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  • How to add an element to an array without a modification of the old array or creation a new one?

    - by Roman
    I have the following construction: for (String playerName: players). I would like to make a loop over all players plus one more special player. But I do not want to modify the players array by adding a new element to it. So, what can I do? Can I replace players in the for (String playerName: players) by something containing all elements of the players plus one more element?

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  • Terminology: opposite of "zero copy"?

    - by Mark Harrison
    We're benchmarking some code that we've converted to use sendfile(), the linux zero-copy system call. What's the term for the traditional read()/write() loop that sendfile() replaces? I.e., in our report I want to say "zerocopy is X millisecs, and ??? is Y millisecs." What word/phrase should I use?

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  • Programatically enable/disable menuBar buttons in Flex 4

    - by Hamid
    I have the following XML in my Flex4 (AIR) project that defines the start of my menu interface: <mx:MenuBar x="0" y="0" width="100%" id="myMenuBar" labelField="@label" itemClick="menuChange(event)"> <mx:dataProvider> <s:XMLListCollection> <fx:XMLList xmlns=""> <menu label="File"> <item label="New"/> <item label="Load"/> <item label="Save" enabled="false"/> </menu> <menu label="Help"> <item label="About"/> </menu> </fx:XMLList> </s:XMLListCollection> </mx:dataProvider> </mx:MenuBar> I am trying to find the syntax that will let me set the save button to enabled=true after a file has been loaded by clicking "Load", however I can't figure out the syntax, can someone make a suggestion please. Currently the way that button clicks are detected is by a Switch/Case testing the String result of the MenuEvent event.item.@label. Maybe this isn't the best way?

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  • Declaration, allocation and assignment of an array of pointers to function pointers

    - by manneorama
    Hello Stack Overflow! This is my first post, so please be gentle. I've been playing around with C from time to time in the past. Now I've gotten to the point where I've started a real project (a 2D graphics engine using SDL, but that's irrelevant for the question), to be able to say that I have some real C experience. Yesterday, while working on the event system, I ran into a problem which I couldn't solve. There's this typedef, //the void parameter is really an SDL_Event*. //but that is irrelevant for this question. typedef void (*event_callback)(void); which specifies the signature of a function to be called on engine events. I want to be able to support multiple event_callbacks, so an array of these callbacks would be an idea, but do not want to limit the amount of callbacks, so I need some sort of dynamic allocation. This is where the problem arose. My first attempt went like this: //initial size of callback vector static const int initial_vecsize = 32; //our event callback vector static event_callback* vec = 0; //size static unsigned int vecsize = 0; void register_event_callback(event_callback func) { if (!vec) __engine_allocate_vec(vec); vec[vecsize++] = func; //error here! } static void __engine_allocate_vec(engine_callback* vec) { vec = (engine_callback*) malloc(sizeof(engine_callback*) * initial_vecsize); } First of all, I have omitted some error checking as well as the code that reallocates the callback vector when the number of callbacks exceed the vector size. However, when I run this code, the program crashes as described in the code. I'm guessing segmentation fault but I can't be sure since no output is given. I'm also guessing that the error comes from a somewhat flawed understanding on how to declare and allocate an array of pointers to function pointers. Please Stack Overflow, guide me.

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  • Difference in clientX and clientY when going out of the browser on ie/ff

    - by Py
    I just ran into a little problem with clientX and clientY. I put a little event to detect if the mouse goes out of the window and to know where it exits. And there come the trouble, it works fine with firefox, but only sends -1 as an answer in IE. Does someone know if there is a way to solve easily that problem and that without using a framework? A little bit of code to reproduce that: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> document.onmouseout=function(e){ if (!e) var e = window.event; var relTarg = e.relatedTarget || e.toElement; if (!relTarg){ document.getElementById('result1').innerHTML="e.clientY:"+e.clientY+" e.clientX:"+e.clientX; } }; </script> </head> <body> <div id="result1">Not Yet</div> </body> </html> the results if I exit through the left of the window are: e.clientY:302 e.clientX:-130 on firefox e.clientY:-1 e.clientX:-1 on ie. Thanks in advance.

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  • jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

    - by Sergey Grashchenko
    I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

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  • A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected: Dealing with these errors proactively, or a

    - by Albert
    I'm noticing this error more and more in my error logs. I've read through the questions here talking about this error, but they don't address what I would like to do (see below). I'm considering three options, in the order of preference: 1) When submitting a form (I use formviews almost exclusively, if that helps), if potentially dangerous characters are detected, automatically strip them out and submit. 2) When submitting a form, if potentially dangerous characters are detected, alert the user and let them fix it before trying again. 3) After the exception is generated, deal with it and alert the user. I'm hoping one of the first two options might be able to do somewhat globally...I know for the 3rd I'd have to alter a TON of Try-Catch blocks I already have in place. Doable, but labor intensive. I'd rather be proactive about it if at all possible and avoid the exception all together. Perhaps one approach to #1 would be to write a block of code that could loop through all text entry fields in a formview, during the insert/update event, and strip the characters out. I'm ok with that, but I'd rather not have to heavily alter all my Insert/Update events to accomplish this. Or maybe I just create a different class to do the text checking/deleting, and only insert 1 line of code in each Insert/Update event. If anyone can come up with some example code of any of these approaches that would be a help. Thanks for any ideas or information. I'm definitely open to other solutions too; these are only the 3 that came to mind. I can say that I don't want to turn request validation off though.

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  • Populate tableView with more than one array

    - by Ewoods
    The short version: Is there a way to populate one specific row in a tableView with one value from one array, then populate another row in that same tableView with one value from a different array? For example, cell 1 would have the first value from Array A, cell 2 would have the first value from Array B, cell 3 would have the first value from Array C, etc. The long version: I hope this isn't too confusing. I've got an array of names, and then three more arrays with actions associated with those people. For example, the names array has Jim, Bob, and Sue, and then there's an array for eating, reading, and sleeping that records every time each person does one of these things (all of these arrays are populated from a MySQL database). The names array is used to populate a root tableView. Tapping on one of the names brings up a detail view controller that has another tableView that only has three rows. This part is all working fine. What I want to happen is when I tap on a name, it moves to the detail view and the three cells would then show the last event for that person for each of the three activities. Tapping on one of those three events then moves to a new view controller with a tableView that shows every event for that category. For example, if I tapped on Bob, the second page would show the last time Bob ate, read, and slept. Tapping on the first row would bring up a table that showed every time Bob has eaten. So far I've only been able to populate the second tableView with all of the rows from one of the arrays. I need it the other way around (one row from all of the arrays).

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  • Java Socket Connection is flooding network OR resulting in high ping

    - by user1461100
    i have a little problem with my java socket code. I'm writing an android client application which is sending data to a java multithreaded socket server on my pc through direct(!) wireless connection. It works fine but i want to improve it for mobile applications as it is very power consuming by now. When i remove two special lines in my code, the cpu usage of my mobile device (htc one x) is totally okay but then my connection seems to have high ping rates or something like that... Here is a server code snippet where i receive the clients data: while(true) { try { .... Object obj = in.readObject(); if(obj != null) { Class clazz = obj.getClass(); String className = clazz.getName(); if(className.equals("java.lang.String")) { String cmd = (String)obj; if(cmd.equals("dc")) { System.out.println("Client "+id+" disconnected!"); Server.connectedClients[id-1] = false; break; } if(cmd.substring(0,1).equals("!")) { robot.keyRelease(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } else { robot.keyPress(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } } } } catch .... Heres the client part, where i send my data in a while loop: private void networking() { try { if(client != null) { .... out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); .... } } catch .... when i write it this why, i send data everytime the while loop gets executed.. when sendQueue is empty, a null "Object" will be send. this results in "high" network traffic and in "high" cpu usage. BUT: all send comments are received nearly immediately. when i change the code to following: while(true) ... if(sendQueue.peek() != null) { out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); } ... the cpu usage is totally okay but i'm getting some laggs.. the commands do not arrive fast enough.. as i said, it works fine (besides cpu usage) if i'm sending data(with that null objects) every while execution. but i'm sure that this is very rough coding style because i'm kind of flooding the network. any hints? what am i doing wrong?? Thanks for your Help! Sincerly yours, maaft

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  • problems with scanf

    - by lego69
    hello, I've got some problems with this snippet of the code while(scanf("%d",&numOfPlayers)!=1){ printf("Please enter the right number of players"); } my purpose is to take the number from the user but if number is not int, I must ask him one more time, when I check this snippet and print 'r' for example I receive eternal loop, what may be the problem, how can I improve it? thanks in advance

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  • WinForms - DateTimePicker default month selection behavior for Server 2003 vs Server 2008?

    - by Mike Loux
    Good Afternoon! Has anybody else noticed a change in the default behavior of the "next" and "previous" month arrows in the standard WinForms DateTimePicker control? I have users running on both Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 R2, and they are reporting that on 2008 (and Vista/Win7), clicking the right or left arrows on the drop-down Calendar now selects the first day of the month rather than retaining the same day like 2003 (and XP) does. I have checked this out (I have a Win7 machine) and I have confirmed this behavior. I would prefer that the behavior remain consistent whenever possible. Does anybody know what causes this and if there is a way to get around this? Is there a way to trap the arrow-click event and force the resulting date to retain the original day rather than be reset to the first of the month? I thought about seeing if there was a way to hit-test the control on a MouseUp event and determine if the arrow buttons were clicked, and then override the month value being set, but I'm not sure if that is even possible. Can anybody provide some wisdom or insight? Thanks!

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  • convert htmlelement to string for comparison javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, I am using a function that obtains a target element id at onclick. Example, if I click on the text element that has the id of 'help'. var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); The var click would contain the ref to the id of "help". I want to compare the var click to the string 'help' using the if statement below. if (click == 'about') {do something} The comparison does not work because the var click is not a string. When I use the alert(click) to debug, it shows click as "object HTMLElement". How would you compare whether the id 'help' is obtained from var click? I could write out something like if (click == document.getElementById('help')) {do something} but that would make a long statement. also if the var click is document.getElementById('help'), how would you make a new var "show" as document.getElementById('showhelp') basically, I want to use the same function to generate dynamic responses to each element that was clicked on, and not having to create a separate function for each element.

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  • How to execute a page's javascript function in perl?

    - by Andrei dela Cruz
    I am trying to extract data from a website using PERL. Below is the description of the site: site displays data dependent on a date a calendar is displayed that is used to change the date upon clicking the dates in the calendar, it calls a javascript function that passes in the date and refreshes the part of the page that displays the data My question is, how do I execute that JS function so that I could loop through the dates that I need data from? Thanks in Advance

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  • an x86 question

    - by wide
    i'm working for my exam. i didn't resolved this question. does anyone help me? assume that there are two block, BLOCK1 AND BLOCK2. every block has 50 bytes. write a program to add BLOCK1 with BLOCK2 , and store result to BLOCK2 using LODS, STOS and LOOP etc. assembly commands?

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  • Qt cross thread call

    - by QLatvia
    I have a Qt/C++ application, with the usual GUI thread, and a network thread. The network thread is using an external library, which has its own select() based event loop... so the network thread isn't using Qt's event system. At the moment, the network thread just emit()s signals when various events occur, such as a successful connection. I think this works okay, as the signals/slots mechanism posts the signals correctly for the GUI thread. Now, I need for the network thread to be able to call the GUI thread to ask questions. For example, the network thread may require the GUI thread to request put up a dialog, to request a password. Does anyone know a suitable mechanism for doing this? My current best idea is to have the network thread wait using a QWaitCondition, after emitting an object (emit passwordRequestedEvent(passwordRequest);. The passwordRequest object would have a handle on the particular QWaitCondition, and so can signal it when a decision has been made.. Is this sort of thing sensible? or is there another option?

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  • BizTalk - generating schema from Oracle stored proc with table variable argument

    - by Ron Savage
    I'm trying to set up a simple example project in BizTalk that gets changes made to a table in a SQL Server db and updates a copy of that table in an Oracle db. On the SQL Server side, I have a stored proc named GetItemChanges() that returns a variable number of records. On the Oracle side, I have a stored proc named Update_Item_Region_Table() designed to take a table of records as a parameter so that it can process all the records returned from GetItemChanges() in one call. It is defined like this: create or replace type itemrec is OBJECT ( UPC VARCHAR2(15), REGION VARCHAR2(5), LONG_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(50), POS_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30), POS_DEPT VARCHAR2(5), ITEM_SIZE VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_UOM VARCHAR2(5), BRAND VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_STATUS VARCHAR2(5), TIME_STAMP VARCHAR2(20), COSTEDBYWEIGHT INTEGER ); create or replace type tbl_of_rec is table of itemrec; create or replace PROCEDURE Update_Item_Region_table ( Item_Data tbl_of_rec ) IS errcode integer; errmsg varchar2(4000); BEGIN for recIndex in 1 .. Item_Data.COUNT loop update FL_ITEM_REGION_TEST set Region = Item_Data(recIndex).Region, Long_description = Item_Data(recIndex).Long_description, Pos_Description = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_description, Pos_Dept = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_dept, Item_Size = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Size, Item_Uom = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Uom, Brand = Item_Data(recIndex).Brand, Item_Status = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Status, Timestamp = to_date(Item_Data(recIndex).Time_stamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd HH24:mi:ss'), CostedByWeight = Item_Data(recIndex).CostedByWeight where UPC = Item_Data(recIndex).UPC; log_message(Item_Data(recIndex).Region, '', 'Updated item ' || Item_Data(recIndex).UPC || '.'); end loop; EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN errcode := SQLCODE(); errmsg := SQLERRM(); log_message('CE', '', 'Error in Update_Item_Region_table(): Code [' || errcode || '], Msg [' || errmsg || '] ...'); END; In my BizTalk project I generate the schemas and binding information for both stored procedures. For the Oracle procedure, I specified a path for the GeneratedUserTypesAssemblyFilePath parameter to generate a DLL to contain the definition of the data types. In the Send Port on the server, I put the path to that Types DLL in the UserAssembliesLoadPath parameter. I created a map to translate the GetItemChanges() schema to the Update_Item_Region_Table() schema. When I run it the data is extracted and transformed fine but causes an exception trying to pass the data to the Oracle proc: *The adapter failed to transmit message going to send port "WcfSendPort_OracleDBBinding_HOST_DATA_Procedure_Custom" with URL "oracledb://dvotst/". It will be retransmitted after the retry interval specified for this Send Port. Details:"System.InvalidOperationException: Custom type mapping for 'HOST_DATA.TBL_OF_REC' is not specified or is invalid.* So it is apparently not getting the information about the custom data type TBL_OF_REC into the Types DLL. Any tips on how to make this work?

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  • calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

    - by Eyla
    I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

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  • VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

    - by Camilo Martin
    Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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  • Windows repair console, imposible?

    - by user276345
    Hi guys, I found an old Windows XP SP2 in my -trash- cd can and tryed it on a 30 gb FAT32 partition. Installation went fine till the copying operation was completed and XP asked for reboot. After that either it starts over again or throws invalid disk. Starting over is an infinite loop the only way I see is to choose the "Repair console" but i'm not used to a dos box. Can anyone help me through this harmful instalation? Cheers, Daniel

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  • jquery, manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

    - by Cody
    I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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  • MUD (game) design concept question about timed events.

    - by mudder
    I'm trying my hand at building a MUD (multiplayer interactive-fiction game) I'm in the design/conceptualizing phase and I've run into a problem that I can't come up with a solution for. I'm hoping some more experienced programmers will have some advice. Here's the problem as best I can explain it. When the player decides to perform an action he sends a command to the server. the server then processes the command, determines whether or not the action can be performed, and either does it or responds with a reason as to why it could not be done. One reason that an action might fail is that the player is busy doing something else. For instance, if a player is mid-fight and has just swung a massive broadsword, it might take 3 seconds before he can repeat this action. If the player attempts to swing again to soon, the game will respond indicating that he must wait x seconds before doing that. Now, this I can probably design without much trouble. The problem I'm having is how I can replicate this behavior from AI creatures. All of the events that are being performed by the server ON ITS OWN, aka not as an immediate reaction to something a player has done, will have to be time sensitive. Some evil monster has cast a spell on you but must wait 30 seconds before doing it again... I think I'll probably be adding all these events to some kind of event queue, but how can I make that event queue time sensitive?

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