Search Results

Search found 14275 results on 571 pages for 'exam questions'.

Page 438/571 | < Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >

  • Selection Highlight in NSCollectionView

    - by Hooligancat
    On some occasions my head just hurts from banging it against the Cocoa wall. Today is one of those days. I have a working NSCollectionView with one minor, but critical, exception. Getting and highlighting the selected item within the collection. I've had all this working prior to Snow Leopard, but something appears to have changed and I can't quite place my finger on it, so I took my NSCollectionView right back to a basic test and followed Apple's documentation for creating an NSCollectionView here: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/DOCUMENTATION/Cocoa/Conceptual/CollectionViews/Introduction/Introduction.html The collection view works fine following the quick start guide. However, this guide doesn't discuss selection other than "There are such features as incorporating image views, setting objects as selectable or not selectable and changing colors if they are selected". Using this as an example I went to the next step of binding the Array Controller to the NSCollectionView with the controller key selectionIndexes, thinking that this would bind any selection I make between the NSCollectionView and the array controller and thus firing off a KVO notification. I also set the NSCollectionView to be selectable in IB. There appears to be no selection delegate for NSCollectionView and unlike most Cocoa UI views, there appears to be no default selected highlight. So my problem really comes down to a related issue, but two distinct questions. How do I capture a selection of an item? How do I show a highlight of an item? NSCollectionView's programming guides seem to be few and far between and most searches via Google appear to pull up pre-Snow Leopard implementations, or use the view in a separate XIB file. For the latter (separate XIB file for the view), I don't see why this should be a pre-requisite otherwise I would have suspected that Apple would not have included the view in the same bundle as the collection view item. I know this is going to be a "can't see the wood for the trees" issue - so I'm prepared for the "doh!" moment. As usual, any and all help much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why is this simple jQuery hover event misbehaving in Internet Explorer 8?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

    Read the article

  • How do you host multiple public facing websites on a VPS?

    - by Petras
    We host about 30 websites using typical shared hosting plans using ASP.NET and SQL 2000/2005/2008. I am now wondering about hosting all of these websites using our own virtual private server such as http://www.crystaltech.com/vps.aspx This is clearly cheaper but comes with a lot of questions I need answers to: Is the risk of having to keep this VPS server up and running worth it? Until now, the host provider has managed the server and we have not had to worry about crashes, downtime, software patches etc. We are not server administrators, we are programmers, so this is not really our expertise. On the other hand, it may not be hard to learn. When we make a website live, we log in to a domain management control panel and change the primary and secondary name servers to point to our shared web host: Eg ns1.sharedwebhost.com and ns2.sharedwebhost.com These name servers are going to have to change when we have a VPS. I don’t understand anything about how to set this up. Is there some useful info anyone could direct me to? Or is there software we need to install to make the primary and secondary name servers work on our VPS? The control panel we have for shared hosting comes with DNS management like this: What software would I need to install to create this for each site we host at a VPS? The control panel we have for shared hosting also comes with a POP email interface that allows email addresses to be added easily: Is this something that can be easily set up at a VPS so clients can manage their own email addresses? Is there software we need to install to make this work?

    Read the article

  • Activity Indicator display in Table View whilst row data is being fetched

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi All, I am navigating from tableview1.row to a tableview2 which has a LOT of rows being fetched. Given the load time is around 3 seconds, I want the navigation to slide into tableview2 as soon as the tableview1.row is selected, and then display a UIActivityIndicatorView above tableview2 whilst the data is fetched and then rendered in its underlying table view. Note, tableview2 is actually a subview of the parent UIView (as opposed to the parent being a UITableView). I've seen this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2153653/activity-indicator-shold-be-displayed-when-navigating-from-uitableview1-to-uitabl ... which gives instructions to add the activity indicator start and stopAnimating calls around the data fetch into viewDidLoad of tableview2. Thing is, I'm not sure how the above solution could work as viewDidLoad runs and completes before tableview2 visibly slides into view. Separately, I also tried adding an activity indicator over tableview2 in IB and added the IBOutlet indicator's start/stop animating code into viewDidAppear. What happens is the data fetch runs and I can see the indicator spinning but at the end of the fetch, the table view is empty. Seems like viewDidAppear is too late to add data to the table view as cellForRowAtIndexPath etc has already fired. Can anyone please suggest any pointers? I could very well be missing something obvious here (its nearly 5am where I am and think my brain is mush). Should I re-trigger cellForRowAtIndexPath etc from viewDidAppear? Is the issue that my table view is a subview and not the parent view? Thanks

    Read the article

  • What do I do about recurring billing?

    - by phidah
    This might be a subjective question, but I'll give it a go. There are already a number of questions on SO that revolves around subscription billing management. I am currently working on a SaaS solution that will require a fully automated billing system. What I am not looking for when asking this question is not advice on implementing towards a specific payment gateway or stuff like that. Instead I'd like advice on what kind of approach to take. The functionality that I need is a system that can handle upgrades, downgrades, recurring billing, cancellations, etc. Initially for one product only, but it might over time be a requirement that the system can handle multiple products (by products I mean fundamentally different products, not different variations of the same product). As I see it there are a number of possible approaches when you need a solution like this: Code a billing server yourself that supports this and is decoupled from each product so that it can handle multiple independent products. Use a hosted solution like Recurly, Chargify, Spreedly or CheddarGetter. The advantage of using a hosted solution is obviously that you don't need PCI certification, the concern is outsourced and it is a lot faster to get up and running. These advantages come at a cost however: The most important support function for your product - i.e. the billing is not in your control. Additionally you have less control and flexibility. What would you do? If we look beyond the PCI requirements I would definately prefer to have a system coded in-house that could do this kind of job. On the other hand I've heard from numerous sources that coding a system like this is a pain. Any advice is highly appreciated. Also, if you advice to code it yourself, any experiences on how to do it or if there are any opensource projects (no matter the language, what I'm after is not the code but the structure) that I can benefit from would really mean alot. Thanks in advance for your inputs! :-)

    Read the article

  • Iterating arrays in a batch file

    - by dboarman-FissureStudios
    I am writing a batch file (I asked a question on SU) to iterate over terminal servers searching for a specific user. So, I got the basic start of what I'm trying to do. Enter a user name Iterate terminal servers Display servers where user is found (they can be found on multiple servers now and again depending on how the connection is lost) Display a menu of options Iterating terminal servers I have: for /f "tokens=1" %%Q in ('query termserver') do (set __TermServers.%%Q) Now, I am getting the error... Environment variable __TermServers.SERVER1 not defined ...for each of the terminal servers. This is really the only thing in my batch file at this point. Any idea on why this error is occurring? Obviously, the variable is not defined, but I understood the SET command to do just that. I'm also thinking that in order to continue working on the iteration (each terminal server), I will need to do something like: :Search for /f "tokens=1" %%Q in ('query termserver') do (call Process) goto Break :Process for /f "tokens=1" %%U in ('query user %%username%% /server:%%Q') do (set __UserConnection = %%C) goto Search However, there are 2 things that bug me about this: Is the %%Q value still alive when calling Process? When I goto Search, will the for-loop be starting over? I'm doing this with the tools I have at my disposal, so as much as I'd like to hear about PowerShell and other ways to do this, it would be futile. I have notepad and that's it. Note: I would continue this line of questions on SuperUser, except that it seems to be getting more into programming specifics.

    Read the article

  • What are the reasons to use dos batch programs in Windows?

    - by DVK
    Question What would be a good (ideally, technical) reason to ever program some non-trivial task in dos batch language on a modern Windows system as opposed to downloading either PowerShell, or ActiveState Perl? To be more specific, I make the following two assumptions for the duration of this question: anyone technical enough to be able to write a medium-complexity batch script is technical enough to install either of the scripting interpreters. Neither of those two present enough of a learning curve for basic batch replacement tasks that said curve would outweigh the pain of doing any remotely-non-trivial task in batch. Notes "You need a batch program for autoexec.bat" is not a valid reason. Your autoexec.bat may consist of simply calling non-batch script. If you disagree with either of my 2 assumptions above, that's fine, and I may be wrong. But my question is specifically "assuming those 2 assumptions are correct, what would be the reason to still stick with batch?" If it makes it easier to suspend disbelief (in case you disagree with me), add in a 3rd assumption that the question is limited to people who already posess at least some modicum of PowerShell or Perl experience. To re-iterate - this is not meant to be a subjective question about how easy it is to learn PSh or ASPerl compared to doing advanced batch coding. That is a separate question that is too subjective to be bothered with in this post. Background: I used to do some fairly complicated batch programming back in the elder days, and remember batch as one of the worst possble programming languages I had encountered. The idea for this question came after seeing a bunch of batch questions on SO, and trying to grok the answer of one of them out of sheer curiosity and giving up in pain after a minute, exclaiming mentally "why would anyone go through this pain instead of doing that in 1 line of Perl?" :) My own plausible answer I assume there may be an an likely DOS-compatible system, which has DOS interpreter but has no compatible PowerShell or Perl... I'm not aware of one but not completely impossible.

    Read the article

  • Clickable LI overrules links within the LI

    - by Kenneth B
    Hello guys and gals... I have a LI with some information, including some links. I would like jQuery to make the LI clickable, but also remain the links in the LI. The Clickable part works. I just need the links within to work as well. NOTE: They work if you right click and choose "Open in new tab". HTML <ul id="onskeliste"> <li url="http://www.dr.dk">Some info with links <a href="http://www.imerco.dk" target="_blank">Imerco</a></a> </ul> jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $("#onskeliste li").click( function() { window.location = $(this).attr("url"); return false; }); })(jQuery); I've found a simular question here, but it doesn't seem to solve my problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/180211/jquery-div-click-with-anchors Can you help me?? :-) Thank you in advance...

    Read the article

  • Javascript/Greasemonkey: search for something then set result as a value

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'm a bit of a n00b when it comes to JS (I'm not the greatest programmer) so please be gentle - specially if my questions been asked already somewhere and I'm too stupid to find the right answer. Self deprecation out of the way, let's get to the question. Problem There is a site me and a large group of friends frequently use which doesn't display all the information we may like to know - in this case an airline bookings site and the class of travel. While the information is buried in the code of the page, it isn't displayed anywhere to the user. Using a Greasemonkey script, I'd like to liberate this piece of information and display it in a suitable format. Here's the psuedocode of what I'm looking to do. Search dom for specified element define variables Find a string of text If found Set result to a variable Write contents to page at a specific location (before a specified div) If not found Do nothing I think I've achieved most of it so far, except for the key bits of: Searching for the string: The page needs to search for the following piece of text in the page HEAD: mileageRequest += "&CLASSES=S,S-S,S-S"; The Content I need to extract and store is between the second equals (=) sign and the last comma ("). The contents of this area can be any letter between A-Z. I'm not fussed about splitting it up into an array so I could use the elements individually at this stage. Writing the result to a location: Taking that found piece of text and writing it to another location. Code so far This is what I've come up so far, with bits missing highlighted. buttons = document.getElementById('buttons'); ''Search goes here var flightClasses = document.createElement("div"); flightClasses.innerHTML = '<div id="flightClasses"> ' + '<h2>Travel classes</h2>' + 'For the above segments, your flight classes are as follows:' + 'write result here' + '</div>'; main.parentNode.insertBefore(flightClasses, buttons); If anyone could help me, or point me in the right direction to finish this off I'd appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • How can I internationalize strings representing C# enum values?

    - by Duke
    I've seen many questions and answers about mapping strings to enums and vice-versa, but how can I map a series of localized strings to enums? Should I just create an extension method like this that returns the proper string from a resource file? Is there a way to localize attributes (like "Description") that are used in solutions like this? Which is the preferred solution - extension method or attributes. It seems to me that this isn't the intended purpose of attributes. In fact, now that I think about it, if I were to use an extension method an attribute seems like something I'd use to specify a key in a resource file for the localized string I want to use in place of the enum value. EDIT - example: Given the following enum, public enum TransactionTypes { Cheque = 1, BankTransfer = 2, CreditCard = 3 } I would like a way to map each type to a localized string. I started off with an extension method for the enum that uses a switch statement and strongly typed references to the resource file. However, an extension method for every enum doesn't seem like a great solution. I've started following this to create a custom attribute for each enumerated value. The attribute has a base name and key for the resource file containing localized strings. In the above enum, for example, I have this: ... [EnumResourceAttribute("FinancialTransaction", "Cheque")] Cheque = 1, ... Where "FinanacialTransaction" is the resx file and "Cheque" is the string key. I'm trying to create a utility method to which I could pass any value from any enumeration and have it return the localized string representation of that value, assuming the custom attribute is specified. I just can't figure out how to dynamically access a resource file and a key within it.

    Read the article

  • InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) when trying to Compile a Lambda Expression

    - by Moshe Levi
    Hello, I'm writing an Expression Parser to make my API more refactor friendly and less error prone. basicaly, I want the user to write code like that: repository.Get(entity => entity.Id == 10); instead of: repository.Get<Entity>("Id", 10); Extracting the member name from the left side of the binary expression was straight forward. The problems began when I tried to extract the value from the right side of the expression. The above snippet demonstrates the simplest possible case which involves a constant value but it can be much more complex involving closures and what not. After playing with that for some time I gave up on trying to cover all the possible cases myself and decided to use the framework to do all the heavy lifting for me by compiling and executing the right side of the expression. the relevant part of the code looks like that: public static KeyValuePair<string, object> Parse<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { var binaryExpression = (BinaryExpression)expression.Body; string memberName = ParseMemberName(binaryExpression.Left); object value = ParseValue(binaryExpression.Right); return new KeyValuePair<string, object>(memberName, value); } private static object ParseValue(Expression expression) { Expression conversionExpression = Expression.Convert(expression, typeof(object)); var lambdaExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<object>>(conversionExpression); Func<object> accessor = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return accessor(); } Now, I get an InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) in the Compile line. when I googled for the solution I came up with similar questions that involved building an expression by hand and not supplying all the pieces, or trying to rely on parameters having the same name and not the same reference. I don't think that this is the case here because I'm reusing the given expression. I would appreciate if someone will give me some pointers on this. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Android SDK fails to install

    - by Paul Breed
    When I try to install the android SDK it fails to install. My OS is Windows XP I just downloaded and installed Java JDK 1.6 Java -version from the command line returns: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/ask java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 14.3-b01, mixed mode, sharing) My environment vars have: JAVA_HOME=c:\progra~1\java\jdk1.6.0_11 I downloaded android-sdk-r04-windows.zip I unziped it in V:\AndroidInstall\ When I go to the V:\androindinstall\android-sdk-windows and type "SDK Install.exe" nothing happens... If I go this from graph When I do this from a graphical file viewer I get a quick flash that looks like a command line window and nothing.... When I try to run android list targets from the tool directory I get: Error: Error parsing the sdk. Error: V:\androindinstall\android-sdk-windows\platforms is missing. Error: Unable to parse SDK content. So the basic install setup is not happening. Additional clues: I have a G1 and Android 1.0 was running on this machine. (Almost a year ago) I've updated my G1 to 1.6 so I thought I'd update my SDK before starting new development. When I tried to upgrade it tried and then died as the "directory was in use" So I cleaned out all the android directories, rebooted and redownloaded everythign from scratch. Now it won't run at all. I've clearly got something in an unhappy state, but I've cleaned up all the directories and no remanants seem to be running I've rebooted.... I've missed somethign I just can't figure out what. Paul

    Read the article

  • Threading 101: What is a Dispatcher?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    Once upon a time, I remembered this stuff by heart. Over time, my understanding has diluted and I mean to refresh it. As I recall, any so called single threaded application has two threads: a) the primary thread that has a pointer to the main or DllMain entry points; and b) For applications that have some UI, a UI thread, a.k.a the secondary thread, on which the WndProc runs, i.e. the thread that executes the WndProc that recieves messages that Windows posts to it. In short, the thread that executes the Windows message loop. For UI apps, the primary thread is in a blocking state waiting for messages from Windows. When it recieves them, it queues them up and dispatches them to the message loop (WndProc) and the UI thread gets kick started. As per my understanding, the primary thread, which is in a blocking state, is this: C++ while(getmessage(/* args &msg, etc. */)) { translatemessage(&msg, 0, 0); dispatchmessage(&msg, 0, 0); } C# or VB.NET WinForms apps: Application.Run( new System.Windows.Forms() ); Is this what they call the Dispatcher? My questions are: a) Is my above understanding correct? b) What in the name of hell is the Dispatcher? c) Point me to a resource where I can get a better understanding of threads from a Windows/Win32 perspective and then tie it up with high level languages like C#. Petzold is sparing in his discussion on the subject in his epic work. Although I believe I have it somewhat right, a confirmation will be relieving.

    Read the article

  • stoping doGet/dopost in java servlets ?

    - by bosso
    Hello everyone, I've been playing with Java Servlets and Ajax a bit, and I've got a situation on which I would really appreciate advice. Let's say I have HTML page with a start and stop buttons, and as a result of clicking start button, overridden doGet (or doPost) method on a servlet is invoked which computes something that takes a long time to complete. (e.g. a giant loop, or even Infinite loop, doesn't matter, I'm interested in concepts here). So, I'm asking you: 1.What would be my options to kill / shut down / halt / exit doGet method whan I hit stop button on a web page? Do I use threading here, or there is simpler way? I take it that using System exit is not a very good idea, right? ;) 2.So, let's say I implement code for stopping doGet method. What would happen If I hit start on one browser(e.g.IE), and while this long computation takes place open new tab or other browser(e.g.Firefox) and open same url and hit stop? Would that stop my original computation? Is there any easy way to avoid this? I know that questions are a bit off, as I'm just starting with server-side of things. :) Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • C++/CLI managed thread cleanup

    - by Guillermo Prandi
    Hi. I'm writing a managed C++/CLI library wrapper for the MySQL embedded server. The mysql C library requires me to call mysql_thread_init() for every thread that will be using it, and mysql_thread_end() for each thread that exits after using it. Debugging any given VB.Net project I can see at least seven threads; I suppose my library will see only one thread if VB doesn't explicitly create worker threads itself (any confirmations on that?). However, I need clients to my library to be able to create worker threads if they need to, so my library must be thread-aware to some degree. The first option I could think of is to expose some "EnterThread()" and "LeaveThread()" methods in my class, so the client code will explicitly call them at the beginning and before exiting their DoWork() method. This should work if (1) .Net doesn't "magically" create threads the user isn't aware of and (2) the user is careful enough to have the methods called in a try/finally structure of some sort. However, I don't like it very much to have the user handle things manually like that, and I wonder if I could give her a hand on that matter. In a pure Win32 C/C++ DLL I do have the DllMain DLL_THREAD_ATTACH and DLL_THREAD_DETACH pseudo-events, and I could use them for calling mysql_thread_init() and mysql_thread_end() as needed, but there seem to be no such thing in C++/CLI managed code. At the expense of some performance (not much, I think) I can use TLS for detecting the "usage from a new thread" case, but I can imagine no mechanism for the thread exiting case. So, my questions are: (1) could .net create application threads without the user being aware of them? and (2) is there any mechanism I could use similar to DLL_THREAD_ATTACH / DLL_THREAD_DETACH from managed C++/CLI? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Focussing on Style Sheets and Cross Browser Compatibility.

    - by Sam
    Hello everyone, Let me begin this topic by explaining my background experience with web design. I have always been more of a back end programmer, with PHP and SQL and things. However I do have a shallow background with HTML and CSS. The problem is, I don't know it all. What I do know is, when it comes to designing (not back end dirty work) I understand basic CSS properties and I also understand HTML and I can usually throw together a sloppy web page with the two and a couple bazillion DIV tags. Anyways.. The problem I always have encountered is that when I design a website in a browser such as IE7 (and then it looks perfect on IE7), and then look at it on IE8 or IE6 or Mozilla (etc.) it gets all spacey and ugly and looks totally different than the way it should look on IE7. Question one: Basically, what I am asking everyone is what route should I take to learn how to properly build the website? Build as in put it togehter with CSS standards and HTML standards that will make my site look the same on every brwoser. (Not only learning standards but where can I learn to properly write my code?) Where is a strong free resource I can use to learn how to these things? Question two: How do I properly code my website? Do I use all external style sheets to make dynamic page design simplistic or do I hard code some things into the DIV tags on each page? What is proper? Oh, and if anyone has any tutorials on how to properly design a complete layout feel free to throw it in a response somewhere. Thank you for taking the time to read my questions, and hopefully you will understand what I am trying to get out to everyone. I need to get on the right route of the designing side of web programming so that I will know how to create successful websites in the future. Thank you, Sam Pardee

    Read the article

  • Writing an efficient cron job script utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

    - by fireeyedboy
    I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to speed up WPF programs?

    - by Sam
    I love programming with and for Windows Presentation Framework. Mostly I write browser-like apps using WPF and XAML. But what really annoys me is the slowness of WPF. A simple page with only a few controls loads fast enough, but as soon as a page is a teeny weeny bit more complex, like containing a lot of data entry fields, one or two tab controls, and stuff, it gets painful. Loading of such a page can take more than one second. Seconds, indeed, especially on not so fast computers (read: the customers computers) it can take ages. Same with changing values on the page. Everything about the WPF UI is somehow sluggy. This is so mean! They give me this beautiful framework, but make it so excruciatingly slow so I'll have to apologize to our customers all the time! My Question: How do you speed up WPF? How do you profile bottlenecks? How do you deal with the slowness? Since this seems to be an universal problem with WPF, I'm looking for general advice, useful for many situations and problems. Some other related questions: What tools do you use for WPF development Tools to develop WPF or Silverlight applications

    Read the article

  • Parsing and getting specific values from CSV string

    - by Amit Ranjan
    I am having a string in CSV format. Please see my earlier question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2865861/parsing-csv-string-and-binding-it-to-listbox I can add new values to it by some mechanism. Everything will be same except the new values will have numeric part = 0. Take example I have this exsiting CSV string 1 , abc.txt , 2 , def.doc , 3 , flyaway.txt Now by some mechanism i added two more files Superman.txt and Spiderman.txt to the existing string. Now it became 1 , abc.txt , 2 , def.doc , 3 , flyaway.txt, 0, Superman.txt, 0 , Spiderman.txt What i am doing here is that this csv string is paased into SP where its splitted and inserted to db. So for inserting I have to take the files with numeric part 0 only rest will be omiited .Which will be further then converted into CSV string Array will look like this str[0]="1" str[1]="abc.txt" str[2]="2" str[3]="def.doc " str[4]="3" str[5]="flyaway.txt" str[6]="0" str[7]="Superman.txt" str[8]="0" str[9]="Spiderman.txt" So at last i want to say my input will be 1 , abc.txt , 2 , def.doc , 3 , flyaway.txt, 0, Superman.txt, 0 , Spiderman.txt Desired Output: 0, Superman.txt, 0 , Spiderman.txt

    Read the article

  • Rails test db doesn't persist record changes

    - by nathan.f77
    I've been trying to solve a problem for a few weeks now. I am running rspec tests for my Rails app, and they are working fine except for one error that I can't seem get my head around. I am using MySQL with the InnoDB engine. I have set config.use_transactional_fixtures = true in spec_helper.rb I load my test fixtures manually with the command rake spec:db:fixtures:load. The rspec test is being written for a BackgrounDRb worker, and it is testing that a record can have its state updated (through the state_machine gem). Here is my problem: I have a model called Listings. The rspec test calls the update_sold_items method within a file called listing_worker.rb. This method calls listing.sell for a particular record, which sets the listing record's 'state' column to 'sold'. So far, this is all working fine, but when the update_sold_items method finishes, my rspec test fails here: listing = Listing.find_by_listing_id(listing_id) listing.state.should == "sold" expected: "sold", got: "current" (using ==) I've been trying to track down why the state change is not persisting, but am pretty much lost. Here is the result of some debugging code that I placed in the update_sold_items method during the test: pp listing.state # => "current" listing.sell! listing.save! pp listing.state # => "sold" listing.reload pp listing.state # => "current" I cannot understand why it saves perfectly fine, but then reverts back to the original record whenever I call reload, or Listing.find etc. Thanks for reading this, and please ask any questions if I haven't given enough information. Thanks for your help, Nathan B P.S. I don't have a problem creating new records for other classes, and testing those records. It only seems to be a problem when I am updating records that already exist in the database.

    Read the article

  • Nested WHILE loops in Python

    - by Guru
    I am a beginner with Python and trying few programs. I have something like the following WHILE loop construct in Python (not exact). IDLE 2.6.4 >>> a=0 >>> b=0 >>> while a < 4: a=a+1 while b < 4: b=b+1 print a, b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 I am expecting the outer loop to loop through 1,2,3 and 4. And I know I can do this with FOR loop like this >>> for a in range(1,5): for b in range(1,5): print a,b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 But, what is wrong with WHILE loop? I guess I am missing some thing obvious, but could not make out. P.S: Searched out SO, found few questions but none as close to this. Don't know whether this could classified as homework, the actual program was different, the problem is what puzzles me.

    Read the article

  • How to get rank from full-text search query with Linq to SQL?

    - by Stephen Jennings
    I am using Linq to SQL to call a stored procedure which runs a full-text search and returns the rank plus a few specific columns from the table Article. The rank column is the rank returned from the SQL function FREETEXTTABLE(). I've added this sproc to the data model designer with return type Article. This is working to get the columns I need; however, it discards the ranking of each search result. I'd like to get this information so I can display it to the user. So far, I've tried creating a new class RankedArticle which inherits from Article and adds the column Rank, then changing the return type of my sproc mapping to RankedArticle. When I try this, an InvalidOperationException gets thrown: Data member 'Int32 ArticleID' of type 'Heap.Models.Article' is not part of the mapping for type 'RankedArticle'. Is the member above the root of an inheritance hierarchy? I can't seem to find any other questions or Google results from people trying to get the rank column, so I'm probably missing something obvious here.

    Read the article

  • Need help using the DefaultModelBinder for a nested model.

    - by Will
    There are a few related questions, but I can't find an answer that works. Assuming I have the following models: public class EditorViewModel { public Account Account {get;set;} public string SomeSimpleStuff {get;set;} } public class Account { public string AccountName {get;set;} public int MorePrimitivesFollow {get;set;} } and a view that extends ViewPage<EditorViewModel> which does the following: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Account.AccountName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Account.AccountName)%> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.SomeSimpleStuff )%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.SomeSimpleStuff )%> and my controller looks like: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Edit(EditorViewModel account) { /*...*/ } How can I get the DefaultModelBinder to properly bind my EditorViewModel? Without doing anything special, I get an empty instance of my EditorViewModel with everything null or default. The closest I've come is by calling UpdateModel manually: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Edit(EditorViewModel account) { account.Account = new Account(); UpdateModel(account.Account, "Account"); // this kills me: UpdateModel(account); This successfully updates my Account property model, but when I call UpdateModel on account (to get the rest of the public properties of my EditorViewModel) I get the completely unhelpful "The model of type ... could not be updated." There is no inner exception, so I can't figure out what's going wrong. What should I do with this?

    Read the article

  • How to prove writing specifications beats code cowboys?

    - by Andrew Grant
    So I have a problem. Or rather my friend has a problem, since I would never write about my company on an internet forum. At my friend's company specification writing is, shall we say, a little underused. There's a deeply ingrained culture of writing code first and asking questions later, whether it's for a library routine or a new tool to inflict on their long suffering designers. This of course leads to situations where functionality is partially correct, incorrect, or just completely missing ("oh, just save before trying anything you may want to undo"). This usually results in a loss of productivity for those poor designers, or beta periods where bug-fixing is largely spent implementing things correctly. My friend's found his suggestions of writing (and testing against) specifications to be generally well received. Most of his colleagues have embraced the wonderful feeling of discovering false-assumptions on paper, instead of at 11pm on a Sunday in the middle of beta. Viva La Revolution! However there are a few who poo-poo anything that stands between their task and a keyboard. They laugh at the thought of actually designing anything, and write code with merry abandon. Mostly these are senior, long employed developers, reluctant to "waste time". The problem is that this second group of heretics invariably produce things (or at least something) quicker than the first. Subsequently this becomes justification along the lines of "It's pointless to write specifications for something as simple as an image resizer! Oh and those bugs where width!=height or the image uses RLE just need a few tweaks". And now the question :) Other than saying "told you so" at the end of a project, what are some good short-term ways to demonstrate how the practice of writing functional or technical specifications leads to better software in the long run? Cheers!

    Read the article

  • JOGL Double Buffering

    - by Bar
    What is eligible way to implement double buffering in JOGL (Java OpenGL)? I am trying to do that by the following code: ... /** Creating canvas. */ GLCapabilities capabilities = new GLCapabilities(); capabilities.setDoubleBuffered(true); GLCanvas canvas = new GLCanvas(capabilities); ... /** Function display(…), which draws a white Rectangle on a black background. */ public void display(GLAutoDrawable drawable) { drawable.swapBuffers(); gl = drawable.getGL(); gl.glClear(GL.GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL.GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); gl.glClearColor(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); gl.glColor3f(1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f); gl.glBegin(GL.GL_POLYGON); gl.glVertex2f(-0.5f, -0.5f); gl.glVertex2f(-0.5f, 0.5f); gl.glVertex2f(0.5f, 0.5f); gl.glVertex2f(0.5f, -0.5f); gl.glEnd(); } ... /** Other functions are empty. */ Questions: — When I'm resizing the window, I usually get flickering. As I see it, I have a mistake in my double buffering implementation. — I have doubt, where I must place function swapBuffers — before or after (as many sources says) the drawing? As you noticed, I use function swapBuffers (drawable.swapBuffers()) before drawing a rectangle. Otherwise, I'm getting a noise after resize. So what is an appropriate way to do that? Including or omitting the line capabilities.setDoubleBuffered(true) does not make any effect.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >