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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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• data ownership and performance

  - by Ami

  We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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• Trying to create a group of button sprites

  - by user1449653

  Good day, I have like 15 images I need to be buttons. I have buttons working with a Box() (Box - looks like this) class Box(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.Surface((35, 30)) self.image = self.image.convert() self.image.fill((255, 0, 0)) self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.centerx = 25 self.rect.centery = 505 self.dx = 10 self.dy = 10 I am trying to make the buttons work with image sprites. So I attempted to copy the class style of the box and do the same for my Icons.. code looks like this... class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.x = 25 self.rect.y = 550 the code in the main() rect = image.get_rect() rect.x = 25 rect.y = 550 ic1 = Icons((screen.get_rect().x, screen.get_rect().y)) screen.blit(ic1.image, ic1.rect) pygame.display.update() This code produces a positional (accepts 1 argument but 2 are there) error or an image is not referenced error (inside the Icon class). I'm unsure if this is the right way to go about this anyways.. I know for sure that I need to load all the images (as sprites)... store them in an array... and then have my mouse check if it is clicking one of the items in the array using a for loop. Thanks. EDIT QUESTION 2: class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def init(self, *args): pygame.sprite.Sprite.init(self, *args) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic1 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 490 self.image = pygame.image.load("images/fillIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic2 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 540 Thanks to your help I got the Icons class loading ONE image. Its not loading both. Obviously because its being overwritten by the second one. It seems that "class" for this purpose isn't what I need. Which begs the question how I make sprites outside of a class.. If there is a way to make the class work please let me know.

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• Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

  - by Sarah

  Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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• PHP sleep() excution sequence while echoeing.

  - by Babiker

  I have the following: echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; I wrote the preceding code with intention to echo time()."<br>" ln 1,echo time()."<br>" ln 4, wait a final second and then echo the final time()."<br>". Altough the time bieng echoed is correct when it comes to the intervals between time(), all echo functions are echoeing after the total of the waiting period/parameters in each sleep function. This is how the script runs: Excutes. Waits 2 secons. echoes 1275540664 1275540665 1275540666 Notice the correct incrementation in time() being echoed. My question is why is it not behaving like expected to where it echoes, waits a second, echoes again, waits one final second and then echos the last parameter? I know my question is a little confusing due to my wording, but i will try my hardest to answer any comments regarding this, thanks.

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• Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

  - by przno

  I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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• How to accommodate for the next iPhones totally different screen resolution?

  - by mystify

  This is a programming question! Read on before you vote to close! According to Gizmodo, the next iPhone will have a new screen resolution: The 3.5-inch screen has a resolution of 960?×?640 pixels This little detail affects our apps in a heavy way. Most of the demo apps on the net have one thing in common: They position views in the believe that the screen has a fixed size of 320 x 480 pixels. So what most -if not all- developers do is: They designed everything in such a way, that a touchable area is -for example- 50 x 50 pixels big. Just enough to tap it. Things have been positioned relative to the upper left, to reach a specific position on screen - let's say the center, or somewhere at the bottom. So the big question is: How will the developers compensate their layout and graphics? Are there already solutions which can be used to calculate coordinates and sizes in a normalized manner, which then appear to be exactly the same when viewing them on a screen of any resolution, assuming at least that the aspect ration won't change? This is community wiki. Just add anything that you think is relevant to this huge problem (constant screen res was one of the main reasons why I didn't go for Android!!).

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• Determine asymmetric latencies in a network

  - by BeeOnRope

  Imagine you have many clustered servers, across many hosts, in a heterogeneous network environment, such that the connections between servers may have wildly varying latencies and bandwidth. You want to build a map of the connections between servers my transferring data between them. Of course, this map may become stale over time as the network topology changes - but lets ignore those complexities for now and assume the network is relatively static. Given the latencies between nodes in this host graph, calculating the bandwidth is a relative simply timing exercise. I'm having more difficulty with the latencies - however. To get round-trip time, it is a simple matter of timing a return-trip ping from the local host to a remote host - both timing events (start, stop) occur on the local host. What if I want one-way times under the assumption that the latency is not equal in both directions? Assuming that the clocks on the various hosts are not precisely synchronized (at least that their error is of the the same magnitude as the latencies involved) - how can I calculate the one-way latency? In a related question - is this asymmetric latency (where a link is quicker in direction than the other) common in practice? For what reasons/hardware configurations? Certainly I'm aware of asymmetric bandwidth scenarios, especially on last-mile consumer links such as DSL and Cable, but I'm not so sure about latency. Added: After considering the comment below, the second portion of the question is probably better off on serverfault.

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• Passing user_id, site_id, and question_id to same table on create...

  - by bgadoci

  I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I am trying to pass four different variables to a single table. To be more specific I am trying to create a "like" in a likes table that also captures the site_id (like an answer), user_id, and the question_id. Here is the set up. class Like < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end I will spare you the reverse, has_many associations but they are there. Here is the likes controller where I think the problem is. class LikesController < ApplicationController def create @user = current_user @site = Site.find(params[:site_id]) @like = @site.likes.create!(params[:like]) @like.user = current_user @like.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @site} format.js end end end This code successfully passes the like and site_id but after many different variations of trying I can't get it to pass the question id. Here is my form: /views/sites/_site.html.erb (though the partial is being displayed in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file). <% remote_form_for [site, Like.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :site_name, :value => "#{site.name}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :ip_address, :value => "#{request.remote_ip}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :like, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "^" , :class => 'voteup' %> <% end %>

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• Why would one want to use the public constructors on Boolean and similar immutable classes?

  - by Robert J. Walker

  (For the purposes of this question, let us assume that one is intentionally not using auto(un)boxing, either because one is writing pre-Java 1.5 code, or because one feels that autounboxing makes it too easy to create NullPointerExceptions.) Take Boolean, for example. The documentation for the Boolean(boolean) constructor says: Note: It is rarely appropriate to use this constructor. Unless a new instance is required, the static factory valueOf(boolean) is generally a better choice. It is likely to yield significantly better space and time performance. My question is, why would you ever want to get a new instance in the first place? It seems like things would be simpler if constructors like that were private. For example, if they were, you could write this with no danger (even if myBoolean were null): if (myBoolean == Boolean.TRUE) It'd be safe because all true Booleans would be references to Boolean.TRUE and all false Booleans would be references to Boolean.FALSE. But because the constructors are public, someone may have used them, which means that you have to write this instead: if (Boolean.TRUE.equals(myBoolean)) But where it really gets bad is when you want to check two Booleans for equality. Something like this: if (myBooleanA == myBooleanB) ...becomes this: if ( (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanB == null) || (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanA.equals(myBooleanB)) ) I can't think of any reason to have separate instances of these objects which is more compelling than not having to do the nonsense above. What say you?

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• Arrays not counting correctly

  - by Nick Gibson

  I know I was just asking a question earlier facepalm This is in Java coding by the way. Well after everyones VERY VERY helpful advice (thank you guys alot) I managed to get over half of the program running how I wanted. Everything is pointing in the arrays where I want them to go. Now I just need to access the arrays so that It prints the correct information randomly. This is the current code that im using: http://pastebin.org/301483 The specific code giving me problems is this: long aa; int abc; for (int i = 0; i < x; i++) { aa = Math.round(Math.random()*10); String str = Long.toString(aa); abc = Integer.parseInt(str); String[] userAnswer = new String[x]; if(abc > x) { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Number is too high. \nNumber Generator will reset."); break; } userAnswer[i] = JOptionPane.showInputDialog(null,"Question "+quesNum+"\n"+questions[abc]+"\n\nA: "+a[abc]+"\nB: "+b[abc]+"\nC: "+c[abc]+"\nD: "+d[abc]); answer = userAnswer[i].compareTo(answers[i]); if(answer == 0) { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Correct. \nThe Correct Answer is "+answers[abc]+""+i); } else { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Wrong. \n The Correct Answer is "+answers[abc]+""+i); }//else

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• Nested bind expressions

  - by user328543

  This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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• Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

  - by Rob Bonner

  Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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• Why do people keep parsing HTML using regex? [closed]

  - by polygenelubricants

  As much as I love regular expressions, it's obvious to me that it's not the best tool for parsing HTML, especially given the numerous good HTML parsers out there. And yet there are numerous questions on stackoverflow that attempts to parse HTML using regex. And people would always point out what a bad idea that is in the comments. And the accepted answer would often have a disclaimer how this isn't really the ideal way of doing things. But based on the constant flow of questions, it still seems that people keep parsing HTML using regex, despite the perceived difficulty in reading and maintaining it (and that's putting correctness aside for now). So my question is: why? Is it because it's easy to learn? Is it because it's faster? Is it because it's the industry standard? Is it because there are already so many reusable regexes to build from? Is it because 100% correctness is never really the objective? (90% good enough?) etc... I'd also like to hear from the downvoters why they did so. Is it because: There's absolutely nothing wrong with using regex to parse HTML and asking "Why?" is just dumb? The premise of the question is flawed because the people who are using regex to parse HTML is such a small minority?

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• jQuery: responding to click event of element added to document after page load

  - by morpheous

  I am writing a page which uses a lot of in situ editing and updating using jQuery for AJAX. I have come accross a problem which can best be summarised by the workflow described below: Clicking on 'element1' on the page results in a jQuery AJAX POST Data is received in json format The data received in json format The received data is used to update an existing element 'results' in the page The received data is actual an HTML form I want jQuery to be responsible for POSTing the form when the form button is clicked The problem arises at point 6 above. I have code in my main page which looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('img#inserted_form_btn').click(function(){ $.ajax({'type: 'POST', 'url': 'www.example.com', function($data){ $(data.id).html($data.frm); }), 'dataType': 'json'} }); }); However, the event is not being triggered. I think this is because when the document is first loaded, the img#inserted_form_btn element does not exist on the page (it is inserted into the DOM as the result of an element being clicked on the page (not shown in the code above - to keep the question short) My question therefore is: how can I get jQuery to be able to respond to events occuring in elements that were added to the DOM AFTER the page has loaded?

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• Are Thread.stop and friends ever safe in Java?

  - by Stephen C

  The stop(), suspend(), and resume() in java.lang.Thread are deprecated because they are unsafe. The Sun recommended work around is to use Thread.interrupt(), but that approach doesn't work in all cases. For example, if you are call a library method that doesn't explicitly or implicitly check the interrupted flag, you have no choice but to wait for the call to finish. So, I'm wondering if it is possible to characterize situations where it is (provably) safe to call stop() on a Thread. For example, would it be safe to stop() a thread that did nothing but call find(...) or match(...) on a java.util.regex.Matcher? (If there are any Sun engineers reading this ... a definitive answer would be really appreciated.) EDIT: Answers that simply restate the mantra that you should not call stop() because it is deprecated, unsafe, whatever are missing the point of this question. I know that that it is genuinely unsafe in the majority of cases, and that if there is a viable alternative you should always use that instead. This question is about the subset cases where it is safe. Specifically, what is that subset?

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• Ping script with email in vbs

  - by matthias

  Hello, i know i ask the question about the ping script but now i have a new question about it :-) I hope someone can help me again. strText = "here comes the mail message" strFile = "test.log" PingForever strHost, strFile Sub PingForever(strHost, outputfile) Dim Output, Shell, strCommand, ReturnCode Set Output = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject").OpenTextFile(outputfile, 8, True) Set Shell = CreateObject("wscript.shell") strCommand = "ping -n 1 -w 300 " & strHost While(True) ReturnCode = Shell.Run(strCommand, 0, True) If ReturnCode = 0 Then Output.WriteLine Date() & " - " & Time & " | " & strHost & " - ONLINE" Else Output.WriteLine Date() & " - " & Time & " | " & strHost & " - OFFLINE" Set objEmail = CreateObject("CDO.Message") objEmail.From = "[email protected]" objEmail.To = "[email protected]" objEmail.Subject = "Computer" & strHost & " is offline" objEmail.Textbody = strText objEmail.Configuration.Fields.Item _ ("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/sendusing") = 2 objEmail.Configuration.Fields.Item _ ("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserver") = _ "smtpadress" objEmail.Configuration.Fields.Item _ ("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserverport") = 25 objEmail.Configuration.Fields.Update objEmail.Send End If Wscript.Sleep 2000 Wend End Sub My problem is now, the mail comes all 2 seconds, when the computer are offline. Can someone show me how to make it with flags? So only one mail comes when its offline? Thanks for your help.

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• Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

  - by JustJeff

  I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

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• Removing most inline styles and properties with PHP

  - by bakkelun

  This question is related to a similar case, namely http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2488950/removing-inline-styles-using-php The solution there does not remove i.e: <font face="Tahoma" size="4"> But let's say I have a mixed bag of inline styles and properties, like this: <ul style="padding: 5px; margin: 5px;"> <li style="padding: 2px;"><div style="border:2px solid green;">Some text</div></li> <li style="padding: 2px;"><font face="arial,helvetica,sans-serif" size="2">Some text</font></li> <li style="padding: 2px;"><font face="arial,helvetica,sans-serif" size="2">Some text</font></li> </ul> What regExp is needed to achieve this result? <ul> <li><div>Some text</div></li> <li><font>Some text</font></li> <li><font>Some text</font></li> </ul> Thanks for reading the question, any help is appreciated.

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• Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

  - by lowkey

  Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

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• How can I filter then modify e-mails using IMAP?

  - by swolff1978

  I have asked this question in a different post here on SO: How can a read receipt be suppressed? I have been doing some research of my own to try and solve this problem and accessing the e-mail account via IMAP seems like it is going to be a good solution. I have successfully been able to access my own Inbox and mark messages as read with no issue. I have been asked to preform the same task on an Inbox that contains over 23,000 emails. I would like to run the test on a small amount of e-mails from that inbox before letting the whole 23,000 get it. Here is the code I have been running via telnet: . LOGIN [email protected] password . SELECT Inbox . STORE 1:* flags \Seen 'this line marks all the e-mails as read So my question is how can i execute that store command on a specific group of e-mails... say emails that are going to / coming from a specific account? Is there a way to like concatenate the commands? like a FETCH then the STORE? Or is there a better way to go about getting a collection of e-mails based on certain criteria and then modifying ONLY those e-mails that can be accomplished through IMAP?

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• What programming language do you wish would quietly retire? [closed]

  - by Gregory Higley

  This is the inverse of the "What programming language do you wish would catch on?" question. I was a Delphi programmer for many years, and I still appreciate its power, but I dislike verbose programming languages. So I would love to see Pascal put out to pasture. The same goes for BASIC in any form, despite the fact that it's the language I cut my teeth on. When I look at cathedrals of beauty like Haskell and REBOL, BASIC just makes me cringe. (VB.NET is tolerable, but barely. It has a few nice language features I'd like to see moved to C#.) My dislike of Pascal and VB.NET is subjective. They are powerful languages, but I dislike their syntax esthetically. Try to explain your reasoning, if you can, even if it's just "I don't like its syntax." This question is not meant to be a flame war, argumentative, or hateful. It's meant to be a straightforward, honest discussion of programmers' dislikes.

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• C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

  - by awshepard

  Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

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• Temporarily disable vim plugin without relaunching

  - by simont

  I'm using c-support in Vim. One of it's features is the automatic comment expansion. When I'm pasting code into Vim from an external editor, the comments are expanded (which gives me double-comments and messes up the paste - see below for example). I'd like to be able to disable the plugin, paste, then re-enable it, without relaunching Vim. I'm not sure if this is possible. The SO questions here, here and here all describe methods to disable plugins, but they all require me to close Vim, mess with my .vimrc or similar, and relaunch; if I have to close Vim, I might as well cat file1 >> myfile; vim myfile, then shift the lines internally, which will be just as quick. Is it possible to disable a plugin while running vim without relaunching, preferably in a way which allows me to map a hot-key toggle-plugin (so re-sourcing ~/.vimrc is alright; that's mappable to a hotkey [I imagine, haven't tried it yet])? Messed up comments: /* * * Authors: * * A Name * * * * Copyright: * * A Name, 2012 * */ EDIT: It turns out you can :set paste, :set nopaste (which, to quote :help paste, will "avoid unexpected effects [while pasting]". (See the comments). However, I'm still curious whether you can disable/enable a plugin as per the original question, so I shall leave the question open.

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