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  • Development environment for ASP.NET with EpiServer

    - by Binary255
    At our company we are going to develop more for the Windows platform than we have done up until now. As this scale of Windows development is new to us it would be nice with some feedback from experienced developers. Requirements we have: 5 developers from the beginning. 15 developers a year from now. All developers should be able to develop at the same time. Be able to develop solution for ASP.NET and EpiServer 5. Our idea: A shared server which developers use for development through Terminal Services. SQL Server Express. Start with some free express edition of Visual Studio, upgrade to a commercial version if we need the additional features. Use IIS and not the web server built into Visual Studio. Questions: Are we on the right track? In terms of license costs the above should be cheapest, right? What do you think about multiple developers doing development using a shared TS-server? Do you know of any company which has a similar development environment? Are we going to miss some features of the full Visual Studio version immediately? Is using Express version a bad choice? Is IIS the best choice? If use IIS the developers may use the same port for deployment. If we use the built in web server each one has to set their own port as we're sharing a machine. Comment answer: We are thinking about a shared server as it will most likely decrease the license costs. So it's purely a cost issue. We are using CVS for version control. Our situation is that we develop on Mac and Linux, that's why buying 1 server license + Visual Studio licenses seems to be a cost effective way of starting this type of development.

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  • How to use ASP.NET Routing in a Quote of the Day Website

    - by SidC
    Good Afternoon, A client is interested in creating an ASP.NET 2.0 website whose purpose is to serve up a "quote of the day". He wants the quotes on static content pages all attached to the same master page. The quote pages must be viewed in a certain sequence, and site browsers cannot view any other pages than the starting page when browsing to the site. That is, everyone must go to page 001.aspx when entering the site. Two Questions: 1. The content pages are going to be created by the client using an excel data source and a merge process by which each quote page is created eg. 001.aspx, 002.aspx etc. This seems clunky to me at best. Would ASP.NET Dynamic Data be a better solution here? I'm new to ASP.NET Routing and URL Rewriting as a whole. How would I setup a route table to ensure that users always entered the site on the same entry page, and create a route table such that default.aspx resolves to 001.aspx? Thanks, Sid

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  • Exclude debug javascript code during minification

    - by Tauren
    I looking into different ways to minify my javascript code including the regular JSMin, Packer, and YUI solutions. I'm really interested in the new Google Closure Compiler, as it looks exceptionally powerful. I noticed that Dean Edwards packer has a feature to exclude lines of code that start with three semicolons. This is handy to exclude debug code. For instance: ;;; console.log("Starting process"); I'm spending some time cleaning up my codebase and would like to add hints like this to easily exclude debug code. In preparation for this, I'd like to figure out if this is the best solution, or if there are other techniques. Because I haven't chosen how to minify yet, I'd like to clean the code in a way that is compatible with whatever minifier I end up going with. So my questions are these: Is using the semicolons a standard technique, or are there other ways to do it? Is Packer the only solution that provides this feature? Can the other solutions be adapted to work this way as well, or do they have alternative ways of accomplishing this? I will probably start using Closure Compiler eventually. Is there anything I should do now that would prepare for it?

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  • Replacing/Extending Visual Studio's Generate Stub in Visual Studio 2010

    - by devoured elysium
    When we write the name of a method that doesn't exist, Visual Studio 2010 asks us if we'd like to generate a method stub with that name. What I'd like to know if is it possible to replace that same code stub generating command with one made by myself. I never did any kind of extensibility programming for Visual Studio so I have a couple of questions: How hard is it? Is it something I can learn in a couple of nights, or is it something that'll make me "lose" a lot of time? It seems to me that there isn't a lot of support for that kind of programming, as generally people are not that interested in developing solutions that extend the Visual Studio IDE. I searched on SO and it doesn't appear to have many threads about extending Visual Studio. I don't know how the generate method stub thing works in Visual Studio, but I just wanted to turn it into something a bit more flexible and useful. Has anyone dealt with these kind of things before, that can give me a pointer to where to start? I know of MS VSX site but that has a lot of resources and can be overwhelming for someone new to the subject as I am. What technology will I need to use? T4? Maybe I'll need to know a lot about the code, like Visual Studio does, so I can know other method's type arguments, names, etc. Is that what T4 is for? Thanks

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  • Hibernate: Dirty Checking and Only Update of Dirty Attributes?

    - by jens
    Hello Experts, in "good old JDBC days" I wrote a lot of SQL Queries that did very targeted updates of only the "attributes/members" that were actually changed: For Example having an object with the following members: public String name; public String address; public Date date; If only date was changed in some Business Method I would only issue an SQL UPDATE for the date member. ==It seems however (thats my "impression" of hibernate) that when working with a standard Hibernate mapping (mapping the full class), even updates of only one single member lead to a full update of the object in SQL Statements generated by Hibernate. My Questions are: 1.) Is this observation correct, that hibernate DOES NOT intelligently check (in a fully mapped class), what member(s) where changed and then only issue updates for the specific changed members, but rather always will update (in the generated SQL Update Statement) all mapped members (of a class), even if they were not changed (in case the object is dirty due to one member being dirty...) 2.) What can I do to make Hibernate only update those members, that have been changed? I am searching for a solution to have hibernate only update the member that actually changed. (I know hibernate does some big work on doing dirty-checking, but as far as I know this dirtychecking is only relevant to identify if the object as whole is dirty, not what single member is dirty.) Thank you very much! Jens

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  • Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

    - by aioobe
    I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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  • Should I store generated code in source control

    - by Ron Harlev
    This is a debate I'm taking a part in. I would like to get more opinions and points of view. We have some classes that are generated in build time to handle DB operations (in This specific case, with SubSonic, but I don't think it is very important for the question). The generation is set as a pre-build step in Visual Studio. So every time a developer (or the official build process) runs a build, these classes are generated, and then compiled into the project. Now some people are claiming, that having these classes saved in source control could cause confusion, in case the code you get, doesn't match what would have been generated in your own environment. I would like to have a way to trace back the history of the code, even if it is usually treated as a black box. Any arguments or counter arguments? UPDATE: I asked this question since I really believed there is one definitive answer. Looking at all the responses, I could say with high level of certainty, that there is no such answer. The decision should be made based on more than one parameter. Reading the answers below could provide a very good guideline to the types of questions you should be asking yourself when having to decide on this issue. I won't select an accepted answer at this point for the reasons mentioned above.

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  • what is the exact way to use Endorsed directory in jdk1.6

    - by raticulin
    I want to upgrade my jaxws to 2.2 (jdk1.6 comes bundled with jaxws 2.1). My jdk is (I did not install public jre): java version "1.6.0_20" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_20-b02) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 16.3-b01, mixed mode) In jaxws' own doc they explain how to do it: One way to fix this is to copy jaxws-api.jar and jaxb-api.jar into JRE endorsed directory, which is $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed (or $JDK_HOME/jre/lib/endorsed) But I am not sure this is having any effect in my installation. For starters I have only defined %JAVA_HOME%. And folder $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed is inexistant, so I created and copied the two jars. But if I do (wsgen is a tool from jaxws) wsgen -version I still get: JAX-WS RI 2.1.6 in JDK 6 I also tried creating folder JAVA_HOME\jre\lib\endorsed (notice that in the doc they say JDK_HOME, but as I only have JAVA_HOME I used this path). Still same wsgen output. My questions are: What is the difference between JAVA_HOME and JDK_HOME in the doc page? anything significant or just two ways to refer to JAVA_HOME ? Is 'wsgen -version' a valid way to check jaxws version that is used or this always calls the exe in the original jdk, but it does not mean endorsed jars will be used? Anyone knows very detailed steps to install jaxws2.2 in a jdk.16?

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • jquery: prepopulating autocomplete fields

    - by David Tildon
    I'm using the tokenizing autocomplete plugin for jquery ( http://loopj.com/2009/04/25/jquery-plugin-tokenizing-autocomplete-text-entry ). I mostly use Ruby, and I'm really unfamiliar with javascript, though. My basic setup looks like this, and works fine for a new, blank form: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search" }); }); The problem comes when I try to prepopulate it, like for an edit page. I'm trying to do something like this (where the "#tag_ids_field" text box contains the JSON when the page is loaded - that way is just cleaner on the application side of things). $(document).ready(function () { var tags = $("#tag_ids_field").html(); $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: tags }); }); However, when the page loads I see that it's just filled with hundreds of entries that read 'undefined'. I get this even if I take the JSON output that Rails provides and try sticking it right in the .js file: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: "[{\"id\":\"44\",\"name\":\"omnis sit impedit et numquam voluptas enim\"},{\"id\":\"515\",\"name\":\"deserunt odit id doloremque reiciendis aliquid qui vel\"},{\"id\":\"943\",\"name\":\"exercitationem numquam possimus quasi iste nisi illum\"}]" }); }); That's obviously not a solution, I just tried it out of frustration and I get the same behavior. My two questions: One, why are my text boxes being filled with "undefined" tags when I try to prepopulate, and how can I get them to prepopulate successfully? Two, I'm planning on having many autocomplete fields like this on the same page (for when several records are edited at once - they all query the same place). How can I make each autocomplete field take it's prepopulated values from it's own textbox? Something like (applying these settings to all input boxes with a certain class, not just the one of a particular id): $(document).ready(function () { $(".tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: (the contents of that particular ".tag_ids_field" input box) }); });

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  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

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  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

    - by Jay
    A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

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  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • android logging sdcard

    - by Abhi Rao
    Hello, With Android-Emulator I am not able to write/create a file on the SD Card (for logging). Here is what I have done so far - Run mksdcard 8192K C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard\emu_logFile - Create a new AVD, when assign emu_logFile to it so that when I view the AVD Details it says C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard\emu_logFile against the field "SD Card" - Here is the relevant code public class ZLogger { static PrintWriter zLogWriter = null; private static void Initialize() { try { File sdDir = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); if (sdDir.canWrite()) { : File logFile = new File (sdDir, VERSION.RELEASE + "_" + ".log"); FileWriter logFileWriter = new FileWriter(logFile); zLogWriter = new PrintWriter(logFileWriter); zLogWriter.write("\n\n - " + date + " - \n"); } } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("ZLogger", "Count not write to file: " + e.getMessage()); } } sdDir.canWrite returns false - please note it not the exception from adb shell when I do ls I see sdcard as link to /mnt/sdcard. When I do ls -l /mnt here is what I see ls -l /mnt ls -l /mnt drwxr-xr-x root system 2010-12-24 03:41 asec drwx------ root root 2010-12-24 03:41 secure d--------- system system 2010-12-24 03:41 sdcard whereas if I go to the directory where I created emu_sdcard - I see a lock has been issued, as shown here C:dir android-dev\emu_sdcard Volume in drive C is Preload Volume Serial Number is A4F3-6C29 Directory of C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard 12/24/2010 03:41 AM . 12/24/2010 03:41 AM .. 12/24/2010 03:17 AM 8,388,608 emu_logFile 12/24/2010 03:41 AM emu_logFile.lock 1 File(s) 8,388,608 bytes 3 Dir(s) 50,347,704,320 bytes free I have looked at these and other SO questions Android Emulator sdcard push error: Read-only file system (2) Not able to view SDCard folder in the FileExplorer of Android Eclipse I have added the following to AndroidManifest.xml **uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" ** Please let me know your thoughts - what am I missing here? Why does canWrite return false? What should I do to add permissions to sdcard?

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  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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  • Function syntax puzzler in scalaz

    - by oxbow_lakes
    Following watching Nick Partidge's presentation on deriving scalaz, I got to looking at this example, which is just awesome: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ def even(x: Int) : Validation[NonEmptyList[String], Int] = if (x % 2 ==0) x.success else "not even: %d".format(x).wrapNel.fail println( even(3) <|*|> even(5) ) //prints: Failure(NonEmptyList(not even: 3, not even: 5)) I was trying to understand what the <|*|> method was doing, here is the source code: def <|*|>[B](b: M[B])(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[(A, B)] = <**>(b, (_: A, _: B)) OK, that is fairly confusing (!) - but it references the <**> method, which is declared thus: def <**>[B, C](b: M[B], z: (A, B) => C)(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[C] = a(t.fmap(value, z.curried), b) So I have a few questions: How come the method appears to take a monad of one type parameter (M[B]) but can get passed a Validation (which has two type paremeters)? How does the syntax (_: A, _: B) define the function (A, B) => C which the 2nd method expects? It doesn't even define an output via =>

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  • How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

    - by nahsra
    I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

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  • DjangoUnicodeDecodeError while storing pickle'd data.

    - by Jack M.
    I've got a simple dict object I'm trying to store in the database after it has been run through pickle. It seems that Django doesn't like trying to encode this error. I've checked with MySQL, and the query isn't even getting there before it is throwing the error, so I don't believe that is the problem. The dict I'm storing looks like this: { 'ordered': [ { 'value': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', 'label': u'Full Name' }, { 'value': u'123-456-7890', 'label': u'Phone Number' }, { 'value': u'[email protected]', 'label': u'Email Address' } ], 'cleaned_data': { u'Phone Number': u'123-456-7890', u'Full Name': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', u'Email Address': u'[email protected]' }, 'post_data': <QueryDict: { u'Phone Number': [u'1234567890'], u'Full Name_1': [u'Last\xd1ame'], u'Full Name_0': [u'First\xd1ame'], u'Email Address': [u'[email protected]'] }>, 'user': <User: itis> } The error that gets thrown is: 'utf8' codec can't decode bytes in position 52-53: invalid data. Position 52-53 is the first instance of \xd1 (Ñ) in the pickled data. So far, I've dug around StackOverflow and found a few questions where the database encoding for the objects was wrong. This doesn't help me because there is no MySQL query yet. This is happening before the database. Google also didn't help much when searching for unicode errors on pickled data. It is probably worth mentioning that if I don't use the Ñ, this code works fine.

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  • Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

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  • Help to understand the issue with protected method

    - by zeroed
    I'm reading Sybex Complete Java 2 Certification Study Guide April 2005 (ISBN0782144195). This book is for java developers who wants to pass java certification. After a chapter about access modifiers (along with other modifiers) I found the following question (#17): True or false: If class Y extends class X, the two classes are in different packages, and class X has a protected method called abby(), then any instance of Y may call the abby() method of any other instance of Y. This question confused me a little. As far as I know you can call protected method on any variable of the same class (or subclasses). You cannot call it on variables, that higher in the hierarchy than you (e.g. interfaces that you implement). For example, you cannot clone any object just because you inherit it. But the questions says nothing about variable type, only about instance type. I was confused a little and answered "true". The answer in the book is False. An object that inherits a protected method from a superclass in a different package may call that method on itself but not on other instances of the same class. There is nothing here about variable type, only about instance type. This is very strange, I do not understand it. Can anybody explain what is going on here?

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