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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • PHP script stops running arbitrarily with no errors.

    - by RobHardgood
    I was working on a fairly long script that seemed to stop running after about 20 minutes. After days of trying to figure out why, I decided to make a very simple script to see how long it would run without any complex code to confuse me. I found that the same thing was happening with this simple infinite loop. At some point between 15 and 25 minutes of running, it simply stopped. There is no error output at all. The bottom of the browser simply says "Done" and nothing else is processed. I've been over every single possible thing I could think of... set_time_limit, session.gc_maxlifetime in the php.ini as well as memory_limit and max_execution_time. The point that the script is stopped is never consistent. Sometimes it will stop at 15 minutes, sometimes 22 minutes, sometimes 17... But it's always long enough to be a PITA to test. Please, any help would be greatly appreciated. It is hosted on a 1and1 server. I contacted them and they couldn't help me... but I have a feeling they just didn't know enough.

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  • Multiple Facebook scripts?

    - by J Set
    This may be kind of a dumb question, but the script for the facebook button on the like button page is different from the script on the javascript sdk page, but similar. Did facebook just forget to update the documentation or do I need both scripts? The like button page gives: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk'));</script> But on the javascript sdk page: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'YOUR_APP_ID', // App ID channelUrl : '//WWW.YOUR_DOMAIN.COM/channel.html', // Channel File status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); // Additional initialization code here }; // Load the SDK Asynchronously (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); }(document)); </script>

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  • Finding the index of a list item in jQuery

    - by Tim Piele
    I have an unordered list of eight items. On page load the first five <li> have default thumbnail images in them and the 6th one has a 1px by 1px placeholder image with the ID of $('#last'). When a user inserts a new image it replaces the 'src' of $('#last') with their new image. It's not the most efficient way but it works. <ul> <li><img src="img1.png" /></li> <li><img src="img2.png" /></li> <li><img src="img3.png" /></li> <li><img src="img4.png" /></li> <li><img src="img5.png" /></li> <li><img src="1px.png" id="last"/></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> When the user adds a new image the ID of $('#last') is removed and I use each() to find the next empty <li> and insert the 1px by 1px image in it, with an ID of $('#last') so it is ready for the next image upload. At this point I need to get the index() of the <li> that now has the 1px by 1px image in it, whose ID is $('#last'), so that I can store the index in the session, so when a user comes back to the page the $('#last') ID is still set and ready to accept another image. How do I get the index of the <li> with that image in it, since it was set after page load? Is there a way to use delegate() or on() to get it? i.e. how do I get the index of an element that was set after page load?

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  • How do I deliver mail for wildcard addresses to a particular user/alias/program?

    - by David M
    I need to configure sendmail so that mail delivered for wildcard addresses is accepted for delivery and then delivered to a user, alias, or directly to a script. I can rewrite the envelope/headers any number of ways, but I don't know how to accept the wildcard address when it's provided in RCPT TO: Everything I've tried so far winds up with a 550 user unknown error. So here's a specific example: I want to be able to handle any address that consists of a series of digits followed by a dot followed by a word, then pipe that to a script. If the headers get rewritten, that's OK, but I need the envelope to contain the actual Delivered-To address. Here's the sort of SMTP session I need: 220 blah.foo.com ESMTP server ready; Thu, 22 Apr 2010 20:41:08 -0700 (PDT) HELO blort.foo.com 250 blah.foo.com Hello blort.foo.com [10.1.2.3], pleased to meet you MAIL FROM: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.0 <[email protected]>... Sender ok RCPT TO: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.5 <[email protected]>... Recipient ok I tried some stuff with regex maps, but I never got past 550 user unknown.

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  • how to use a list containing the query result with hibernate and display it in jsp

    - by kawtousse
    hi everyone, In my servlet I construct the query like the following: net.sf.hibernate.Session s = null; net.sf.hibernate.Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom,dailytimesheet.TrackingDate,dailytimesheet.Activity," + "dailytimesheet.ProjectCode,dailytimesheet.WAName,dailytimesheet.TaskCode," + "dailytimesheet.TimeSpent,dailytimesheet.PercentTaskComplete from Opcemployees opcemployees,Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet " + "where opcemployees.Matricule=dailytimesheet.Matricule and dailytimesheet.Etat=3 " + "group by opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom" ); List opdts= query.list(); request.setAttribute("items", opdts); request.getRequestDispatcher("EspaceValidation.jsp").forward(request, response); } catch (HibernateException e){ e.printStackTrace();} But in the jsp I can't display the result correctly. I do the following in JSP: <table> <c:forEach items="${items}" var="item"> <tr> <td>${item}</td> </tr> </c:forEach> </table> thanks for help.

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  • Problem with 2 levels of inheritance in hibernate mapping

    - by Seth
    Here's my class structure: class A class B extends A class C extends A class D extends C class E extends C And here are my mappings (class bodies omitted for brevity): Class A: @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="className", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class A Class B: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class B extends A Class C: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("C") @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="cType", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class C extends A Class D: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("D") public class D extends C Class E: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("E") public class E extends C I've got a class F that contains a set of A: @Entity public class F { ... @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name="F_A", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="A_ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="F_ID") ) private Set<A> aSet = new HashSet<A>(); ... The problem is that whenever I add a new E instance to aSet and then call session.saveOrUpdate(fInstance), hibernate saves with "A" as the discrimiator string. When I try to access the aSet in the F instance, I get the following exception (full stacktrace ommitted for brevity): org.hibernate.InstantiationException: Cannot instantiate abstract class or interface: path.to.class.A Am I mapping the classes incorrectly? How am I supposed to map multiple levels of inheritance? Thanks for the help!

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  • Changing property of ItemTemplate controls in ListView

    - by arturito
    I have ListView containig LinkButtons in ItemTemplate. ListView is inside UpdatePanel so it is not doing page refresh. When users click on one the LinkButtons it changes its css property in order to mark the selection: protected void ListView1_ItemCommand1(object sender, ListViewCommandEventArgs e) { ((LinkButton)e.CommandSource).CssClass = "selected"; } That allows multiple selections. But once the page is refreshed the selection disappears, meaning that css property of control goes back to default. <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="local" Text='<%#Eval("Local.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectLocal" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Local.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> <asp:LinkButton ID="guest" Text='<%#Eval("Guest.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectGuest" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Guest.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> How can I select them programatically on page reload? (I'm mainating selection list in session)

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  • Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

    - by Kevin Brown
    I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

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  • Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

    - by azera
    While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

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  • How do i access EJB implementing remote interface in separate web application?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am using Netbeans 6.8 and Glassfish v3.0. I created an ejb module and created entity classes from database and then created stateless session bean with remote interface. Say eg. @Remote public interface customerRemote{ public void add(String name, String address); public Customer find(Integer id); } @Stateless public class customerBean implements customerRemote{ //implementations of methods } Then i created a new web application. But now how do i access remote ejb's in my web application. I could lookup a bean with jndi name but what i want to know is, what type of object it will return? How do i typecast it in customerRemote? I don't have any class named customerRemote in my web application. So, how do i do it? Also, what about the entity class Customer? There is no such class named Customer in my web application also. All ejb's and entity classes are in separate ejb module. Please help me :(

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  • NHibernate's ISQLQuery returns instances that are of an unexpected type.

    - by Frederik Gheysels
    Hi all, I'm using NHibernate 2.1.2.400, and I'm having an issue with a an ISQLQuery query. The reason why I use an ISQLQuery here, is that this query uses a table for which I have no entity mapped in NHibernate. The query looks like this: ISQLQuery query = session.CreateSQLQuery ( "select p.*, price.* " + "from prestation p left outer join prestationprice price on p.PrestationId = price.PrestationId " + "where p.Id IN ( select id from prestationregistry where ..."); 'Prestationregistry' is the table that is not known by NHibernate (unmapped, so therefore the native SQL Query). my code continues like this: query.AddEntity ("p", typeof(Prestation)); query.AddJoin ("price", typeof(PrestationPrice)); query.SetResultTransformer (Transformers.DistinctRootEntity); var result = query.List(); So far so good. I expect that I'm given a list of 'Prestation' instances as a result of this query, since I declared 'Prestation' as being the root-object that has to be returned by the AddEntity method. I also expect that the PrestationPrices for each Prestation are eagerly loaded by this query (hence the AddJoin method). To my surprise, the List() method returns a collection of PrestationPrice instances instead of Prestation instances. How come ? Am I doing something wrong ? And if so, could you be so kind to tell me what I'm doing wrong ? Edit: Additional Info: When I debug, and put a watch on the 'query' instance, I can see that the queryReturns member of the query contains 2 items: - one NativeSqlQueryRootReturn instance who'se ReturnEntityName is 'Prestation' - one NativeSqlQueryJoinReturn When I do not specify the 'DistinctRootEntity' result transformer, the query returns instances of 'Prestation' instead of PrestationPrice. However, it contains multiple copies of the same instance.

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • Not loading associations without proxies in NHibernate

    - by Alice
    I don't like the idea of proxy and lazy loading. I don't need that. I want pure POCO. And I want to control loading associations explicitly when I need. Here is entity public class Post { public long Id { get; set; } public long OwnerId { get; set; } public string Content { get; set; } public User Owner { get; set; } } and mapping <class name="Post"> <id name="Id" /> <property name="OwnerId" /> <property name="Content" /> <many-to-one name="Owner" column="OwnerId" /> </class> However if I specify lazy="false" in the mapping, Owner is always eagerly fetched. I can't remove many-to-one mapping because that also disables explicit loading or a query like from x in session.Query<Comment>() where x.Owner.Title == "hello" select x; I specified lazy="true" and set use_proxy_validator property to false. But that also eager loads Owner. Is there any way to load only Post entity?

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  • What's the best way to store Logon User information for Web Application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I was once in a project of web application developed on ASP.NET. For each logon user, there is an object (let's call it UserSessionObject here) created and stored in RAM. For each HTTP request of given user, matching UserSessoinObject instance is used to visit user state information and connection to database. So, this UserSessionObject is pretty important. This design brings several problems found later: 1) Since this UserSessionObject is cached in ASP.NET memory space, we have to config load balancer to be sticky connection. That is, HTTP request in single session would always be sent to one web server behind. This limit scalability and maintainability. 2) This UserSessionObject is accessed in every HTTP request. To keep the consistency, there is a exclusive lock for the UserSessionObject. Only one HTTP request can be processed at any given time because it must to obtain the lock first. The performance and response time is affected. Now, I'm wondering whether there is better design to handle such logon user case. It seems Sharing-Nothing-Architecture helps. That means long user info is retrieved from database each time. I'm afraid that would hurt performance. Is there any design pattern for long user web app? Thanks.

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  • DWR and Spring Security - User is deauthenticated in few seconds

    - by Vojtech
    I am trying to implement user authentication via DWR as follows: public class PublicRemote { @Autowired @Qualifier("authenticationManager") private AuthenticationManager authenticationManager; public Map<String, Object> userLogin(String username, String password, boolean stay) { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<>(); UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken authRequest = new UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken(username, password); try { Authentication authentication = authenticationManager.authenticate(authRequest); SecurityContextHolder.getContext().setAuthentication(authentication); map.put("success", "true"); } catch (Exception e) { map.put("success", "false"); } return map; } public Map<String, Object> getUserState() { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<>(); Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); boolean authenticated = authentication != null && authentication.isAuthenticated(); map.put("authenticated", authenticated); if (authenticated) { map.put("authorities", authentication.getAuthorities()); } return map; } } The authentication works correctly and by calling getUserState() I can see that the user is successfully logged in. The problem is that this state will stay only for few seconds. In probably 5 seconds, the getAuthentication() starts returning null. Is there some problem with session in DWR or is it some misconfiguration of Spring Security?

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  • YQL + PHP : how to make a facebook login

    - by Jonathan
    Hi! I was reading some stuff about the YQL api that Yahoo! has provided, I am not sure, but it appears to be a collection of lots of third party api into one common language, right? what I don't get is how to make the facebook login through it so I can get the user profile data... My project is to add a facebook(and other social networks) form login, because the website won't have his own login, people will have to use a social network to link in. Then I thought the YQL would help me out with this task so I wouldn't have to develop lots of functions to each one of the networks. Reading this http://developer.yahoo.com/yql/guide/yql-code-examples.html#sdk_yql, I understood how to make a Yahoo login so I can access some private data, but couldn't find how I could do it with facebook and others So my question... Can YQL help me with this? Can you give me a simple example of a facebook session using it within PHP? Are there alternatives to aid me in this task? thanks, Jonathan

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  • Can a WebServiceHost be changed to avoid the use of HttpListener?

    - by sbyse
    I am looking for a way to use a WCF WebServiceHost without having to rely on the HttpListener class and it's associated permission problems (see this question for details). I'm working on a application which communicates locally with another (third-party) application via their REST API. At the moment we are using WCF as an embedded HTTP server. We create a WebServiceHost as follows: String hostPath = "http://localhost:" + portNo; WebServiceHost host = new WebServiceHost(typeof(IntegrationService), new Uri(hostPath)); // create a webhttpbinding for rest/pox and enable cookie support for session management WebHttpBinding webHttpBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); webHttpBinding.AllowCookies = true; ServiceEndpoint ep = host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IIntegrationService), webHttpBinding, ""); host.Open() ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService> cf = new ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService>(webHttpBinding, hostPath); IIntegrationService channel = cf.CreateChannel(); Everything works nicely as long as our application is run as administrator. If we run our application on a machine without administrative privileges the host.Open() will throw an HttpListenerException with ErrorCode == 5 (ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED). We can get around the problem by running httpcfg.exe from the command line but this is a one-click desktop application and that's not really as long term solution for us. We could ditch WCF and write our own HTTP server but I'd like to avoid that if possible. What's the easiest way to replace HttpListener with a standard TCP socket while still using all of the remaining HTTP scaffolding that WCF provides?

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  • Ideas Needed for a Base Code System

    - by Tegan Snyder
    I've developed a PHP web application that is currently in need of a strategic restructuring. Currently when we setup new clients we give them the entire code base on a subdomain of our main domain and create a new table for them in the database. This results in each client having the entire codebase, meaning when we make bug changes, fixes we have to go back and apply them independently across all clients and this is a pain. What I'd like to create is a base code server that holds all the core PHP files. base.domain.com Then all of our clients (client.domain.com) will only need a few files: config.php would have the database connection information. index.php - displays the login box if session non-existant, otherwise it loads baseline code via remote includes to base.domain.com. My question is does my logic seem feasible? How do other people handle similar situations by having a base code? Also.... Is it even possbile to remotely include PHP files from base.domain.com and include them in client.domain.com? Thanks, Tegan

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  • How to detect column conflicts with Hibernate?

    - by Slim
    So let's say I have an ArrayList full of Products that need to be committed to the database via Hibernate. There are already a large number of Products in the database. Each product has an ID. Note this is NOT the PK that is autogenerated by Hibernate. My questions is: what is the best way to detect conflicts with this ID? I am looking for a relatively efficient method of obtaining, from the the database, a List of Products that share an ID with any of the Products in my ArrayList. This is all in a single table called Products and the ID attribute is in column ProductID. The way I've done it is grabbing a list of all Products in the database, and compared each one with each entry in my ArrayList - but that is seriously inefficient and I don't think it would work well with a larger database. How should it be done? Thanks. I say "relatively" efficient because efficiency is not the primary concern, but it shouldn't take noticeably long to test against a table of ~1000-5000 rows. Help? EDIT* I'm very new to hibernate and below is the best I've come up with. How does this look? for(long id : idList){ //idList just holds the IDs of each Product in my ArrayList Query query = session.createQuery("select product from Product product where product.id = :id"); query.setLong("id", id); for(int i = 0; i < query.list().size(); i++){ listOfConflictingProducts.add((Product) query.list().get(i)); } }

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  • Dynamic WCF base addresses in SharePoint

    - by Paul Bevis
    I'm attempting to host a WCF service in SharePoint. I have configured the service to be compatible with ASP.NET to allow me access to HttpContext and session information [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class MISDataService : IMISDataService { ... } And my configuration looks like this <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="MISDataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MISDataViews.IMISDataService" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Whilst this gives me access to the current HTTP context, the serivce is always hosted under the root domain, i.e. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc. In SharePoint the URL being accessed gives you specific context information about the current site via the SPContext class. So with the service hosted in a virtual directory, I would like it to be available on mulitple addresses e.g. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site1/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site2/_layouts/MISDataService.svc so that the service can figure out what data to return based upon the current context. Is it possible to configure the endpoint address dynamically? Or is the only alternative to host the service in one location and then pass the "context" to it some how?

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  • Using nHibernate to map two different data models to one entity model

    - by Dan
    I have two different data models that map to the same Car entity. I needed to create a second entity called ParkedCar, which is identical to Car (and therefore inherits from it) in order to stop nhibernate complaining that two mappings exists for the same entity. public class Car { protected Car() { IsParked = false; } public virtual int Id { get; set; } public bool IsParked { get; internal set; } } public class ParkedCar : Car { public ParkedCar() { IsParked = true; } //no additional properties to car, merely exists to support mapping and signify the car is parked } The only issue is that when I come to retrieve a Car from the database using the Criteria API like so: SessionProvider.OpenSession.Session.CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Id", 123)) .List<Car>(); The query brings back Car Entities that are from the ParkedCar data model. Its as if nhibernate defaults to the specialised entity. And the mappings are defiantly looking in the right place: <class name="Car" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" table="tblCar"> <class name="ParkedCar" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" table="tblParkedCar" > How do I stop this?

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  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

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  • Conditional row count in linq to nhibernate doesn't work

    - by Lucasus
    I want to translate following simple sql query into Linq to NHibernate: SELECT NewsId ,sum(n.UserHits) as 'HitsNumber' ,sum(CASE WHEN n.UserHits > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) as 'VisitorsNumber' FROM UserNews n GROUP BY n.NewsId My simplified UserNews class: public class AktualnosciUzytkownik { public virtual int UserNewsId { get; set; } public virtual int UserHits { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } // UserId key in db table public virtual News News { get; set; } // NewsId key in db table } I've written following linq query: var hitsPerNews = (from n in Session.Query<UserNews>() group n by n.News.NewsId into g select new { NewsId = g.Key, HitsNumber = g.Sum(x => x.UserHits), VisitorsNumber = g.Count(x => x.UserHits > 0) }).ToList(); But generated sql just ignores my x => x.UserHits > 0 statement and makes unnecessary 'left outer join': SELECT news1_.NewsId AS col_0_0_, CAST(SUM(news0_.UserHits) AS INT) AS col_1_0_, CAST(COUNT(*) AS INT) AS col_2_0_ FROM UserNews news0_ LEFT OUTER JOIN News news1_ ON news0_.NewsId=news1_.NewsId GROUP BY news1_.NewsId How Can I fix or workaround this issue? Maybe this can be done better with QueryOver syntax?

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  • JSF 2 - clearing component attributes on page load?

    - by jamiebarrow
    Hi, The real question: Is there a way to clear certain attributes for all components on an initial page load? Background info: In my application, I have a JSF 2.0 frontend layer that speaks to a service layer (the service layer is made up of Spring beans that get injected to the managed beans). The service layer does its own validation, and I do the same validation in the frontend layer using my own validator classes to try and avoid code duplication somehow. These validator classes aren't JSF validators, they're just POJOs. I'm only doing validation on an action, so in the action method, I perform validation, and only if it's valid do I call through to the service layer. When I do my validation, I set the styleClass and title on the UIComponents using reflection (so if the UIComponent has the setStyleClass(:String) or setTitle(:String) methods, then I use them). This works nicely, and on a validation error I see a nicely styled text box with a popup containing the error message if I hover over it. However, since the component is bound to a Session Scoped Managed Bean, it seems that these attributes stick. So if I navigate away and come back to the same page, the styleClass and title are still in the error state. Is there a way to clear the styleClass and title attributes on each initial page load? Thanks, James P.S. I'm using the action method to validate because of some issues I had before with JSF 1.2 and it's validation methods, but can't remember why... so that's why I'm using the action method to validate.

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