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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • Database insertion not happening

    - by Pramod Setlur
    int i=0; ContentValues values = null; for ( SortedMap.Entry<Integer, String> entry : mapDefect.entrySet() ) { if( i++ < count ) continue; if( i < arrlst.size() ) { values = new ContentValues(); Log.d("MAP", "Id :"+entry.getKey()+"Des :"+entry.getValue()+"Co :"+ arrlst.get(i)); values.put( MARKER_COORD, arrlst.get( i ) ); values.put( MARKER_ID, entry.getKey() ); values.put( DEFECT_DESCRIPTION, entry.getValue() ); values.put( IMAGE_ID_F, imageID + 1 ); Log.d( "Err", "in insertNewDefectsDescription" ); long rowId = db.insert( TABLE_DEFECTS, null, values ); long rowId1 = rowId; i++; } } So, I want to access the arraylist only after the count variable, which is why the:- if(i++<count) continue; But, when I insert a break point at the 'insert' line, it is not working. The line is not executing at all, and hence the data is not being inserted into the database. What has gone wrong?? The 'values' are null.

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  • breadth-first traversal of directory tree is not lazy

    - by user855443
    I try to traverse the diretory tree. A naive depth-first traversal seems not to produce the data in a lazy fashion and runs out of memory. I next tried a breadth first approach, which shows the same problem - it uses all the memory available and then crashes. the code i have is: getFilePathBreadtFirst :: FilePath -> IO [FilePath] getFilePathBreadtFirst fp = do fileinfo <- getInfo fp res :: [FilePath] <- if isReadableDirectory fileinfo then do children <- getChildren fp lower <- mapM getFilePathBreadtFirst children return (children ++ concat lower) return (children ++ concat () else return [fp] -- should only return the files? return res getChildren :: FilePath -> IO [FilePath] getChildren path = do names <- getUsefulContents path let namesfull = map (path </>) names return namesfull testBF fn = do -- crashes for /home/frank, does not go to swap fps <- getFilePathBreadtFirst fn putStrLn $ unlines fps I think all the code is either linear or tail recursive, and I would expect that the listing of filenames starts immediately, but in fact it does not. Where is the error in my code and my thinking? where have I lost lazy evaluation?

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  • C++ syntax issue

    - by Doug
    It's late and I can't figure out what is wrong with my syntax. I have asked other people and they can't find the syntax error either so I came here on a friend's advice. template <typename TT> bool PuzzleSolver<TT>::solve ( const Clock &pz ) { possibConfigs_.push( pz.getInitial() ); vector< Configuration<TT> > next_; //error is on next line map< Configuration<TT> ,Configuration<TT> >::iterator found; while ( !possibConfigs_.empty() && possibConfigs_.front() != pz.getGoal() ) { Configuration<TT> cfg = possibConfigs_.front(); possibConfigs_.pop(); next_ = pz.getNext( cfg ); for ( int i = 0; i < next_.size(); i++ ) { found = seenConfigs_.find( next_[i] ); if ( found != seenConfigs_.end() ) { possibConfigs_.push( next_[i] ); seenConfigs_.insert( make_pair( next_[i], cfg ) ); } } } } What is wrong? Thanks for any help.

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  • What database strategy to choose for a large web application

    - by Snoopy
    I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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  • Updating an application OTA

    - by Bostjan
    I'm developing an application that will be available from a website (market probably as well). The problem I'm having at the moment is how to handle the updates to the app. I know how to check the version against the current one and I know if I need to update it. Question is...how? Is there a way I can download an APK from the website and start the install process? The user will have to confirm of course, but I just want to be able to start it for him. At the moment I'm doing this: private void doUpgrade() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setTitle(getString(R.string.upgrade)); builder.setIcon(R.drawable.help); builder.setMessage(getString(R.string.needUpgrade)); builder.setPositiveButton(getString(R.string.ok), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); try { HttpResponse re = Registration.doPost("http://www.android-town.com/appRelease/AndroidTown.apk",data); int statusCode = re.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); closeApp(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } } }); builder.setNegativeButton(getString(R.string.cancel), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub dialog.cancel(); closeApp(); } }); builder.show(); } But it doesn't really do anything...should I open a webView with the URL? A new runnable thread? Any other way? Please help :) Cheers

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  • Where do I put the logic of my MFC program?

    - by Matthew
    I created an application core, in C++, that I've compiled into a static library in Visual Studio. I am now at the process of writing a GUI for it. I am using MFC to do this. I figured out how to map button presses to execute certain methods of my application core's main class (i.e. buttons to have it start and stop). The core class however, should always be sampling data from an external source every second or two. The GUI should then populate some fields after each sample is taken. I can't seem to find a spot in my MFC objects like CDialog that I can constantly check to see if my class has grabbed the data.. then if it has put that data into some of the text boxes. A friend suggested that I create a thread on the OnInit() routine that would take care of this, but that solution isn't really working for me. Is there no spot where I can put an if statement that keeps being called until the program quits? i.e. if( coreapp.dataSampleReady() ) { // put coreapp.dataItem1() in TextBox1 // set progress bar to coreapp.dataItem2() // etc. // reset dataSampleReady }

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  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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  • ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

    - by Dominic Watson
    I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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  • How is external memory, internal memory, and cache organized?

    - by goldenmean
    Consider a system as follows:= A hardware board having say ARM Cortex-A8 and Neon Vector coprocessor, and Embedded Linux OS running on Cortex-A8. On this environment, if there is some application - say, a video decoder is executing - then: How is it decided that which buffers would be in external memory, which ones would be allocated in internal SRAM, etc. When one says calloc/malloc on such system/code, the pointer returned is from which memory: internal or external? Can a user make buffers to be allocated to the memories of his choice (internal/external)? In ARM architectures, there is another memory called as Tightly coupled memory (TCM). What is that and how can user enable and use it? Can I declare buffers in this memory? Do I need to see the memory map (if any) of the hardware board to understand about all these different physical memories present in a typical hardware board? How much of a role does the OS play in distinguishing these different memories? Sorry for multiple questions, but i think they all are interlinked.

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  • jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

    - by Mikejh99
    I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

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  • Ruby syntax error: unexpected $end, expecting keyword_end

    - by user2839246
    I am supposed to: Capitalize the first letter of string. Capitalize every word except articles (the, a, an), conjunctions (and), and prepositions (in). Capitalize i (as in "I am male."). Specify the first word of a string (I actually have no idea what this means. I'm trying to run the spec file to test other functions). Here's my code: class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite in to } array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") then word = word.capitalize if arts_conjs_preps !include?(word) then word = word.capitalize end puts array.join(' ') end end puts Book.new("inferno") Ruby says I'm messing up at: puts Book.new("inferno") <--(right after the last line of code) I get exactly the same error message with this test code: def title(string) array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if word == array[0] then word = word.capitalize end array.join(' ') end puts title("dante's inferno") The only other Stack Overflow thread regarding this particular syntax error that did not suggest trailing or missing ends or .s as the root of the problem is here. The last comment recommends deleting and recreating the gemset, Which sounds scary. And I'm not sure how to do. Any thoughts? Simple solution? Resources to help? Solution class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite of in to } array = string.downcase.split title = array.map do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") || !arts_conjs_preps.include?(word) word = word.capitalize else word end end puts title.join(' ') end end Book.new("dante's the inferno")

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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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  • Dependency Injection into your Singleton

    - by Langali
    I have a singleton that has a spring injected Dao (simplified below): public class MyService<T> implements Service<T> { private final Map<String, T> objects; private static MyService instance; MyDao myDao; public void set MyDao(MyDao myDao) { this. myDao = myDao; } private MyService() { this.objects = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<String, T>()); // start a background thread that runs for ever } public static synchronized MyService getInstance() { if(instance == null) { instance = new MyService(); } return instance; } public void doSomething() { myDao.persist(objects); } } My spring config will probably look like this: <bean id="service" class="MyService" factory-method="getInstance"/> But this will instantiate the MyService during startup. Is there a programmatic way to do a dependency injection of MyDao into MyService, but not have spring manage the MyService? Basically I want to be able to do this from my code: MyService.getInstance().doSomething(); while having spring inject the MyDao for me.

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  • Creating Actions from UIActionSheets help

    - by user337174
    I am using two UIAction sheets within my current project. I can get one to work perfectly fine but when i insert a second action sheet it runs the same arguements as the first. How do i define the actionsheets seperatly? -(IBAction) phoneButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Phone: %@",phone],nil]; actionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [actionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [actionSheet release]; } -(IBAction) mapButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *mapActionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Map"],nil]; mapActionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [mapActionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [mapActionSheet release]; } -(void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if(buttonIndex == 0){ NSString *callPhone = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@",phone]; NSLog(@"Calling: %@", callPhone); [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:callPhone]]; } }

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  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • Problem with 2 levels of inheritance in hibernate mapping

    - by Seth
    Here's my class structure: class A class B extends A class C extends A class D extends C class E extends C And here are my mappings (class bodies omitted for brevity): Class A: @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="className", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class A Class B: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class B extends A Class C: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("C") @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="cType", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class C extends A Class D: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("D") public class D extends C Class E: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("E") public class E extends C I've got a class F that contains a set of A: @Entity public class F { ... @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name="F_A", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="A_ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="F_ID") ) private Set<A> aSet = new HashSet<A>(); ... The problem is that whenever I add a new E instance to aSet and then call session.saveOrUpdate(fInstance), hibernate saves with "A" as the discrimiator string. When I try to access the aSet in the F instance, I get the following exception (full stacktrace ommitted for brevity): org.hibernate.InstantiationException: Cannot instantiate abstract class or interface: path.to.class.A Am I mapping the classes incorrectly? How am I supposed to map multiple levels of inheritance? Thanks for the help!

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  • Link error for user defined class type template parameter

    - by isurulucky
    Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

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  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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  • Unable to pass variables from one view to another

    - by jerincbus
    I have a detail view that includes three UIButtons, each of which pushes a different view on to the stack. One of the buttons is connected to a MKMapView. When that button is pushed I need to send the latitude and longitude variables from the detail view to the map view. I'm trying to add the string declaration in the IBAction: - (IBAction)goToMapView { MapViewController *mapController = [[MapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MapViewController" bundle:nil]; mapController.address = self.address; mapController.Title = self.Title; mapController.lat = self.lat; mapController.lng = self.lng; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:mapController animated:YES]; [mapController release]; mapController = nil; } But I get this when I try to build: 'error: incompatible types in assignment' for both lat and lng variables. So my questions are am I going about passing the variables from one view to another the right way? And does the MKMapView accept latitude and longitude as a string or a number?

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  • Hibernate collection mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • Java HashMap containsKey always false

    - by Dennis
    I have the funny situation, that I store a Coordinate into a HashMap<Coordinate, GUIGameField>. Now, the strange thing about it is, that I have a fragment of code, which should guard, that no coordinate should be used twice. But if I debug this code: if (mapForLevel.containsKey(coord)) { throw new IllegalStateException("This coordinate is already used!"); } else { ...do stuff... } ... the containsKey always returns false, although I stored a coordinate with a hashcode of 9731 into the map and the current coord also has the hashcode 9731. After that, the mapForLevel.entrySet() looks like: (java.util.HashMap$EntrySet) [(270,90)=gui.GUIGameField@29e357, (270,90)=gui.GUIGameField@ca470] What could I have possibly done wrong? I ran out of ideas. Thanks for any help! public class Coordinate { int xCoord; int yCoord; public Coordinate(int x, int y) { ...store params in attributes... } ...getters & setters... @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = 1; hash = hash * 41 + this.xCoord; hash = hash * 31 + this.yCoord; return hash; } }

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