the employee family details they update the familyname and family date of birth. i.e, EmployeeFamilyname and EmployeFamilyDob. While creating new record the uses should be able to update employee information only and while editing the information he should be able to update the employeefamily information. Since I have a single view with most of these fields as required and not allowing null , How can I achieve this in a sincle view? I have recorrected the model like this public class Employee { public int Employee ID{get;set;} public string employeename{get;set;} public datetime employeeDOb{get;set;} public datetime? employeeDateOfJoin{get;set;} public string empFamilyname{get;set;} public datetime? empFamilyDob{get;set;} } Now by default I hope the createnew action would insert null value for empFamilyname(string datatype) and empFamilyDob . In the Edit action the user should be made to enter empFamilyname and empFamilyDob(mandatory). As there is every chance that the user might edit other information about the employee(like employeeDob) I don't want to go for partial views. Can you help me out with some illustration. Thanks in advance

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  • Why does obj.getBounds().height give a larger height than obj.height?

    - by TC
    I'm new to Flash and ActionScript, but managing quite nicely. One thing that is continuously getting in my way are the width and height properties of DisplayObject(Container)s. I'm finally starting to get my head around them and learned that the width and height of a Sprite are determined solely by their contents for example. I do not understand the following though: I've got a Sprite that I add a bunch of Buttons to. The buttons all have a height of 30 and an y of 0. As such, I'd expect the height of the containing Sprite to be 30. Surprisingly, the height is 100. The Adobe documentation of the height property of a DisplayObject states: Indicates the height of the display object, in pixels. The height is calculated based on the bounds of the content of the display object. Apparently, the 'bounds' of the object are important. So I went ahead and wrote this little test in the Sprite that contains the Buttons: for (var i:int = 0; i < numChildren; ++i) { trace("Y: " + getChildAt(i).y + " H: " + getChildAt(i).height); trace("BOUNDS H: " + getChildAt(i).getBounds(this).height); } trace("SCALEY: " + scaleY + " TOTAL HEIGHT: " + height); This code iterates through all the objects that are added to its display list and shows their y, height and getBounds().height values. Surprisingly, the output is: Y: 0 H: 30 BOUNDS H: 100 ... (5x) SCALEY: 1 TOTAL HEIGHT: 100 This shows that the bounds of the buttons are actually larger than their height (and the height that they appear to be, visually). I have no clue why this is the case however. So my questions are: Why are the bounds of my buttons larger than their height? How can I set the bounds of my buttons so that my Sprite isn't larger than I'd expect it to be based on the position and size of the objects it contains? By the way, the buttons are created as follows: var control:Button = new Button(); control.setSize(90, 30); addChild(control);

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  • WPF/INotifyPropertyChanged, change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC should change automatically?

    - by user1033098
    I supposed, once i change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC would change automatically, since i have implemented INotifyPropertyChanged for ValueA. But they were not updated on UI. txtB was always 100, and txtC was always -50. I don't know what's the reason. My Xaml.. <Window x:Class="WpfApplicationReviewDemo.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <TextBox Name="txtA" Text="{Binding ValueA}" /> <TextBox Name="txtB" Text="{Binding ValueB}" /> <TextBox Name="txtC" Text="{Binding ValueC}" /> </StackPanel> </Window> My code behind... public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new Model(); } } public class Model : INotifyPropertyChanged { private decimal valueA; public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); } } private decimal valueB; public decimal ValueB { get { valueB = ValueA + 100; return valueB; } set { valueB = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); } } private decimal valueC; public decimal ValueC { get { valueC = ValueA - 50; return valueC; } set { valueC = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } After i add code to the set method of ValueA property, it works. public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } But I supposed it should be automatically refresh/updated for txtB and txtC. Please advise.

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  • Can <Setter.Value> have multiple grids inside it

    - by Subhen
    Hi, I want to define the background for my application in App.XAML. The background was previously defined in another xaml page,which have multiple Grids inside it like following: <Grid x:Key="GridGeneric" d:LayoutOverrides="Width, Height"> <Grid.Background> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF00172E" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF004074" Offset="0.433"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF081316"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF001D3F" Offset="0.215"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF002043" Offset="0.818"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF003B6C" Offset="0.642"/> </LinearGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> <Grid> <Grid.Background> <RadialGradientBrush RadiusY="0.973" GradientOrigin="0.497,-0.276" RadiusX="1.003"> <GradientStop Color="#FFB350EE" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop Color="#001D3037" Offset="0.847"/> </RadialGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> </Grid> ------ ----- </Grid> Now I want to place the same in my App.xaml like following: <Style x:Key="backgroundStyle" TargetType="Grid"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <Grid> <Grid.Background> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF00172E" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF004074" Offset="0.433"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF081316"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF001D3F" Offset="0.215"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF002043" Offset="0.818"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF003B6C" Offset="0.642"/> </LinearGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> <Grid> <Grid.Background> <RadialGradientBrush RadiusY="0.973" GradientOrigin="0.497,-0.276" RadiusX="1.003"> <GradientStop Color="#FFB350EE" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop Color="#001D3037" Offset="0.847"/> </RadialGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> </Grid> --------- --------- </Grid> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> But While doing this I am getting the following Exception.

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  • (Strange) C++ linker error in constructor

    - by Microkernel
    I am trying to write a template class in C++ and getting this strange linker error and can't figureout the cause, please let me know whats wrong with this! Here is the error message I am getting in Visula C++ 2010. 1>------ Rebuild All started: Project: FlashEmulatorTemplates, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> main.cpp 1> emulator.cpp 1> Generating Code... 1>main.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "public: __thiscall flash_emulator<char>::flash_emulator<char>(char const *,struct FLASH_PROPERTIES *)" (??0?$flash_emulator@D@@QAE@PBDPAUFLASH_PROPERTIES@@@Z) referenced in function _main 1>C:\Projects\FlashEmulator_templates\VS\FlashEmulatorTemplates\Debug\FlashEmulatorTemplates.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals ========== Rebuild All: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 skipped ========== Error message in g++ main.cpp: In function âint main()â: main.cpp:8: warning: deprecated conversion from string constant to âchar*â /tmp/ccOJ8koe.o: In function `main': main.cpp:(.text+0x21): undefined reference to `flash_emulator<char>::flash_emulator(char*, FLASH_PROPERTIES*)' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status There are 2 .cpp files and 1 header file, and I have given them below. emulator.h #ifndef __EMULATOR_H__ #define __EMULATOR_H__ typedef struct { int property; }FLASH_PROPERTIES ; /* Flash emulation class */ template<class T> class flash_emulator { private: /* Private data */ int key; public: /* Constructor - Opens an existing flash by name flashName or creates one with given FLASH_PROPERTIES if it doesn't exist */ flash_emulator( const char *flashName, FLASH_PROPERTIES *properties ); /* Constructor - Opens an existing flash by name flashName or creates one with given properties given in configFIleName */ flash_emulator<T>( char *flashName, char *configFileName ); /* Destructor for the emulator */ ~flash_emulator(){ } }; #endif /* End of __EMULATOR_H__ */ emulator.cpp #include <Windows.h> #include "emulator.h" using namespace std; template<class T>flash_emulator<T>::flash_emulator( const char *flashName, FLASH_PROPERTIES *properties ) { return; } template<class T>flash_emulator<T>::flash_emulator(char *flashName, char *configFileName) { return; } main.cpp #include <Windows.h> #include "emulator.h" int main() { FLASH_PROPERTIES properties = {0}; flash_emulator<char> myEmulator("C:\newEMu.flash", &properties); return 0; }

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  • Storing and displaying unicode string (??????) using PHP and MySQL

    - by Anirudh Goel
    I have to store hindi text in a MySQL database, fetch it using a PHP script and display it on a webpage. I did the following: I created a database and set its encoding to UTF-8 and also the collation to utf8_bin. I added a varchar field in the table and set it to accept UTF-8 text in the charset property. Then I set about adding data to it. Here I had to copy data from an existing site. The hindi text looks like this: ????????:05:30 I directly copied this text into my database and used the PHP code echo(utf8_encode($string)) to display the data. Upon doing so the browser showed me "??????". When I inserted the UTF equivalent of the text by going to "view source" in the browser, however, ???????? translates into &#2360;&#2370;&#2352;&#2381;&#2351;&#2379;&#2342;&#2351;. If I enter and store &#2360;&#2370;&#2352;&#2381;&#2351;&#2379;&#2342;&#2351; in the database, it converts perfectly. So what I want to know is how I can directly store ???????? into my database and fetch it and display it in my webpage using PHP. Also, can anyone help me understand if there's a script which when I type in ????????, gives me &#2360;&#2370;&#2352;&#2381;&#2351;&#2379;&#2342;&#2351;? Solution Found I wrote the following sample script which worked for me. Hope it helps someone else too <html> <head> <title>Hindi</title></head> <body> <?php include("connection.php"); //simple connection setting $result = mysql_query("SET NAMES utf8"); //the main trick $cmd = "select * from hindi"; $result = mysql_query($cmd); while ($myrow = mysql_fetch_row($result)) { echo ($myrow[0]); } ?> </body> </html> The dump for my database storing hindi utf strings is CREATE TABLE `hindi` ( `data` varchar(1000) character set utf8 collate utf8_bin default NULL ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `hindi` VALUES ('????????'); Now my question is, how did it work without specifying "META" or header info? Thanks!

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