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  • define a closure as method from class

    - by user272839
    Hi, i'm trying to play with php5.3 and closure. I see here (Listing 7. Closure inside an object : http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/os-php-5.3new2/index.html) that it's possible to use $this in the callback function, but it's not. So I try to give $this as use variable : $self = $this; $foo = function() use($self) { //do something with $self } So to use the same example : class Dog { private $_name; protected $_color; public function __construct($name, $color) { $this->_name = $name; $this->_color = $color; } public function greet($greeting) { $self = $this; return function() use ($greeting, $self) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; }; } } $dog = new Dog("Rover","red"); $dog->greet("Hello"); Output: Hello, I am a red dog named Rover. First of all this example does not print the string but return the function, but that's not my problem. Secondly I can't access to private or protected, because the callback function is a global function and not in the context from the Dog object. Tha't my problem. It's the same as : function greet($greeting, $object) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } And I want : public function greet($greeting) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } Which is from Dog and not global. I hope that I am clear ...

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  • Custom button with property as StaticResource

    - by alin
    I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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  • How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

    - by devoured elysium
    When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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  • java: retrieving the "canonical value" from a Set<T> where T has a custom equals()

    - by Jason S
    I have a class Foo which overrides equals() and hashCode() properly. I would like to also would like to use a HashSet<Foo> to keep track of "canonical values" e.g. I have a class that I would like to write like this, so that if I have two separate objects that are equivalent I can coalesce them into references to the same object: class Canonicalizer<T> { final private Set<T> values = new HashSet<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { T canonical = this.values.get(value); if (canonical == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future this.values.add(value); return value; } else { return canonical; } } } except that Set doesn't have a "get" method that would return the actual value stored in the set, just the "contains" method that returns true or false. (I guess that it assumes that if you have an object that is equal to a separate object in the set, you don't need to retrieve the one in the set) Is there a convenient way to do this? The only other thing I can think of is to use a map and a list: class Canonicalizer<T> { // warning: neglects concurrency issues final private Map<T, Integer> valueIndex = new HashMap<T, Integer>(); final private List<T> values = new ArrayList<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { Integer i = this.valueIndex.get(value); if (i == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future i = this.values.size(); this.values.add(value); this.valueIndex.put(value, i); return value; } else { // in the set return this.values.get(i); } } }

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  • How operator oveloading works

    - by Rasmi Ranjan Nayak
    I have below code class rectangle { ..... .....//Some code int operator+(rectangle r1) { return(r1.length+length); } }; In main fun. int main() { rectangle r1(10,20); rectangle r2(40,60); rectangle r3(30,60); int len = r1+r3; } Here if we will see in operator+(), we are doing r1.length + length. How the compiler comes to know that the 2nd length in return statement belong to object r3 not to r1 or r2? I think answer may be in main() we have writeen int len = r1+r3; If that is the case then why do we need to write in operator+(....) { r1.lenth + lenth; //Why not length + length? } Why not length + length? Bcause compiler already knows from main() that the first length belong to object r1 and 2nd to object r3.

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

    - by Bex
    Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

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  • Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

    - by Tom Castle
    Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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  • Java abstract visitor - guarantueed to succeed? If so, why?

    - by disown
    I was dealing with hibernate, trying to figure out the run-time class behind proxied instances by using the visitor pattern. I then came up with an AbstractVisitable approach, but I wonder if it will always produce correct results. Consider the following code: interface Visitable { public void accept(Visitor v); } interface Visitor { public void visit(Visitable visitorHost); } abstract class AbstractVisitable implements Visitable { @Override public void accept(Visitor v) { v.visit(this); } } class ConcreteVisitable extends AbstractVisitable { public static void main(String[] args) { final Visitable visitable = new ConcreteVisitable(); final Visitable proxyVisitable = (Visitable) Proxy.newProxyInstance( Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader(), new Class<?>[] { Visitable.class }, new InvocationHandler() { @Override public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { return method.invoke(visitable, args); } }); proxyVisitable.accept(new Visitor() { @Override public void visit(Visitable visitorHost) { System.out.println(visitorHost.getClass()); } }); } } This makes a ConcreteVisitable which inherits the accept method from AbstractVisitable. In c++, I would consider this risky, since this in AbstractVisitable could be referencing to AbstractVisitable::this, and not ConcreteVisitable::this. I was worried that the code under certain circumstances would print class AbstractVisible. Yet the code above outputs class ConcreteVisitable, even though I hid the real type behind a dynamic proxy (the most difficult case I could come up with). Is the abstract visitor approach above guaranteed to work, or are there some pitfalls with this approach? What guarantees are given in Java with respect to the this pointer?

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  • Class Generics break completely seperate method

    - by TheLQ
    I found a strange problem when I used class Generics Today: Setting some broke a completely separate method. Here's a small example class that illustrates the problem. This code works just fine public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) return; } } Now as soon as I use class Generics, the getListeners() method returns Set<Object> instead of Set<Listener> public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest<E extends Object> { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) //Expected Listener, not Object return; } } What would cause this error? The ##java channel on Freenode said it was because of compile time candy and that I was using a raw type. But how would an raw class type break all generics in the class? And how would of worked before?

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • Why does using the Asynchronous Programming Model in .Net not lead to StackOverflow exceptions?

    - by uriDium
    For example, we call BeginReceive and have the callback method that BeginReceive executes when it has completed. If that callback method once again calls BeginReceive in my mind it would be very similar to recursion. How is that this does not cause a stackoverflow exception. Example code from MSDN: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } }

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  • How do I create an exception-wrapping fubumvc behaviour?

    - by Jon M
    How can I create a fubumvc behaviour that wraps actions with a particular return type, and if an exception occurs while executing the action, then the behaviour logs the exception and populates some fields on the return object? I have tried the following: public class JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour : IActionBehavior { private static readonly Logger logger = LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); private readonly IActionBehavior _innerBehavior; private readonly IFubuRequest _request; public JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour(IActionBehavior innerBehavior, IFubuRequest request) { _innerBehavior = innerBehavior; _request = request; } public void Invoke() { try { _innerBehavior.Invoke(); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = true; } catch(Exception ex) { logger.ErrorException("Error processing JSON request", ex); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = false; response.Exception = ex.ToString(); } } public void InvokePartial() { _innerBehavior.InvokePartial(); } } But, although I get the AjaxResponse object from the request, any changes I make don't get sent back to the client. Also, any exceptions thrown by the action don't make it as far as this, the request is terminated before execution gets to the catch block. What am I doing wrong? For completeness, the behaviour is wired up with the following in my WebRegistry: Policies .EnrichCallsWith<JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour>(action => typeof(AjaxResponse).IsAssignableFrom(action.Method.ReturnType)); And AjaxResponse looks like: public class AjaxResponse { public bool Success { get; set; } public object Data { get; set; } public string Exception { get; set; } }

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  • jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

    - by Zayatzz
    ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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  • Issue with dynamically loading a user control on button click

    - by Kumar
    I have a page in which I am loading a user control dynamically as follows: Default.aspx: <cc1:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </cc1:ToolkitScriptManager> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> Default.aspx.cs: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var ctrl = LoadControl("~/UserCtrl1.ascx"); ctrl.ID = "ucUserCtrl1"; PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(ctrl); } Below is the code for UserCtrl1.ascx <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> <br /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder2" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> I am dynamically loading another user control when the Button1 is clicked UserCtrl1.ascx.cs protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = "UserControl - 1 button clicked!"; var ctrl = LoadControl("~/UserCtrl2.ascx"); ctrl.ID = "ucUserCtrl2"; PlaceHolder2.Controls.Add(ctrl); } Below is the markup for UserCtrl2.ascx <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button2" OnClick="Button2_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> UserCtrl2.ascx.cs protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label2.Text = "UserControl - 2 button clicked!"; } After the page loads when I click the Button1 in UserCtrl1 the click event fires and I am able to see the Label1 text. It also properly loads the UserCtrl2, but when I click the Button2 in UserCtrl2 the click event dosent fire and even worse when I click the Button2 twice the UserCtrl2 control dissappears from the page. How can I fix this?

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  • Method in RootViewController not Storing Array

    - by Antonio
    I have an array initialized in my RootViewController and a method that addsObjects to an array. I created a RootViewController object in my SecondViewController. The method runs (outputs a message) but it doesn't add anything to the array, and the array seems empty. Code is below, any suggestions? RootViewController.h #import "RootViewController.h" #import "SecondViewController.h" @implementation RootViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myArray2 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSLog(@"View was loaded"); } -(void)addToArray2{ NSLog(@"Array triggered from SecondViewController"); [myArray2 addObject:@"Test"]; [self showArray2]; } -(void)showArray2{ NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray2 count]); } -(IBAction)switchViews{ SecondViewController *screen = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; screen.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:screen animated:YES]; [screen release]; } SecondViewController.m #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "RootViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction)addToArray{ RootViewController *object = [[RootViewController alloc] init]; [object addToArray2]; } -(IBAction)switchBack{ [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } EDIT***** With Matt's code I got the following error: " expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'RootViewController' "

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  • Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

    - by JayT
    Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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  • webpart context.session is null

    - by tbischel
    I've been using the session array to store a state variable for my webpart... so I have a property like this: public INode RootNode { get { return this.Context.Session["RootNode"] as INode; } set { this.Context.Session["RootNode"] = value as object; } } This usually works fine. I've discovered that sometimes, the context.session variable will be null. I'd like to know what are the conditions that cause the session to be null in the first place, and whats the best way to persist my object when this happens? Can I just assign a new HttpSessionState object to the context, or does that screw things up? Edit: Ok, so its not just the session that is null... the whole context is screwed up. When the webpart enters the init, the context is fine... but when it reaches the dropbox selectedindexchange postback event (the dropbox contains node id's to use to set the rootnode variable), the context contains mostly null properties. also, it only seems to happen when certain id's are selected. This looks more like some kind of weird bug on my end than a problem with my understanding of the session.

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  • sqlalchemy dynamic mapping

    - by adancu
    Hi, I have the following problem: I have the class: class Word(object): def __init__(self): self.id = None self.columns = {} def __str__(self): return "(%s, %s)" % (str(self.id), str(self.columns)) self.columns is a dict which will hold (columnName:columnValue) values. The name of the columns are known at runtime and they are loaded in a wordColumns list, for example wordColumns = ['english', 'korean', 'romanian'] wordTable = Table('word', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key = True) ) for columnName in wordColumns: wordTable.append_column(Column(columnName, String(255), nullable = False)) I even created a explicit mapper properties to "force" the table columns to be mapped on word.columns[columnName], instead of word.columnName, I don't get any error on mapping, but it seems that doesn't work. mapperProperties = {} for column in wordColumns: mapperProperties['columns[\'%']' % column] = wordTable.columns[column] mapper(Word, wordTable, mapperProperties) When I load a word object, SQLAlchemy creates an object which has the word.columns['english'], word.columns['korean'] etc. properties instead of loading them into word.columns dict. So for each column, it creates a new property. Moreover word.columns dictionary doesn't even exists. The same way, when I try to persist a word, SQLAlchemy expects to find the column values in properties named like word.columns['english'] (string type) instead of the dictionary word.columns. I have to say that my experience with Python and SQLAlchemy is quite limited, maybe it isn't possible to do what I'm trying to do. Any help appreciated, Thanks in advance.

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  • DDD: Enum like entities

    - by Chris
    Hi all, I have the following DB model: **Person table** ID | Name | StateId ------------------------------ 1 Joe 1 2 Peter 1 3 John 2 **State table** ID | Desc ------------------------------ 1 Working 2 Vacation and domain model would be (simplified): public class Person { public int Id { get; } public string Name { get; set; } public State State { get; set; } } public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } } The state might be used in the domain logic e.g.: if(person.State == State.Working) // some logic So from my understanding, the State acts like a value object which is used for domain logic checks. But it also needs to be present in the DB model to represent a clean ERM. So state might be extended to: public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } public static State New {get {return new State([hardCodedIdHere?], [hardCodeNameHere?]);}} } But using this approach the name of the state would be hardcoded into the domain. Do you know what I mean? Is there a standard approach for such a thing? From my point of view what I am trying to do is using an object (which is persisted from the ERM design perspective) as a sort of value object within my domain. What do you think? Question update: Probably my question wasn't clear enough. What I need to know is, how I would use an entity (like the State example) that is stored in a database within my domain logic. To avoid things like: if(person.State.Id == State.Working.Id) // some logic or if(person.State.Id == WORKING_ID) // some logic

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  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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  • Python base classes share attributes?

    - by tad
    Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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  • SharePoint Web Part on Masterpage not displaying on SubSite

    - by madatanic
    Hi all, Scenario: - A out-of-the-box DataFormWebPart on masterpage connected to a top-level site List. - A subsite using that same masterpage from top-level site. - Error happens when accessing the sub site as below Stack Trace [InvalidOperationException: Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object.] Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFolder.get_ContentTypeOrder() +488 Microsoft.SharePoint.SPContext.get_ContentTypes() +898 Microsoft.SharePoint.SPContext.get_ContentType() +472 Microsoft.SharePoint.SPContext.get_Fields() +271 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.FormComponent.get_Fields() +44 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.FieldMetadata.get_Field() +419 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.FormField.CreateChildControls() +596 System.Web.UI.Control.EnsureChildControls() +87 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.BaseFieldControl.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +176 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +141 System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl(Control control, Int32 index) +265 System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +80 System.Web.UI.Control.AddParsedSubObject(Object obj) +41 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.WebPart.AddParsedSubObject(Object obj) +1149 Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.CreateChildControls() +1267 System.Web.UI.Control.EnsureChildControls() +87 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +44 System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts.WebPart.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +42 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842 I have tried the solution from this site to enable the subsite to access top level site list. Is this a bug? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to De-Serialize a new Derived class using Old Binary?

    - by Anand
    In my project I have a class which I Serialize in Binary format to the disk. Due to some new requirement I need to create a new class which is derived from the original class. eg [Serializable] public class Sample { String someString; int someInt; public Sample() { } public Sample(String _someString, int _someInt) { this.someInt = _someInt; this.someString = _someString; } public String SomeString { get { return someString; } } public int SomeInt { get { return someInt; } } } [Serializable] public class DerivedSample : Sample { String someMoreString; int someMoreInt; public DerivedSample () : base() { } public DerivedSample (String _someString, int _someInt, String _someMoreString, int _someMoreInt) : base(_someString, _someInt) { this.someMoreString = _someMoreString; this.someMoreInt = _someMoreInt; } public String SomeMoreString { get { return someMoreString; } } public int SomeMoreInt { get { return someMoreInt; } } } When I try to De serialize an old file which contains only object of Sample it works fine, in the current assembly. That means backward compatibility is there. But when I try to deserialize the file which contains object of DerivedSample using the previous version of the assembly application crashes. Which means forward compatibilty needs to be taken care off... It it possible to say read only the base class part of the object from new version of the file?

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