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  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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  • Loading a class file immediately AFTER startup

    - by Striker
    We have a few war files deployed inside an ear file. Some of the war files have a class that caches static data from our PLM system in singletons. Since some of the classes take several minutes to load we use the load-on-startup in the web.xml to load them ahead of time. This all works fine until we attempt to re-deploy the application on our production servers. (WebLogic 10.3) We get an exception from our PLM API about a dll already being loaded. Our PLM vendor has confirmed that this is a problem and stated that they don't support using the load-on-startup. This is also a huge problem on our development boxes where we have redeploy the app all the time. Most of us, when we're not working on one of the apps that uses a cache, have them commented out. Obviously we can't do that for the production servers. Right now we transfer the ear to the production server, deploy it in the console, wait for it to crash, shut the app server instance down and then start it up again. We need to find a way around this... One suggestion was to create a servlet that we can call after the server boots that will load the various caches. While this will work I'm looking for something a bit cleaner. Is there anyway to detect once the server started and then fire off the methods? Thanks.

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  • Where is the error in this code.

    - by basit74
    Hello, Here is my code snippt. But the code is breaking after inner for loop. But getting no error message. Any idea? Thanks. var lastnames = document.getElementsByClassName('box_nachname'); var firstnames = document.getElementsByClassName('box_vorname'); var teilnehmer = document.getElementsByClassName('select'); observers = []; // iterate over nachname array. for (var i = 0; i < lastnames.length; i++) { // Create an observer instance. observers[i] = new Observer(); // Subscribe oberser object. for(idx in teilnehmer) { if(teilnehmer[idx].id.split("_")[0].toLowerCase() !== "zl") { var anynum = function(element) { observers[i].subscribe(element, updateTeilnehmerSelectbox); }(teilnehmer[idx]); } } //on blur the Observer fire the updated info to all the subscribers. var anynumNachname = function(j, element, value, observer) { cic.addEvent(lastnames[j], 'blur', observer.fire(element, value)); } (i, lastnames[i], lastnames[i].value, observers[i]); cic.addEvent(firstnames[i], 'blur', function(element, value, observer) {observer.fire(element, value)}(lastnames[i], lastnames[i].value, observers[i])); }

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  • NSMutableDictionary with UIButton* as keys - iPhone development

    - by Alejandro A.
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone development and I have a question that may have a very simple answer. I am trying to add buttons to a view and these buttons are associated with a custom class that I defined. When I add the buttons to the view, I would like to know what class these buttons correspond to. This is because when I press the button, I need to get some information about the class, but the receiver of the message is another class. I couldn't find information about an error that I'm getting on the web. The problem I have is that I'm trying to create an NSMutableDictionary where the keys are of type UIButton* and the values are of my custom type: // create button for unit UIButton* unitButton = [[UIButton alloc] init]; [sourceButtonMap setObject:composite forKey:unitButton]; Of course, the sourceButtonMap is defined in the class and initialized in the init function as sourceButtonMap = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; The error I get when I try to add the key-value pair is: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3931e90' Is this happening because I can't store UIButton* as keys? Can anyone point me why I'm getting this error? Thank you all, aa

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  • Hazelcast Distributed Executor Service KeyOwner

    - by János Veres
    I have problem understanding the concept of Hazelcast Distributed Execution. It is said to be able to perform the execution on the owner instance of a specific key. From Documentation: <T> Future<T> submitToKeyOwner(Callable<T> task, Object key) Submits task to owner of the specified key and returns a Future representing that task. Parameters: task - task key - key Returns: a Future representing pending completion of the task I believe that I'm not alone to have a cluster built with multiple maps which might actually use the same key for different purposes, holding different objects (e.g. something along the following setup): IMap<String, ObjectTypeA> firstMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("firstMap"); IMap<String, ObjectTypeA_AppendixClass> secondMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("secondMap"); To me it seems quite confusing what documentation says about the owner of a key. My real frustration is that I don't know WHICH - in which map - key does it refer to? The documentation also gives a "demo" of this approach: import com.hazelcast.core.Member; import com.hazelcast.core.Hazelcast; import com.hazelcast.core.IExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Callable; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.Set; import com.hazelcast.config.Config; public void echoOnTheMemberOwningTheKey(String input, Object key) throws Exception { Callable<String> task = new Echo(input); HazelcastInstance hz = Hazelcast.newHazelcastInstance(); IExecutorService executorService = hz.getExecutorService("default"); Future<String> future = executorService.submitToKeyOwner(task, key); String echoResult = future.get(); } Here's a link to the documentation site: Hazelcast MultiHTML Documentation 3.0 - Distributed Execution Did any of you guys figure out in the past what key does it want?

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  • Avoiding Duplicate Data in DB (for use with Rails)

    - by ants
    I have five tables that I am trying to get to work nicely together but may need some help. I have three main tables: accounts members and roles. With two join tables account_members and account_member_roles. The accounts and members table are joined by account_members (fk account_id and member_id) table. The other 2 tables are the problem (roles and account_member_roles). A member of an account can have more than one role and I have the account_member_roles (fk account_member_id and role_id) table joining the account_members join table and the roles table. That seems logical but can you have a relationship with a join table? What I'd like to be able to do is when creaeting an account, for instance, I would like @account.save to include the roles and update the account_member_roles table neatly ..... but through the account_members join table. I've tried ..... accept_nested_attributes_for :members, :account_member_roles in the account.rb but I get ..... ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughCantAssociateThroughHasManyReflection (Cannot modify association 'Account#account_member_roles' because the source reflection class 'AccountMemberRole' is associated to 'AccountMember' via :has_many.) upon trying to save a record. Any advice on how I should approach this? CIA -ants

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  • Most efficient way to combine two objects in C#

    - by Dested
    I have two objects that can be represented as an int, float, bool, or string. I need to perform an addition on these two objects with the results being the same thing c# would produce as a result. For instance 1+"Foo" would equal the string "1Foo", 2+2.5 would equal the float 5.5, and 3+3 would equal the int 6 . Currently I am using the code below but it seems like incredible overkill. Can anyone simplify or point me to some way to do this efficiently? private object Combine(object o, object o1) { float left = 0; float right = 0; bool isInt = false; string l = null; string r = null; if (o is int) { left = (int)o; isInt = true; } else if (o is float) { left = (float)o; } else if (o is bool) { l = o.ToString(); } else { l = (string)o; } if (o1 is int) { right = (int)o1; } else if (o is float) { right = (float)o1; isInt = false; } else if (o1 is bool) { r = o1.ToString(); isInt = false; } else { r = (string)o1; isInt = false; } object rr; if (l == null) { if (r == null) { rr = left + right; } else { rr = left + r; } } else { if (r == null) { rr = l + right; } else { rr = l + r; } } if (isInt) { return Convert.ToInt32(rr); } return rr; }

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  • How to parse a custom XML-style error code response from a website

    - by user1870127
    I'm developing a program that queries and prints out open data from the local transit authority, which is returned in the form of an XML response. Normally, when there are buses scheduled to run in the next few hours (and in other typical situations), the XML response generated by the page is handled correctly by the java.net.URLConnection.getInputStream() function, and I am able to print the individual results afterwards. The problem is when the buses are NOT running, or when some other problem with my queries develops after it is sent to the transit authority's web server. When the authority developed their service, they came up with their own unique error response codes, which are also sent as XMLs. For example, one of these error messages might look like this: <Error xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <Code>3005</Code> <Message>Sorry, no stop estimates found for given values.</Message> </Error> (This code and similar is all that I receive from the transit authority in such situations.) However, it appears that URLConnection.getInputStream() and some of its siblings are unable to interpret this custom code as a "valid" response that I can handle and print out as an error message. Instead, they give me a more generic HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found error. This problem cascades into my program which then prints out a java.io.FileNotFoundException error pointing to the offending input stream. My question is therefore two-fold: 1. Is there a way to retrieve, parse, and print a custom XML-formatted error code sent by a web service using the plugins that are available in Java? 2. If the above is not possible, what other tools should I use or develop to handle such custom codes as described?

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  • Java - How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop applic

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

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  • Open XML document ContentControls problem with signed id's

    - by willvv
    I have an application that generates Open XML documents with Content Controls. To create a new Content Control I use Interop and the method ContentControls.Add. This method returns an instance of the added Content Control. I have some logic that saves the id of the Content Control to reference it later, but in some computers I've been having a weird problem. When I access the ID property of the Content Control I just created, it returns a string with the numeric id, the problem is that when this value is too big, after I save the document, if I look through the document.xml in the generated document, the <w:id/> element of the <w:sdtPr/> element has a negative value, that is the signed equivalent of the value I got from the Id property of the generated control. For example: var contentControl = ContentControls.Add(...); var contentControlId = contentControl.ID; // the value of contentControlId is "3440157266" If I save the document and open it in the Package Explorer, the Id of the Content Control is "-854810030" instead of "3440157266". What have I figured out is this: ((int)uint.Parse("3440157266")).ToString() returns "-854810030" Any idea of why this happens? This issue is hard to replicate because I don't control the Id of the generated controls, the Id is automatically generated by the Interop libraries.

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  • How can i attached iphone image through MFMailComposerView in iphone

    - by Pugal Devan
    Hi, I am new to iphone development. I have created a button in the view. On clicking the button it loads the photolibrary from the Iphone. Now i want to attached the those selected image through mail. I donno how can i attached the image in MFMailComposerView. How can i achieve this, Here my code is, -(IBAction) Pictures:(id)sender { self.imgpicker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imgpicker.delegate = self; self.imgpicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; [self presentModalViewController:self.imgpicker animated:YES]; } - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingImage:(UIImage *)img1 editingInfo:(NSDictionary *)editInfo { [[picker parentViewController] dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; UIView *view = [[UIView alloc] init]; (This view for displaying the images) **imageview** = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:img1]; [imageview setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 420)]; [self.view addSubview:imageview]; [view release]; UIBarButtonItem *rightbutton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Email" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(rightbutton)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = rightbutton; [rightbutton release]; } -(void) rightbutton { ***[self emailImage:(UIImage *)image]***;(I donno how to pass the image instance to mail view) } - (void)emailImage:(UIImage *)image { picker = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; picker.mailComposeDelegate = self; [picker setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"[email protected]",nil]]; NSData *data = UIImagePNGRepresentation(image); [picker addAttachmentData:data mimeType:@"image/png" fileName:@"iPod Library Image"]; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; } Plese help me out. Thanks.

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  • Running ASP / ASP.NET markup outside of a web application (perhaps with MVC)

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Is there a way to include some aspx/ascx markup in a DLL and use that to generate text dynamically? I really just want to pass a model instance to a view and get the produced html as a string. Similar to what you might do with an XSLT transform, except the transform input is a CLR object rather than an XML document. A second benefit is using the ASP.NET code-behind markup which is known by most team members. One way to achieve this would be to load the MVC view engine in-process and perhaps have it use an ASPX file from a resource. It seems like I could call into just the ViewEngine somehow and have it generate a ViewEngineResult. I don't know ASP.NET MVC well enough though to know what calls to make. I don't think this would be possible with classic ASP or ASP.NET as the control model is so tied to the page model, which doesn't exist in this case. Using something like SparkViewEngine in isolation would be cool too, though not as useful since other team members wouldn't know the syntax. At that point I might as well use XSLT (yes I am looking for a clever way to avoid XSLT).

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  • Migrating MOSS 2007 from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005 - Addendum

    - by lunacrescens
    This is a continuation of an earlier question I had about moving the databases for a MOSS 2007 installation from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005. Here's the URL for the original question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/254517/migrating-moss-2007-from-sql-2000-to-sql-2005 In my test environment, I've successfully moved the databases to the SQL 2005 test machine and things appear to be working fine. But, on the "Servers in Farm" page of the Central Admin | Operations, it still shows the old (i.e. SQL 2000) server as the Configuration Database Server. Also, it shows the old config database as being the Configuration Database. I know that the SQL2000 server and old config database (that are showing on this page) are NOT being used, because we've deactived the SQL instance in SQL2000. I've tried "removing" the server, and get a message about "Uninstalling SharePoint products and technologies" being the better route. So, I disconnected from the test databases, uninstalled SharePoint from the test WFE server, and reinstalled it. That didn't do anything. Before uninstalling/reinstalling I also tried simply rerunning the SharePoint Configuration wizard, and that didn't do anything either. Does anyone know how to update the Config Server and Config Database on the "Servers in Farm" page after having moved the Config and Content DBs? Is there something I'm missing or overlooking? Thanks.

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  • Java method keyword "final" and its use

    - by Lukas Eder
    When I create complex type hierarchies (several levels, several types per level), I like to use the final keyword on methods implementing some interface declaration. An example: interface Garble { int zork(); } interface Gnarf extends Garble { /** * This is the same as calling {@link #zblah(0)} */ int zblah(); int zblah(int defaultZblah); } And then abstract class AbstractGarble implements Garble { @Override public final int zork() { ... } } abstract class AbstractGnarf extends AbstractGarble implements Gnarf { // Here I absolutely want to fix the default behaviour of zblah // No Gnarf shouldn't be allowed to set 1 as the default, for instance @Override public final int zblah() { return zblah(0); } // This method is not implemented here, but in a subclass @Override public abstract int zblah(int defaultZblah); } I do this for several reasons: It helps me develop the type hierarchy. When I add a class to the hierarchy, it is very clear, what methods I have to implement, and what methods I may not override (in case I forgot the details about the hierarchy) I think overriding concrete stuff is bad according to design principles and patterns, such as the template method pattern. I don't want other developers or my users do it. So the final keyword works perfectly for me. My question is: Why is it used so rarely in the wild? Can you show me some examples / reasons where final (in a similar case to mine) would be very bad?

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  • How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

    - by Brecht Machiels
    Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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  • Repeatedly execute a stored procedure

    - by manivineet
    I have a situation where I need to repeatedly execute a stored procedure Now this procedure (spMAIN) has a cursor inside which looks for a value from a table as T1,which has the following structure ID Status ---- -------- 1 New 2 New 3 success 4 Error now the cursor looks for all rows with a status of 'New' Now while processing , if that instance of the cursor encounters an error, another SP say spError needs to be called, the 'Status' column in T1 needs to be updated to 'Error' and spMAIN needs to be called again which again repeats the process, looking for rows with 'new' how do I do it? Also, also, while we are at it, what if an SP has other SPs inside it and if any of those SP raises an error, same thing needs to be done, the T1 table needs to be updated ('Error') and spMAIN needs to be called again. can you also recommend something ? here's some code ALTER PROC zzSpMain AS BEGIN DECLARE @id INT BEGIN TRY IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM dbo.zzTest WHERE istatus = 'new' ) BEGIN DECLARE c CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM zztest WHERE istatus = 'new' OPEN c FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN PRINT @id IF @id = 2 BEGIN UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'error' WHERE id = @id RAISERROR ( 'Error occured', 16, 1 ) END UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'processed' WHERE id = @id FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id END CLOSE c DEALLOCATE c END END TRY begin CATCH EXEC zzSpError END CATCH END

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  • Change select's class based on selected option's class

    - by Alasdair
    I have a page that contains numerous <select> elements. What I'm trying to achieve is to ensure that if a <select>'s selected <option> has a class called italic, then the <select> then has the italic class added (i.e. jQuery.addClass('italic')). If it doesn't, then the italic class is removed from the <select> to ensure other <option> elements are displayed correctly (i.e. jQuery.removeClass('italic')). What I'm noticing with most of my attempts is that either all the <select> have the italic class or that the italic class isn't being removed accordingly. Since I'm unsure my choice in selectors and callback logic are particularly sound or good practice in this instance (as I've been frustratingly trying to make it work) I've decided not to include the code I used in previous attempts. Instead, refer to this small HTML & CSS example: .italic { font-style: italic; } <select id="foo" name="foo" size="1" <option value="NA" selected="selected" - Select - </option <option value="1"Bar</option <option value="2"Fu</option <option value="3"Baz</option </select Also, I am aware that not all browsers support CSS styling of <select> and <option>. The related J2EE web application will only ever be accessed via Firefox under a controlled environment.

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  • is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution on sql server

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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  • Communication between EJB3 Instances (JEE inter-bean communication) possible?

    - by Hank
    I'm designing a part of a JEE6 application, consisting of EJB3 beans. Part of the requirements are multiple parallel (say a few hundred) long running (over days) database hunts. Individual hunts have different search parameters (start time, end time, query filter). Parameters may get changed over time. Currently I'm thinking of the following: SearchController (Stateless Session Bean) formulates a set of search parameters, sends it off to a SearchListener via JMS SearchListener (Message Driven Bean) receives search parameters, instantiates a SearchWorker with the parameters SearchWorker (SLSB) hunts repeatedly through the database; when it finds something, the result is sent off via JMS, and the search continues; when the given 'end-time' has reached, it ends What I'm wondering now: Is there a problem, with EJB3 instances running for days? (Other than that I need to be able to deal with container restarts...) How do I know how many and which EJB instances of SearchWorker are currently running? Is it possible to communicate with them individually (similar to sending a System V signal to a unix process), e.g. to send new parameters, to end an instance, etc..

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  • Adding a ServiceReference programmatically during async postback

    - by Oliver
    Is it possible to add a new ServiceReference instance to the ScriptManager on the Page during an asynchronous postback so that subsequently I can use the referenced web service through client side script? I'm trying to do this inside a UserControl that sits inside a Repeater, that's why adding the ScriptReference programmatically during Page_Load does not work here. EDIT 2: This is the code I call from my UserControl which does not do what I expect (adding the ServiceReference to the ScriptManager during the async postback): private void RegisterWebservice(Type webserviceType) { var scm = ScriptManager.GetCurrent(Page); if (scm == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("ScriptManager needed on the Page!"); scm.Services.Add(new ServiceReference("~/" + webserviceType.Name + ".asmx")); } My goal is for my my UserControl to be as unobtrusive to the surrounding application as possible; otherwise I would have to statically define the ServiceReference in a ScriptManagerProxy on the containing Page, which is not what I want. EDIT: I must have been tired when I wrote this post... because I meant to write ServiceReference not ScriptReference. Updated the text above accordingly. Now I have: <asp:ScriptManagerProxy runat="server" ID="scmProxy"> <Services> <asp:ServiceReference Path="~/UsefulnessWebService.asmx" /> </Services> </asp:ScriptManagerProxy> but I want to register the webservice in the CodeBehind.

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  • XML Catalog in Eclipse is not working

    - by svaret
    Where I work we do not have any internet connection. We still want to have validation and code completion when editing xml files. I have tried the instructions here http://www.helmers.nu/?p=276 However, I try the instructions, restarts eclipse, do reload dependencies. I still cannot get any code completion nor validation. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I have tried both with Eclipse Galileo and Helios. My catalog.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <catalog xmlns="urn:oasis:names:tc:entity:xmlns:xml:catalog"> <uri name="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9" uri="file:///C:/dev/XMLSchemaDefinition/dbchangelog-1.9.xsd"/> </catalog> My xml-file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <databaseChangeLog xmlns="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9 http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/dbchangelog-1.9.xsd"> </databaseChangeLog>

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • What is the fastest collection in c# to implement a prioritizing queue?

    - by Nathan Smith
    I need to implement a queue for messages on a game server so it needs to as fast as possible. The queue will have a maxiumem size. I need to prioritize messages once the queue is full by working backwards and removing a lower priority message (if one exists) before adding the new message. The appliation is asynchronous so access to the queue needs to be locked. I'm currently implementing it using a LinkedList as the underlying storage but have concerns that searching and removing nodes will keep it locked for too long. Heres the basic code I have at the moment: public class ActionQueue { private LinkedList<ClientAction> _actions = new LinkedList<ClientAction>(); private int _maxSize; /// <summary> /// Initializes a new instance of the ActionQueue class. /// </summary> public ActionQueue(int maxSize) { _maxSize = maxSize; } public int Count { get { return _actions.Count; } } public void Enqueue(ClientAction action) { lock (_actions) { if (Count < _maxSize) _actions.AddLast(action); else { LinkedListNode<ClientAction> node = _actions.Last; while (node != null) { if (node.Value.Priority < action.Priority) { _actions.Remove(node); _actions.AddLast(action); break; } } } } } public ClientAction Dequeue() { ClientAction action = null; lock (_actions) { action = _actions.First.Value; _actions.RemoveFirst(); } return action; } }

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  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

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  • ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel doesn't update inherited public properties??

    - by mrjoltcola
    I refactored some common properties into a base class and immediately my model updates started failing. UpdateModel() and TryUpdateModel() do not seem to update inherited public properties. I cannot find detailed info on MSDN nor Google as to the rules or semantics of these methods. The docs are terse (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd470933.aspx), simply stating: Updates the specified model instance using values from the controller's current value provider. Well that leads us to believe it is as simple as that. It makes no mention of limitations with inheritance. My assumption is the methods are reflecting on the top class only, ignoring base properties, but this seems to be an ugly shortcoming, if so. SOLVED: Eep, this turned out to have nothing to do with inheritance. My base class was implemented with public fields, not properties. Switching them to formal properties (adding {get; set; }) was all I needed. This has bitten me before, I keep wanting to use simple, public fields.

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