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  • is it possible that a greasemonkey script can work on one computer but not on another?

    - by plastic cloud
    i'm writing an greasemonkey script for somebody else. he is a moderator and i am not. and the script will help him do some moderating things. now the script works for me. as far as it can work for me.(as i am not a mod) but even those things that work for me are not working for him.. i checked his version of greasemonkey plugin and firefox and he is up to date. only thing that's really different is that i'm on a mac and he is pc, but i wouldn't think that would be any problem. this is one of the functions that is not working for him. he does gets the first and third GM_log message. but not the second one ("got some(1) .."). kmmh.trackNames = function(){ GM_log("starting to get names from the first "+kmmh.topAmount+" page(s) from leaderboard."); kmmh.leaderboardlist = []; for (var p=1; p<=(kmmh.topAmount); p++){ var page = "http://www.somegamesite.com/leaderboard?page="+ p; var boardHTML = ""; dojo.xhrGet({ url: page, sync: true, load: function(response){ boardHTML = response; GM_log("got some (1) => "+boardHTML.length); }, handleAs: "text" }); GM_log("got some (2) => "+boardHTML.length); //create dummy div and place leaderboard html in there var dummy = dojo.create('div', { innerHTML: boardHTML }); //search through it var searchN = dojo.query('.notcurrent', dummy).forEach(function(node,index){ if(index >= 10){ kmmh.leaderboardlist.push(node.textContent); // add names to array } }); } GM_log("all names from "+ kmmh.topAmount +" page(s) of leaderboard ==> "+ kmmh.leaderboardlist); does anyone have any idea what could be causing this ?? EDIT: i know i had to write according to what he would see on his mod screen. so i asked him to copy paste source of pages and so on. and besides that, this part of the script is not depending on being a mod or not. i got everything else working for him. just this function still doesn't on neither of his pc's.

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  • Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

    - by Arne
    Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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  • remove/ignore float from outer div

    - by acidzombie24
    This may sound weird but i have some css which aligns mys divs. In one place i also use http://www.brunildo.org/test/img_center.html which centers images. Now i want my divs inside a larger div to go to another line if this one gets full. float: left seems to be the answer. The problem is it ruins my formatting. Including solution in the above link. I have this test code. If i remove the width and float it looks fine except it may take up too much space and not go to another line. I was thinking i could use float on an outerdiv and center the image within. However float: left is still breaking it. I am hoping there is a way to remove the float so each div does go left but the div inside centers correctly not breaking my formatting. <style type="text/css"> .wraptocenter { display: table-cell; text-align: center; vertical-align: middle; width: 200px; height: 200px; background: blue; } .wraptocenter * { vertical-align: middle; } /*\*//*/ .wraptocenter { display: block; } .wraptocenter span { display: inline-block; height: 100%; width: 1px; } /**/ div.c { background: red; overflow: hidden; min-width: 400px; max-width: 400px; } div.c div { float: left; } </style> <!--[if lt IE 8]><style> .wraptocenter span { display: inline-block; height: 100%; } </style><![endif]--> <div class="c"> <div> <div> <div class="wraptocenter"><span></span><img src="a.jpg" alt="/a.jpg"></div> <div class="wraptocenter"><span></span><img src="a.jpg" alt="/a.jpg"></div> <div class="wraptocenter"><span></span><img src="a.jpg" alt="/a.jpg"></div> </div></div></div>

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

    - by Daryn
    I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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  • Struts2 form elements UI too rigid

    - by jscoot
    Hello, i found a similar problem like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2314296/struts2-form-elements but no answer is given until now. So here i post my difficulties with a vengeance. I am using Struts2 with version 2.1.6. When I leave the input elements such as <s:textfield>, <s:textarea>, etc. of a <s:form> with the default theme, the elements are rendered as: <tr> <td class="tdLabel"><label for="firstname" class="label">Firstname:</label></td> <td><input type="text" name="firstname" id="firstname"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="tdLabel"><label for="lastname" class="label">Lastname:</label></td> <td><input type="text" name="lastname" id="lastname"/></td> </tr> Now if i want to add something, say an html label, between the two elements, the result gets messed up as described in the related question above. Another problem is: for the <s:checkbox> item, it is just not possible to add an extra title. For example, this tag <s:checkbox id="defaultprinter" name="defaultprinter" key="lbl.defaultprinter"/> is rendered as: <tr> <td valign="top" align="right"></td> <td valign="top" align="left"> <input type="checkbox" name="defaultprinter" value="true" checked="checked" id="defaultprinter"/> <label for="defaultprinter" class="checkboxLabel">Default Printer</label> </td> </tr> By only setting the attributes of <s:checkbox>, i can't add any text to the first <td> shown above (here it is empty!). I don't know if the above rigid UI problems can be solved or there is any workarounds somewhere. Thanks in advance.

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  • Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

    - by SlackerCoder
    Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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  • Attach GestureRecogniser to multiple imageviews

    - by AppleDeveloper
    Something strange I encountered today while attaching same gesture recogniser to multiple image views. It gets attached to only the last one, in other words, it can be attached to only one view! I had to create multiple gesture recognisers to meet my requirements. Following is what I have done. Am I doing correct? Is that's the only way to attach recognisers to the multiple imageviews? Please note that I don't want to use UITableView or UIVIew and put all imageviews in it and attach gesture recogniser to only UITableView or UIVIew. I have all image scattered and I have to detect which image is being dragged. Thanks. [imgView1 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView1 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView2 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView2 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView3 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView3 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView4 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView4 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView5 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView5 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView6 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView6 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; //Attach gesture recognizer to each imagviews gestureRecognizer1 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer1.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer2 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer2.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer3 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer3.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer4 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer4.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer5 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer5.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer6 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer6.delegate = self; [imgView1 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer1]; [imgView2 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer2]; [imgView3 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer3]; [imgView4 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer4]; [imgView5 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer5]; [imgView6 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer6];

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  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

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  • NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

    - by Alex
    Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

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  • What is the best way to reduce code and loop through a hierarchial commission script?

    - by JM4
    I have a script which currently "works" but is nearly 3600 lines of code and makes well over 50 database calls within a single script. From my experience, there is no way to really "loop" the script and minimize it because each call to the database is a subquery of the ones before based on referral ids. Perhaps I can give a very simple example of what I am trying to accomplish and see if anybody has experience with something similar. In my example, there are three tables: Table 1 - Sellers ID | Comm_level | Parent ----------------------------------- 1 | 4 | NULL 2 | 3 | 1 3 | 2 | 1 4 | 2 | 2 5 | 2 | 2 6 | 1 | 3 Where ID is the id of one of our sales agents, comm_level will determine what his commission percentage is for each product he sells, parent indicates the ID for whom recruited that particular agent. In the example above, 1 is the top agent, he recruited two agents, 2 and 3. 2 recruited two agents, 4 and 5. 3 recruited one agent, 6. NOTE: An agent can NEVER recruit anybody equal to or higher than their own level. Table 2 - Commissions Level | Item 1 | Item 2 | Item 3 ----------------------------------------------------- 4 | .5 | .4 | .3 3 | .45 | .35 | .25 2 | .4 | .3 | .2 1 | .35 | .25 | .15 This table lays out the commission percentages for each agent based on their actual comm_level (if an agent is at a level 4, he will receive 50% on every item 1 sold, 40% on every item 2, 30% on every item 3 and so on. Table 3 - Items Sold ID | Item --------------------- 4 | item_1 4 | item_2 1 | item_1 2 | item_3 6 | item_2 1 | item_3 This table pairs the actual item sold with the seller who sold the item. When generating the commission report, calculating individual values is very simple. Calculating their commission based on their sub_sellers however is very difficult. In this example, Seller ID 1 gets a piece of every single item sold. The commission percentages indicate individual sales or the height of their commission. For example: When seller ID 6 sold one of item_2 above, the tree for commissions will look like the following: -ID 6 - 25% of cost(item_1) -ID 3 - 5% of cost(item_1) - (30% is his comm - 25% comm of seller id 6) -ID 1 - 10% of cost(item_1) - (40% is his comm - 30% of seller id 3) This must be calculated for every agent in the system from the top down (hence the DB calls within while loops throughout my enormous script). Anybody have a good suggestion or samples they may have used in the past?

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  • ODBC: when is the best time to create my database?

    - by mawg
    I have a windows program which generates PGP forms which will be filled in later. Those PHP forms will populate a database. It looks very much like MySql, but I can't be certain, so let's call it ODBC. And, yes, it does have to be a windows program. There will also be PHP forms which query the database - examine which tables and fields it contains and then generates forms which can be used to search the database (e.g, it finds a table with fields "employee_name", etc and generates a form which lets you search based on employee name. Let's call that design time and run time. At design time, some manager or IT guy or similar gets to define the nature of the database and at runtime 1) a worker fills in the form daily and 2) management can extract reports. Here's my question: given that the database is defined at "design time" (and populated at run time), where and how is best to do so? 1 I could use an ODBC interface from the windows program, but I am having difficulty finding something good to work with Delphi. Things like ADO and firebird tend to expect you to already have a database and allow you to manipulate it, but I can find no code example of how to create a database and some tables, so ... 2 I could used DOS commands from Delphi in my windows program. I just tried and got a response to MySql --version, but am not sure if MySql etc are more interactive. That is, can I use a script file or a very long stacked command with semicolons and returns separating? e.g 'CREATE DATABASE db; CREATE TABLE t1;' 3) Since the best way to work with databases seems to be PHP, perhaps my windows program could spit out a PHP page which would, when run in a browser, create the database. I have tried to make this as uncomplicated as I can, but please feel free to ask questions. It may be that there are several valid ways, but there is probably one 'better' solution in terms of ease of implementation or maintenance. Better scratch option 3. What if the user later wants to come back and have the windows program change the input form? It needs to update the database too.

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  • How can I store large amount of data from a database to XML (speed problem, part three)?

    - by Andrija
    After getting some responses, the current situation is that I'm using this tip: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/library/x-tipbigdoc5.html (Listing 1. Turning ResultSets into XML), and XMLWriter for Java from http://www.megginson.com/downloads/ . Basically, it reads date from the database and writes them to a file as characters, using column names to create opening and closing tags. While doing so, I need to make two changes to the input stream, namely to the dates and numbers. // Iterate over the set while (rs.next()) { w.startElement("row"); for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) { Object ob = rs.getObject(i + 1); if (rs.wasNull()) { ob = null; } String colName = meta.getColumnLabel(i + 1); if (ob != null ) { if (ob instanceof Timestamp) { w.dataElement(colName, Util.formatDate((Timestamp)ob, dateFormat)); } else if (ob instanceof BigDecimal){ w.dataElement(colName, Util.transformToHTML(new Integer(((BigDecimal)ob).intValue()))); } else { w.dataElement(colName, ob.toString()); } } else { w.emptyElement(colName); } } w.endElement("row"); } The SQL that gets the results has the to_number command (e.g. to_number(sif.ID) ID ) and the to_date command (e.g. TO_DATE (sif.datum_do, 'DD.MM.RRRR') datum_do). The problems are that the returning date is a timestamp, meaning I don't get 14.02.2010 but rather 14.02.2010 00:00:000 so I have to format it to the dd.mm.yyyy format. The second problem are the numbers; for some reason, they are in database as varchar2 and can have leading zeroes that need to be stripped; I'm guessing I could do that in my SQL with the trim function so the Util.transformToHTML is unnecessary (for clarification, here's the method): public static String transformToHTML(Integer number) { String result = ""; try { result = number.toString(); } catch (Exception e) {} return result; } What I'd like to know is a) Can I get the date in the format I want and skip additional processing thus shortening the processing time? b) Is there a better way to do this? We're talking about XML files that are in the 50 MB - 250 MB filesize category.

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  • Twitter RSS feed, [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream:

    - by dave1019
    hi i'm using the following: <?php $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->load('http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/XXXXXX.rss'); $arrFeeds = array(); foreach ($doc->getElementsByTagName('item') as $node) { $itemRSS = array ( 'title' => $node->getElementsByTagName('title')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'desc' => $node->getElementsByTagName('description')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'link' => $node->getElementsByTagName('link')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'date' => $node->getElementsByTagName('pubDate')->item(0)->nodeValue ); array_push($arrFeeds, $itemRSS); } for($i=0;$i<=3;$i++) { $tweet=substr($arrFeeds[$i]['title'],17); $tweetDate=strtotime($arrFeeds[$i]['date']); $newDate=date('G:ia l F Y ',$tweetDate); if($i==0) { $b='style="border:none;"'; } $tweetsBox.='<div class="tweetbox" ' . $b . '> <div class="tweet"><p>' . $tweet . '</p> <div class="tweetdate"><a href="http://twitter.com/XXXXXX">@' . $newDate .'</a></div> </div> </div>'; } return $tweetsBox; ?> to return the 4 most recent tweets from a given timeline (XXXXX is the relevant feed) It seems to work fine but i've recently been getting the following error sporadically: PHP error debug Error: DOMDocument::load(http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/XXXXXX.rss) [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.1 502 Bad Gateway I've read that the above code is dependant on Twitter beign available and I know it gets rather busy sometimes. Is there either a better way of receiving twits, or is there any kind of error trapping i could do to just to display "tweets are currently unavailable..." ind of message rather than causing an error. I'm usnig ModX CMS so any parse error kills the site rather than just ouputs a warning. thanks.

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  • Rendering problem with UITableview

    - by Spider-Paddy
    I have a very strange problem with a UITableview within a navigation controller on the iPhone simulator. Of the cells displayed, only some are correctly rendered. They are all supposed to look the same but the majority are missing the accessory I've set, scrolling the view changes which cell has the accessory so I suspect it's some sort of cell caching happening, although the contents are correct for each cell. I also set an image as the background and that was also only displaying sporadically but I fixed that by changing cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; (which also only rendered a random cell with the background) to cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; I now need to fix the problem with the accessory only showing on a random cell. I tried moving the code from cellForRowAtIndex to willDisplayCell but it made no difference. I put in a log command to confirm that it is running through each frame. Basically it's a table view (UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle) that gets its info from a server & is then updated by a delegate method calling reload. Code is: -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(UITableViewCell *)cell forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"%@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Setting colours for cell %i", indexPath.row]); // Set cell background // cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.textLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; cell.detailTextLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; // detailTableViewAccessory is a view containing an imageview in this view's nib // i.e. nib <- view <- imageview <- image cell.accessoryView = detailTableViewAccessory; } // Called by data fetching object when done -(void)listDataTransferComplete:(ArticleListParser *)articleListParserObject { NSLog(@"Data parsed, reloading detail table"); self.currentTotalResultPages = (((articleListParserObject.currentArticleCount - 1) / 10) + 1); self.detailTableDataSource = [articleListParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // make a local copy of the returned array // Render table again with returned array data (neither of these 2 fixed it) [self.detailTableView performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(reloadData) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; // [self.detailTableView reloadData]; // Re-enable necessary buttons (including table cells) letUserSelectRow = TRUE; [btnByName setEnabled:TRUE]; [btnByPrice setEnabled:TRUE]; // Remove please wait message NSLog(@"Removing please wait view"); [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I only included code that I thought was relevant, can supply more if needed. I can't test it on an iPhone yet so I don't know if it's maybe just a simulator anomaly or a bug in my code. I've always gotten good feedback from questions, any ideas?

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  • sifr menu list problems, height of object calculated wrong

    - by armyofda12mnkeys
    I am using Drupal and have sifr set on list items, and also a, a:hover are set via Drupal so that the links hover. I looked at the sifr3-rules.js file drupal's render module creates and it looks good. and in fact my other sifr items look fine... But the list item ones are goofing for some reason... There is extra space below the list, so if i have a list item, and inside of that, I have a unordered list with more list items, the Flash Object made in the 1st li (which will cover the rest of the sublist items too), is too bid so you see space under the children until the next parent li comes up. (so looks like extra bottom padding on that portion of the list in IE8... in FF almost similar but each subitem has space at bottom... with javascript turned off, you see the list items look fine by themselves).... Also if the parent list item is shorter than the sub list items text, the width for the flash object is set only as long as the first list item, and therefore cuts off the rest the sublist item's text. Any idea how to resolve any of these? Only unusual thing i see i am doing is setting forceSingleLine and preventWrap (which dont make a difference if taken off). ****Edit, I may just try to figure out how to get Drupal's menu-block module to output a around my hyperlinks in the list items... then i can target the div's with my rule (and the a,a:hover rules will apply), so each menu item gets its own sifr object instead of sifr3 trying to figure out how to do the lists and sublists. Very useful to me is anyone knows a way to target a hyperlink (<a> tag) and also allow a:hover rules. I know how to do it with pretend another tag that includes hyperlinks, like if i had <h2><a>sometitle</a></h2>, i could have a rule for h2, but then use the a, a:hover rules in the sifr3-rules.js file to target that. so i would need a way to target the hyperlink in the list, but also apply a :hover to it (not sure if this can be done since its not underneith for example the h2 tag).

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  • Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

    - by Axeman
    In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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  • php functions within functions.

    - by Adamski
    Hi all, ihave created a simple project to help me get to grips with php and mysql, but have run into a minor issue, i have a working solution but would like to understand why i cannot run this code successfully this way, ill explain: i have a function, function fetch_all_movies(){ global $connection; $query = 'select distinct * FROM `'.TABLE_MOVIE.'` ORDER BY movieName ASC'; $stmt = mysqli_prepare($connection,$query); mysqli_execute($stmt); mysqli_stmt_bind_result($stmt,$id,$name,$genre,$date,$year); while(mysqli_stmt_fetch($stmt)){ $editUrl = "index.php?a=editMovie&movieId=".$id.""; $delUrl = "index.php?a=delMovie&movieId=".$id.""; echo "<tr><td>".$id."</td><td>".$name."</td><td>".$date."</td><td>".get_actors($id)."</td><td><a href=\"".$editUrl."\">Edit</a> | <a href=\"".$delUrl."\">Delete</a></td></tr>"; } } this fetches all the movies in my db, then i wish to get the count of actors for each film, so i pass in the get_actors($id) function which gets the movie id and then gives me the count of how many actors are realted to a film. here is the function for that: function get_actors($movieId){ global $connection; $query = 'SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(*) FROM `'.TABLE_ACTORS.'` WHERE movieId = "'.$movieId.'"'; $result = mysqli_query($connection,$query); $row = mysqli_fetch_array($result); return $row[0]; } the functions both work perfect when called separately, i just would like to understand when i pass the function inside a function i get this warning: Warning: mysqli_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/movie_db/includes/functions.inc.php on line 287 could anyone help me understand why? many thanks.

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  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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  • Update Statement Updates 0 Rows via the C# Winform Application?

    - by peace
    First of all, please help me out! I can not take this anymore. I could not find where the error is located. Here is my problem: I'm trying to update a row via c# winform application. The update query generated from the application is formatted correctly. I tested it in the sql server environment, it worked well. When i run it from the application i get 0 rows updated. Here is the snippet that generates the update statement using reflection - don't try to figure it out. Carry on reading after the code portion: public void Update(int cusID) { SqlCommand objSqlCommand = new SqlCommand(); Customer cust = new Customer(); string SQL = null; try { if ((cusID != 0)) { foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { if (!(PropertyItem.Name.ToString() == cust.PKName)) { if (PropertyItem.Name.ToString() != "TableName") { if (SQL == null) { SQL = PropertyItem.Name.ToString() + " = @" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(); } else { SQL = SQL + ", " + PropertyItem.Name.ToString() + " = @" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(); } } else { break; } } } objSqlCommand.CommandText = "UPDATE " + this.TableName + " SET " + SQL + " WHERE " + cust.PKName + " = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = " + "'" + "@phNum" + "'"; foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { if (!(PropertyItem.Name.ToString() == cust.PKName)) { if (PropertyItem.Name.ToString() != "TableName") { objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(), PropertyItem.GetValue(this, null)); } else { break; } } } objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@cusID", cusID); objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@phNum", this.PhoneNumber); DAL.ExecuteSQL(objSqlCommand); } else { //AppEventLog.AddWarning("Primary Key is not provided for Update.") } } catch (Exception ex) { //AppEventLog.AddError(ex.Message.ToString) } } This part below: objSqlCommand.CommandText = "UPDATE " + this.TableName + " SET " + SQL + " WHERE " + cust.PKName + " = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = " + "'" + "@phNum" + "'"; generates dml: UPDATE CustomerPhone SET PhoneTypeID = @PhoneTypeID, PhoneNumber = @PhoneNumber WHERE CustomerID = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = '@phNum' @PhoneTypeID and @PhoneNumber are gotten from two properties. We assigned the value to these properties in the presentation layer from the user input text box. The portion below where fetches the values: objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(), PropertyItem.GetValue(this, null)); The code below fills the values of WHERE: objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@cusID", cusID); objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@phNum", this.PhoneNumber); The final code should look as: UPDATE CustomerPhone SET PhoneTypeID = 7, PhoneNumber = 999444 WHERE CustomerID = 500 AND PhoneNumber = '911'; Phone type id is 7 - user value that is taken from text box Phone number is 999444 - user value that is taken from text box The above final update statement works on the sql environment, but when running via the application, the execute non query runs ok and gets 0 rows updated! I wonder why?

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  • Is there a way to efficiently yield every file in a directory containing millions of files?

    - by Josh Smeaton
    I'm aware of os.listdir, but as far as I can gather, that gets all the filenames in a directory into memory, and then returns the list. What I want, is a way to yield a filename, work on it, and then yield the next one, without reading them all into memory. Is there any way to do this? I worry about the case where filenames change, new files are added, and files are deleted using such a method. Some iterators prevent you from modifying the collection during iteration, essentially by taking a snapshot of the state of the collection at the beginning, and comparing that state on each move operation. If there is an iterator capable of yielding filenames from a path, does it raise an error if there are filesystem changes (add, remove, rename files within the iterated directory) which modify the collection? There could potentially be a few cases that could cause the iterator to fail, and it all depends on how the iterator maintains state. Using S.Lotts example: filea.txt fileb.txt filec.txt Iterator yields filea.txt. During processing, filea.txt is renamed to filey.txt and fileb.txt is renamed to filez.txt. When the iterator attempts to get the next file, if it were to use the filename filea.txt to find it's current position in order to find the next file and filea.txt is not there, what would happen? It may not be able to recover it's position in the collection. Similarly, if the iterator were to fetch fileb.txt when yielding filea.txt, it could look up the position of fileb.txt, fail, and produce an error. If the iterator instead was able to somehow maintain an index dir.get_file(0), then maintaining positional state would not be affected, but some files could be missed, as their indexes could be moved to an index 'behind' the iterator. This is all theoretical of course, since there appears to be no built-in (python) way of iterating over the files in a directory. There are some great answers below, however, that solve the problem by using queues and notifications. Edit: The OS of concern is Redhat. My use case is this: Process A is continuously writing files to a storage location. Process B (the one I'm writing), will be iterating over these files, doing some processing based on the filename, and moving the files to another location. Edit: Definition of valid: Adjective 1. Well grounded or justifiable, pertinent. (Sorry S.Lott, I couldn't resist). I've edited the paragraph in question above.

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  • Get content in iframe to use as much space as it needs

    - by Mark
    I'm trying to write a simple JavaScript based modal dialog. The JavaScript function takes the content, puts it in a new iframe and adds the iframe to the page. Works great so far, the only problem is that the content of the dialog (e.g. a table) gets wrapped, although plenty of space is available on the page. I'd like the content of the dialog, a table in my case, to use as much space as it needs, without wrapping any lines. I tried lots of combinations of setting width/style.width on the iframe and the table. Nothing did the trick. Here the code to show the iframe dialog: function SimpleDialog() { this.domElement = document.createElement('iframe'); this.domElement.setAttribute('style', 'border: 1px solid red; z-index: 201; position: absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px;'); this.showWithContent = function(content) { document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(this.domElement); this.domElement.contentDocument.body.appendChild(content); var contentBody = this.domElement.contentDocument.body; contentBody.style.padding = '0px'; contentBody.style.margin = '0px'; // Set the iframe size to the size of content. // However, content got wrapped already. this.domElement.style.height = content.offsetHeight + 'px'; this.domElement.style.width = content.offsetWidth + 'px'; this._centerOnScreen(); }; this._centerOnScreen = function() { this.domElement.style.left = window.pageXOffset + (window.innerWidth / 2) - (this.domElement.offsetWidth / 2) + 'px'; this.domElement.style.top = window.pageYOffset + (window.innerHeight / 2) - (this.domElement.offsetHeight / 2) + 'px'; }; } Here the test code: var table = document.createElement('table'); table.setAttribute('style', 'border: 1px solid black; width: 100%;'); table.innerHTML = "<tr><td style='font-size:40px;'>Hello world in big letters</td></tr><tr><td>second row</td></tr>"; var dialog = new SimpleDialog(); dialog.showWithContent(table); The table shows up nicely centered on the page, but the words in the first cell are wrapped to two lines. How do I get the table to use as much space as it needs (without using white-space: nowrap ;) Thanks in advance for any suggestions! -Mark

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  • Complex multiple join query across 3 tables

    - by Keir Simmons
    I have 3 tables: shops, PRIMARY KEY cid,zbid shop_items, PRIMARY KEY id shop_inventory, PRIMARY KEY id shops a is related to shop_items b by the following: a.cid=b.cid AND a.zbid=b.szbid shops is not directly related to shop_inventory shop_items b is related to shop_inventory c by the following: b.cid=c.cid AND b.id=c.iid Now, I would like to run a query which returns a.* (all columns from shops). That would be: SELECT a.* FROM shops a WHERE a.cid=1 AND a.zbid!=0 Note that the WHERE clause is necessary. Next, I want to return the number of items in each shop: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid As you can see, I have added a GROUP BY clause for this to work. Next, I want to return the average price of each item in the shop. This isn't too hard: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items, AVG(COALESCE(b.price,0)) average_price FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid My next criteria is where it gets complicated. I also want to return the unique buyers for each shop. This can be done by querying shop_inventory c, getting the COUNT(DISTINCT c.zbid). Now remember how these tables are related; this should only be done for the rows in c which relate to an item in b which is owned by the respective shop, a. I tried doing the following: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items, AVG(COALESCE(b.price,0)) average_price, COUNT(DISTINCT c.zbid) FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid LEFT JOIN shop_inventory c ON c.cid=b.cid AND c.iid=b.id WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid However, this did not work as it messed up the items value. What is the proper way to achieve this result? I also want to be able to return the total number of purchases made in each shop. This would be done by looking at shop_inventory c and adding up the c.quantity value for each shop. How would I add that in as well?

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  • Store Observer not being called always

    - by Nixarn
    Has anyone else here experienced problems with their Store Observer class not being called always when the user for instance cancels a request (or purchases something) We just had our update that brought in app purchases go live last night, and before that we had obviously tested everything tons of times against the Sandbox and everything was working fine. Now however, when the update went live in a real environment we keep getting issues with the store. For instance, in a freshly booted iPhone / iPod, the first time you run the app, if you then try to make a purchase and then immediately cancel it from the first dialog, it seems as if the callback for the cancel is not getting called. If you then restart the app it seems as if it always works after that, or at least. Same thing with other callbacks, seems as if our store observer isn't listening as the callbacks aren't being registered on the phone. One example of this is if you purchase something, then nothing will happen (if this is the first time the app is launched at least). You get the purchase successful dialog from the app store but it seems as if our own code isn't called. If you then quit the app and restart it the callback gets called. Same problem happens if you for instance try to start a request to download all previous purchases and then immediately cancel it as the first dialog pops up, if you do that then the callback for a failed restore is not called, until you then restart the app and try it again, then it always seems to work. The way we have implemented our store observer is by creating a custom class that's implements the SKPaymentTransactionObserver interface. @interface StoreObserver : NSObject<SKPaymentTransactionObserver> In the class we have implemented the following methods: - (void)paymentQueue:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue updatedTransactions:(NSArray *)transactions - (void)paymentQueueRestoreCompletedTransactionsFinished:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue - (void)paymentQueue:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue restoreCompletedTransactionsFailedWithError:(NSError *)error The way our restore process works is that if you tap on the button that allows you to download all we simply run the restoreCompletedTransactions code as follows: [[SKPaymentQueue defaultQueue] restoreCompletedTransactions]; However, the callback, restoreCompletedTransactionsFailedWithError, which has been implemented in the store observer, does not always get called when we try to cancel the request. This happens when you boot the iPhone / iPod and try this for the first time. If you after that restart the app everything works fine. The StoreObserver class is created when our app is launched, just by running the following code: pStoreObserver = [[StoreObserver alloc] init]; [[SKPaymentQueue defaultQueue] addTransactionObserver:pStoreObserver]; Has anyone else had any similar experiences? Or does anyone have any suggestions on how to solve this? As I said, in the sandbox environment everything was working fine, no issues whatsoever, but now once it's gone live we're experiencing these.

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  • How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

    - by Shane
    As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

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