Search Results

Search found 19256 results on 771 pages for 'css tables'.

Page 435/771 | < Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >

  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery with Windows 8 Metro JavaScript App causes security error

    - by patridge
    Since it sounded like jQuery was an option for Metro JavaScript apps, I was starting to look forward to Windows 8 dev. I installed Visual Studio 2012 Express RC and started a new project (both empty and grid templates have the same problem). I made a local copy of jQuery 1.7.2 and added it as a script reference. <!-- SomeTestApp references --> <link href="/css/default.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script src="/js/jquery-1.7.2.js"></script> <script src="/js/default.js"></script> Unfortunately, as soon as I ran the resulting app it tosses out a console error: HTML1701: Unable to add dynamic content ' a' A script attempted to inject dynamic content, or elements previously modified dynamically, that might be unsafe. For example, using the innerHTML property to add script or malformed HTML will generate this exception. Use the toStaticHTML method to filter dynamic content, or explicitly create elements and attributes with a method such as createElement. For more information, see http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=247104. I slapped a breakpoint in a non-minified version of jQuery and found the offending line: div.innerHTML = " <link/><table></table><a href='/a' style='top:1px;float:left;opacity:.55;'>a</a><input type='checkbox'/>"; Apparently, the security model for Metro apps forbids creating elements this way. This error doesn't cause any immediate issues for the user, but given its location, I am worried it will cause capability-discovery tests in jQuery to fail that shouldn't. I definitely want jQuery $.Deferred for making just about everything easier. I would prefer to be able to use the selector engine and event handling systems, but I would live without them if I had to. How does one get the latest jQuery to play nicely with Metro development?

    Read the article

  • Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being updated frequently by some services. I have a c# Winforms Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

    Read the article

  • How do I establish table association in JPA / Hibernate with existing database?

    - by Paperino
    Currently I have two tables in my database Encounters and Referrals: There is a one to many relationship between these two tables. Currently they are linked together with foreign keys. Right now I have public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { @Column(name="referralid", unique=false, nullable=true, insertable=true, updatable=true) public Integer referralid; } But what I really want is public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { .......... @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<Referrals> referral; ............ } So that I can eventually do a query like this: List<Encounter> cases = Encounter.find( "select distinct p from Encounter p join p.referrals as t where t.caseid =103" ).fetch(); How do I tell JPA that even though I have non-standard column names for my foreign keys and primary keys that its the object models that I want linked, not simply the integer value for the keys? Does this make sense? I hope so. Thanks in advanced!

    Read the article

  • EF Many-to-many dbset.Include in DAL on GenericRepository

    - by Bryant
    I can't get the QueryObjectGraph to add INCLUDE child tables if my life depended on it...what am I missing? Stuck for third day on something that should be simple :-/ DAL: public abstract class RepositoryBase<T> where T : class { private MyLPL2Context dataContext; private readonly IDbSet<T> dbset; protected RepositoryBase(IDatabaseFactory databaseFactory) { DatabaseFactory = databaseFactory; dbset = DataContext.Set<T>(); DataContext.Configuration.LazyLoadingEnabled = true; } protected IDatabaseFactory DatabaseFactory { get; private set; } protected MyLPL2Context DataContext { get { return dataContext ?? (dataContext = DatabaseFactory.Get()); } } public IQueryable<T> QueryObjectGraph(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter, params string[] children) { foreach (var child in children) { dbset.Include(child); } return dbset.Where(filter); } ... DAL repositories public interface IBreed_TranslatedSqlRepository : ISqlRepository<Breed_Translated> { } public class Breed_TranslatedSqlRepository : RepositoryBase<Breed_Translated>, IBreed_TranslatedSqlRepository { public Breed_TranslatedSqlRepository(IDatabaseFactory databaseFactory) : base(databaseFactory) {} } BLL Repo: public IQueryable<Breed_Translated> QueryObjectGraph(Expression<Func<Breed_Translated, bool>> filter, params string[] children) { return _r.QueryObjectGraph(filter, children); } Controller: var breeds1 = _breedTranslatedRepository .QueryObjectGraph(b => b.Culture == culture, new string[] { "AnimalType_Breed" }) .ToList(); I can't get to Breed.AnimalType_Breed.AnimalTypeId ..I can drill as far as Breed.AnimalType_Breed then the intelisense expects an expression? Cues if any, DB Tables: bold is many-to-many Breed, Breed_Translated, AnimalType_Breed, AnimalType, ...

    Read the article

  • How Can i Create This Complicated Query ?

    - by mTuran
    Hi, I have 3 tables: projects, skills and project_skills. In projects table i hold project's general data. Second table skills i hold skill id and skill name also i have projects_skills table which is hold project's skill relationships. Here is scheme of tables: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `project_skills` ( `project_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `skill_id` int(11) NOT NULL, KEY `project_id` (`project_id`), KEY `skill_id` (`skill_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_turkish_ci; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `projects` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `employer_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `project_title` varchar(100) COLLATE utf8_turkish_ci NOT NULL, `project_description` text COLLATE utf8_turkish_ci NOT NULL, `project_budget` int(11) NOT NULL, `project_allowedtime` int(11) NOT NULL, `project_deadline` datetime NOT NULL, `total_bids` int(11) NOT NULL, `average_bid` int(11) NOT NULL, `created` datetime NOT NULL, `active` tinyint(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `created` (`created`), KEY `employer_id` (`employer_id`), KEY `active` (`active`), FULLTEXT KEY `project_title` (`project_title`,`project_description`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_turkish_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=3 ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `skills` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `category` int(11) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(100) COLLATE utf8_turkish_ci NOT NULL, `seo_name` varchar(100) COLLATE utf8_turkish_ci NOT NULL, `total_projects` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `seo_name` (`seo_name`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_turkish_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=224 ; I want to select projects with related skill names. I think i have to use JOIN but i don't know how can i do. Thanks

    Read the article

  • [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

    - by pbean
    I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

    Read the article

  • Cannot send HTML Emails

    - by Zen Savona
    Well I'm trying to send a HTML email using gmail smtp from CI, and it seems to reject my emails when they have any amount of tables. No error is given, they just do not appear in my inbox. If I send an email with light HTML and no tables, they go through. Anyone have any insight? $config = Array( 'protocol' => 'smtp', 'smtp_host' => 'ssl://smtp.googlemail.com', 'smtp_port' => 465, 'smtp_user' => '[email protected]', 'smtp_pass' => '--------', 'mailtype' => 'html', 'charset' => 'iso-8859-1' ); $this->load->library('email', $config); $this->email->set_newline("\r\n"); $this->email->from('myEmail', 'myName'); $this->email->to($this->input->post('email')); $this->email->subject('mySubject'); $msg = $this->load->view('partials/email', '', true); $this->email->message($msg); $this->email->send();`

    Read the article

  • Database localization

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • myXmlDataDoc.DataSet.ReadXml problem

    - by alex
    Hi: I am using myXmlDataDoc.DataSet.ReadXml(xml_file_name, XmlReadMode.InferSchema); to populate the tables within the dataset created by reading in a xml schema using: myStreamReader = new StreamReader(xsd_file_name); myXmlDataDoc.DataSet.ReadXmlSchema(myStreamReader); The problems I am facing is when it comes to read the xml tag: The readXml function puts the element in a different table and everything in the tables are 0s. Here is the print out of the datatable: TableName: test_data 100 2 1 TableName: parameters 1 0 2 0 3 0 4 0 5 0 6 0 7 0 8 0 9 0 10 0 11 0 12 0 In my xsd file, I represent an array using this: <xs:element name="test_data"> <xs:complexType> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="test_base"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="a" type="xs:unsignedShort"/> <xs:element name="b" type="xs:unsignedShort"/> <xs:element name="c" type="xs:unsignedInt"/> <xs:element name="parameters" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="12" type="xs:unsignedInt"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> And here is my xml file: 100 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 I am expecting after the readXml function call, the "parameters" is part of the test_data table. TableName: test_data 100 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Does anyone knows what's wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Trying to update a google visualization using jquery

    - by Mark in A2
    I'm relatively inexperienced, so please bear with me. I'm developing a simple dashboard using the Google visualization API. I'm developing in vb.net. I have the Annotated Timeline, the Intensity Map, and a set of tables on my apsx. What I am trying to do is update the Intensity Map and tables based on the date range the user selects using the Annotated Timeline tool. I was hoping to update only these visualizations without doing a full page load. Apparently, a great way to do this is to separate the visualizations into self-contained aspx pages and use jQuery to "load" them into a div. I say apparently, as this is not working. When I try to update an aspx containing a Google visualization using jQuery, I get the message "Loading data from www.google.com..." in the browser and it just runs continuously and never returns. I ran this by an experienced developer and he was stumped, but thought must be a conflict between the google API and jQuery. Any tips, advice, alternative solutions are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Mark in Ann Arbor

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate - getting single column from other table

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I have following tables Employee: ID,CompanyID,Name //CompanyID is foriegn key of Company Table Company: CompanyID, Name I want to map this to the following class: public class Employee { public virtual Int ID { get; set; } public virtual Int CompanyID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } protected Employee() { } } here is my xml class <class name="Employee" table="Employee" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="CompanyID" column="CompanyID" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> What I need to add in xml class to map CompanyName in my result? here is my code... public ArrayList getTest() { ISession session = NHibernateHelper.GetCurrentSession(); string query = "select Employee.*,(Company.Name)CompanyName from Employee inner join Employee on Employee.CompanyID = Company.CompanyID"; ArrayList document = (ArrayList)session.CreateSQLQuery(query, "Employee", typeof(Document)).List(); return document; } but in the returned result, I am getting CompanyName is null is result set and other columns are fine. Note:In DB, tables don't physical relation Please suggest my solution ------ Thanks

    Read the article

  • LinqToSQL: Not possible to update PrimaryKey?

    - by Zuhaib
    I have a simple table (lets call it Table1) that has a NVARCHAR field as the PK. Table1 has no association with any other tables. When I update Table1's PK column using LinqToSQL it fails. If I update other column it succeeds. I could delete this row and insert new one in Table1, but I don't want to. There is a transaction table which has Table1's PK column as a column. When the PK of Table1 is changed I want no effect in the transaction table. But when the row from Table1 is deleted, I want the transaction rows to be deleted. The cascading is done via Trigger. As there is not association between these two tables, if I update the PK column of Table1 using normal SQL, it works and there is no effect on the transaction table as expected. When I delete the row the trigger deletes the rows from transaction table. For this reason I can't delete and then add new row in Table1. So what can be done to successfully update the PrimaryKey of the Table1?

    Read the article

  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

    Read the article

  • How to figure out which record has been deleted in an effiecient way?

    - by janetsmith
    Hi, I am working on an in-house ETL solution, from db1 (Oracle) to db2 (Sybase). We needs to transfer data incrementally (Change Data Capture?) into db2. I have only read access to tables, so I can't create any table or trigger in Oracle db1. The challenge I am facing is, how to detect record deletion in Oracle? The solution which I can think of, is by using additional standalone/embedded db (e.g. derby, h2 etc). This db contains 2 tables, namely old_data, new_data. old_data contains primary key field from tahle of interest in Oracle. Every time ETL process runs, new_data table will be populated with primary key field from Oracle table. After that, I will run the following sql command to get the deleted rows: SELECT old_data.id FROM old_data WHERE old_data.id NOT IN (SELECT new_data.id FROM new_data) I think this will be a very expensive operation when the volume of data become very large. Do you have any better idea of doing this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • cant calculate width of elements

    - by Kein
    I try to get width of dom objects: function resizeArea(){ var width = 0; area.children().each(function(i){ alert(this.offsetWidth); width += this.offsetWidth; }); area.css('width', width); } In get results: Chrome: 800 Opera: 708 FF: 783 IE: 714 But if see it in firebug, dragonfly and other debuggers i see correct 908px. I don't know where porblem. I run this fun after domloaded. Here is HTML and css of block: <div class="scroll_area" id="scroll"> <div class="area" id="area"> <div class="category"> [..] </div> </div> </div> <style> #scroll { position:realtive; width: 800px, heght: 400px; } #area { position:absolute; left: 0; top: 0; } #area .category, #area .category .text, #area .category .image{ width: 200px } </style> And that interesting. This function later work correctly, only at first run, for first calculating.

    Read the article

  • Database design: Calculating the Account Balance

    - by 001
    How do I design the database to calculate the account balance? 1) Currently I calculate the account balance from the transaction table In my transaction table I have "description" and "amount" etc.. I would then add up all "amount" values and that would work out the user's account balance. I showed this to my friend and he said that is not a good solution, when my database grows its going to slow down???? He said I should create separate table to store the calculated account balance. If did this, I will have to maintain two tables, and its risky, the account balance table could go out of sync. Any suggestion? EDIT: OPTION 2: should I add an extra column to my transaction tables "Balance". now I do not need to go through many rows of data to perform my calculation. Example John buys $100 credit, he debt $60, he then adds $200 credit. Amount $100, Balance $100. Amount -$60, Balance $40. Amount $200, Balance $240.

    Read the article

  • Heavy Mysql operation & Time Constraints [closed]

    - by Rahul Jha
    There is a performance issue where that I have stuck with my application which is based on PHP & MySql. The application is for Data Migration where data has to be uploaded and after various processes (Cleaning from foreign characters, duplicate check, id generation) it has to be inserted into one central table and then to 5 different tables. There, an id is generated and that id has to be updated to central table. There are different sets of records and validation rules. The problem I am facing is that when I insert say(4K) rows file (containing 20 columns) it is working fine within 15 min it gets inserted everywhere. But, when I insert the same records again then at this time it is taking one hour to insert (ideally it should get inserted by marking earlier inserted data as duplicate). After going through the log file, I noticed is that there is a Mysql select statement where I am checking the duplicates and getting ID which are duplicates. Then I am calling a function inside for loop which is basically inserting records into 5 tables and updates id to central table. This Calling function is major time of whole process. P.S. The records has to be inserted record by record.. Kindly Suggest some solution.. //This is that sample code $query=mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT p1.ID FROM table1 p1, table2 p2, table3 a WHERE p2.datatype =0 AND (p1.datatype =1 || p1.datatype=2) AND p2.ID =0 AND p1.ID = a.ID AND p1.coulmn1 = p2.column1 AND p1.coulmn2 = p2.coulmn2 AND a.coulmn3 = p2.column3"); $num=mysql_num_rows($query); for($i=0;$i<$num;$i++) { $f=mysql_result($query,$i,"ID"); //calling function RecordInsert($f); }

    Read the article

  • Hi, how can I use the check box group in JSF to select the items of database and generate a list in

    - by Alexzzy
    I am using netbean and JSF to do my project, recently I encountered a problem that confused me. The question: There is a set of check box groups that identify the artifacts from the nature, creator, period and school. And all the artifacts are stored in a table of database. I would like to select the items by nature or creator or something like that, and generate a list for the items selected in the next page. There are some tables of database for artifacts, nature, creators and school, and the type_ID(this is the nature), creator_ID, school_ID are the foreign keys in artifacts table. I have bound the tables with respective check boxes. For example, if I want to select nature is painting, creator is Davinci, school is Italian Renaissance, and then I click Search button. It will go to next page that generate a list of artifacts about all Italian Renaissance paintings created by Davinci. How can I do that? I was confused by JSF, but I have to use JSF to do my project. Anyone can help me plz??? Thank you very very much !!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • Positioning decorated series of div tags on screen using offset, DOM JQUERY RELATED

    - by Calibre2010
    Hi, I am using JQuery to position a series of div tags which basically use a class inside of the tag which decorates the divs as bars. So the div is a green box based on its css specifications to the glass. I have a list of STARTING postions, a list of left coordiantes- for the starting points I wish to position my DIV say 556, 560, 600 these automatically are generated as left positions in a list I have a list of ENDING postions, a list of left coordiantes- for the ending points I wish to position my DIV say 570, 590, 610 these automatically are generated as left positions in a list now for each start and end position, the bar(green box) i want to be drawn with its appropriate width as follows. so say f is the offset or position of the start and ff the offset or position of the end : Below draws the green box based on only one start and end position LEFT. if (f.left != 0) { $("#test").html($("<div>d</div>")).css({ position: 'absolute', left: (f.left) + "px", top: (f.top + 35) + "px", width: (ff.left - f.left) + 25 + "px" }).addClass("option1"); } I am looking to loop through the list of positons in the list and draw multiple green boxs based on the positions on the screen. The above code draws just one green box from the last offset position.

    Read the article

  • javascript mouse cursor change on page load in firefox browser 3.5

    - by Amit
    Hi in case of full page submit a trasparent div id coming and changing the cursor to 'wait' . Now when the page is getting submitted and new page is coming up cursor still remains to 'wait' not changing to default until mouse is moved in Firefox Here is simple html click on show button div is coming when user move mouse over the div cursor is changing as wait cursor. Now when this page is loaded again pressing F5 cursor remain as wait cursor in firefox its working fine in IE is there any way to make the cursor as default on pageload in Firefox <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> <style> body{ cursor:default; } </style> <script src="js/jquery.js"> </script> <script> var test = true; $(document).ready(function(){ $('#maindiv').css('display','none') }); function showDiv(){ $('#maindiv').css('display','block') } </script> </head> <body> <div id="divBody" style="background-color:red;width:500px;height:500px" >aa <div id="maindiv" style="background-color:#999999;height:100$;width:400px;height:400px;cursor:wait"> sss </div>aa </div> <input type="button" value="show" onclick="showDiv()"/> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • IE7: container of hidden Div displays incorrectly

    - by dmr
    There is a search box div that contains a boxhead div and a boxbody div. Inside the boxbody div, there is a searchToggle div. When the user clicks a certain link on the page, the display style property of the searchToggle div is toggled between block and none. The 2 background-images for the body of the search box are set via the css of the searchBox div and the boxbody div. In IE7, when the searchToggle div is hidden, the background-image from the searchBox div extends on the left more than it should. It shows up correctly when the display of the searchToggle div is block. Everything show up correctly, in both cases in IE8 and FF. Any ideas why this is happening? The relevant HTML: <div class="searchBox"> <div class="boxhead"> <h2></h2> </div> <div class="boxbody"> <div id="searchToggle" name="searchToggle"> </div> </div> </div> The relevant CSS: .searchBox { margin: 0 auto; width: 700px; background: url(/images/myImageRight-r.gif) no-repeat bottom right; font-size: 100%; text-align: left; overflow: hidden; } .boxbody { margin: 0; padding: 5px 30px 31px; background-image: url(/images/myImageLeft.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: left bottom; }

    Read the article

  • jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

    - by Mikejh99
    I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

    Read the article

  • How to test if a doctrine records has any relations that are used

    - by murze
    Hi, I'm using a doctrine table that has several optional relations (of types Doctrine_Relation_Association and Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) with other tables. How can I test if a record from that table has connections with records from the related table. Here is an example to make my question more clear. Assume that you have a User and a user has a many to many relation with Usergroups and a User can have one Userrole How can I test if a give user is part of any Usergroups or has a role. The solution starts I believe with $relations = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->getRelations(); $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->findOne(1); foreach($relations as $relation) { //here should go a test if the user has a related record for this relation if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_Association) { //here the related table probably has more then one foreign key (ex. user_id and group_id) } if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) { //here the related table probably has the primary key of this table (id) as a foreign key (user_id) } } //true or false echo $result I'm looking for a general solution that will work no matter how many relations there are between user and other tables. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >