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  • Generated sql from LINQ to SQL

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Following code ProductPricesDataContext db = new ProductPricesDataContext(); var products = from p in db.Products where p.ProductFields.Count > 3 select new { ProductIDD = p.ProductId, ProductName = p.ProductName.Contains("hotel"), NumbeOfProd = p.ProductFields.Count, totalFields = p.ProductFields.Sum(o => o.FieldId + o.FieldId) }; Generated follwing sql SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], (CASE WHEN [t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%' THEN 1 WHEN NOT ([t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%') THEN 0 ELSE NULL END) AS [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 Why is this CASE statement for ProductName and because of this instead of ProductName i am just getting 0 in my result set. It should generate sql like following, (where ProductName like '%hotel%' SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 AND t0.ProductName like '%hotel%' Thanks.

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • SQL server 2005 agent not working

    - by flaggers
    Sql server 2005 service pack 2 version: 9.00.3042.00 All maintenance plans fail with the same error. The details of the error are:- Execute Maintenance Plan Execute maintenance plan. test7 (Error) Messages Execution failed. See the maintenance plan and SQL Server Agent job history logs for details. The advanced information section shows the following; Job 'test7.Subplan_1' failed. (SqlManagerUI) Program Location: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.SqlManagerUI.MaintenancePlanMenu_Run.PerformActions() At this point the following appear in the windows event log: Event Type: Error Event Source: SQLISPackage Event Category: None Event ID: 12291 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:08 User: 'DOMAINNAME\username' Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: Package "test7" failed. and also this: Event Type: Warning Event Source: SQLSERVERAGENT Event Category: Job Engine Event ID: 208 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:10 User: N/A Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: SQL Server Scheduled Job 'test7.Subplan_1' (0x96AE7493BFF39F4FBBAE034AB6DA1C1F) - Status: Failed - Invoked on: 2009-05-28 16:09:02 - Message: The job failed. The Job was invoked by User 'DOMAINNAME\username'. The last step to run was step 1 (Subplan_1). There are no entries in the SQl Agent log at all.

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • Project management and bundling dependencies

    - by Joshua
    I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

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  • Query String to Object with strongly typed properties

    - by Kamar
    Let’s say we track 20 query string parameters in our site. Each request which comes will have only a subset of those 20 parameters. But we definitely look for all/most of the parameters which comes in each request. We do not want to loop through the collection each time we are looking for a particular parameter initially or somewhere down the pipeline in the code. So we loop once through the query string collection, convert string values to their respective types (enums, int, string etc.), populate to QueryString object which is added to the context. After that wherever its needed we will have a strongly typed properties in the QueryString object which is easy to use and we maintain a standard. public class QueryString { public int Key1{ get; private set; } public SomeType Key2{ get; private set; } private QueryString() { } public static QueryString GetQueryString() { QueryString l_QS = new QueryString(); foreach (string l_Key in HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString.AllKeys) { switch (l_Key) { case "key1": l_QS.Key1= DoSomething(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; case "key2": l_QS.Key2 = DoAnotherThing(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; } } return l_QS; } } Any other solution to achieve this?

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  • Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

    - by treeface
    My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

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  • anti-if campaign

    - by Andrew Siemer
    I recently ran against a very interesting site that expresses a very interesting idea - the anti-if campaign. You can see this here at www.antiifcampaign.com. I have to agree that complex nested IF statements are an absolute pain in the rear. I am currently on a project that up until very recently had some crazy nested IFs that scrolled to the right for quite a ways. We cured our issues in two ways - we used Windows Workflow Foundation to address routing (or workflow) concerns. And we are in the process of implementing all of our business rules utilizing ILOG Rules for .NET (recently purchased by IBM!!). This for the most part has cured our nested IF pains...but I find myself wondering how many people cure their pains in the manner that the good folks at the AntiIfCampaign suggest (see an example here) by creating numerous amounts of abstract classes to represent a given scenario that was originally covered by the nested IF. I wonder if another way to address the removal of this complexity might also be in using an IoC container such as StructureMap to move in and out of different bits of functionality. Either way... Question: Given a scenario where I have a nested complex IF or SWITCH statement that is used to evaluate a given type of thing (say evaluating an Enum) to determine how I want to handle the processing of that thing by enum type - what are some ways to do the same form of processing without using the IF or SWITCH hierarchical structure? public enum WidgetTypes { Type1, Type2, Type3, Type4 } ... WidgetTypes _myType = WidgetTypes.Type1; ... switch(_myType) { case WidgetTypes.Type1: //do something break; case WidgetTypes.Type2: //do something break; //etc... }

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  • How to speed-up python nested loop?

    - by erich
    I'm performing a nested loop in python that is included below. This serves as a basic way of searching through existing financial time series and looking for periods in the time series that match certain characteristics. In this case there are two separate, equally sized, arrays representing the 'close' (i.e. the price of an asset) and the 'volume' (i.e. the amount of the asset that was exchanged over the period). For each period in time I would like to look forward at all future intervals with lengths between 1 and INTERVAL_LENGTH and see if any of those intervals have characteristics that match my search (in this case the ratio of the close values is greater than 1.0001 and less than 1.5 and the summed volume is greater than 100). My understanding is that one of the major reasons for the speedup when using NumPy is that the interpreter doesn't need to type-check the operands each time it evaluates something so long as you're operating on the array as a whole (e.g. numpy_array * 2), but obviously the code below is not taking advantage of that. Is there a way to replace the internal loop with some kind of window function which could result in a speedup, or any other way using numpy/scipy to speed this up substantially in native python? Alternatively, is there a better way to do this in general (e.g. will it be much faster to write this loop in C++ and use weave)? ARRAY_LENGTH = 500000 INTERVAL_LENGTH = 15 close = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) volume = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) close, volume = close.astype('float64'), volume.astype('float64') results = [] for i in xrange(len(close) - INTERVAL_LENGTH): for j in xrange(i+1, i+INTERVAL_LENGTH): ret = close[j] / close[i] vol = sum( volume[i+1:j+1] ) if ret > 1.0001 and ret < 1.5 and vol > 100: results.append( [i, j, ret, vol] ) print results

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  • App crashes frequently at time when UIActionSheet would be presented

    - by Jim Hankins
    I am getting the following error intermittently when a call is made to display an action sheet. Assertion failure in -[UIActionSheet showInView:] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid parameter not satisfying: view != nil' Now in this case I've not changed screens. The UIActionSheet is presented when a local notification is fired and I have an observer call a local method on this view as such: I have the property marked as strong. When the action sheet is dismissed I also set it to nil. I am using a story board for the UI. It's fairly repeatable to crash it, perhaps less than 5 tries. (Thankfully I have that going for me). Any suggestions what to try next? I'm really pulling my hair out on this one. Most of the issues I've seen on this topic are pointing to the crash occurring once the selection is made. In my case it's at presentation and intermittently. Also for what it's worth, this particular view is several stacks deep in an embedded navigation controller. Hometableviewdetail selectviewController in question. This same issue occurs so far in testing on iOS 5.1 and iOS 6. I'm presuming it's something to do with how the show InView is being targeted. self.actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Select Choice" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not Yet" destructiveButtonTitle:@"Do this Now" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [self.actionSheet showInView:self.parentViewController.tabBarController.view];

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  • PowerShell function arguments: Can the first one be optional first?

    - by Johannes Rössel
    I have an advanced function in PowerShell, which roughly looks like this: function Foo { [CmdletBinding] param ( [int] $a = 42, [int] $b ) } The idea is that it can be run with either two, one or no arguments. However, the first argument to become optional is the first one. So the following scenarios are possible to run the function: Foo a b # the normal case, both a and b are defined Foo b # a is omitted Foo # both a and b are omitted However, normally PowerShell tries to fit the single argument into a. So I thought about specifying the argument positions explicitly, where a would have position 0 and b position 1. However, to allow for only b specified I tried putting a into a parameter set. But then b would need a different position depending on the currently-used parameter set. Any ideas how to solve this properly? I'd like to retain the parameter names (which aren't a and b actually), so using $args is probably a last resort. I probably could define two parameter sets, one with two mandatory parameters and one with a single optional one, but I guess the parameter names have to be different in that case, then, right?

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  • Empty Postbacks on ASP.NET pages

    - by AaronLS
    We are having a problem that seems to only be a problem when accessing our websites from internal intranet machines. When logged into the domain, and accessing our websites, postbacks are not working. Basically the page behaves as if it were refreshed and nothing was changed. When logging the GETs and POSTs with an HTTP analyzer, the post is complete empty and the ContentLength is 0. It is also very sporadic, but seems to be happening fairly often. In the case where it failed, we could see that there was an extra item in the Header for the POST, it was "Authorization" and the value was the word "Negotiate " followed by a space and then a bunch of characters and two equal symbols at the end, which looked like some kind of base64 encoded value. In a case where it succeeded, this Authorization item was no in the header, but I have logged more than one successful cases to know if that is consistent. We have seen this occur only with IE8 so far, and when it occurs it is sometimes sporadic. I can close and open the browser and it will begin working sometimes, and other times it is still broken. What might be causing the postback to be empty? This means the viewstate is not sent to the server which makes the page basically broken. It seems to certainly be a client side issue, but not sure if it's not aggravated by some server settings. Thanks in advance.

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  • NSSegmentedControl -selectedSegment always returns 0

    - by SphereCat1
    I have an NSSegmentedControl with two segments set to "Select None" mode in Interface Builder. No matter what I try, I can't get -selectedSegment to return anything but 0, even though segment 0 is even disabled by default and can't possibly be selected. Here's the relevant function that gets called when you click any segment on the control: -(IBAction)changeStep:(id)sender { [stepContainer setHidden:TRUE]; [(NSView *)[[wizard stepArray] objectAtIndex:(NSInteger)[wizard step]] removeFromSuperview]; switch ([[navigationButton cell] selectedSegment]) { case 0: [wizard setStep:(NSInteger *)[wizard step]-1]; break; case 1: [wizard setStep:(NSInteger *)[wizard step]+1]; break; default: break; } //[[navigationButton cell] setSelected:FALSE forSegment:[navigationButton selectedSegment]]; if ([wizard step] > 0) { [wizard setStep:0]; [navigationButton setEnabled:FALSE forSegment:0]; } NSLog(@"%d", [wizard step]); [stepContainer addSubview:(NSView *)[[wizard stepArray] objectAtIndex:(NSInteger)[wizard step]]]; [stepContainer setHidden:FALSE withFade:TRUE]; } I've also tried using -isSelectedForSegment, but it has the same result. Any help you can provide would be awesome, I have no idea what I'm doing wrong. Thanks! SphereCat1

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  • Android SDK not recognizing debug-able device.

    - by kal.zekdor
    I'm new to Android development, and am attempting to run a test application on my actual device. I followed the instructions at http://developer.android.com/guide/developing/device.html (and related links), but the Android Debug Bridge (adb) doesn't recognize my connected device. Some quick background info, I'm running WinXP, developing with Eclipse, with a Motorola Droid running Android 2.1 as my physical device. An overview of the steps I've taken: Installed the Android SDK, downloading all necessary packages. Enabled USB Debugging on my device. Connected Device via USB, installing the driver from the SDK folder. I'll stop here (though I continued to setup my application to be debug-able in Eclipse), because I at this point I noticed a problem. Running "sdk\tools\adb devices" at this point (at least, by my understanding), should list my device as connected. However, running this yields only: List of devices attached My device recognizes that it's connected to a computer in debug mode, and my computer recognizes the device. However, I can't seem to get the sdk to recognize it. I'll leave out the steps I used to setup Eclipse for debugging on a device, as it doesn't seem relevant to the problem. I'll include them if requested. If anyone has any ideas, I'd greatly appreciate some assistance. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

    - by jayshao
    In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

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  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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  • how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

    - by user287745
    i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

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  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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  • A C# Refactoring Question...

    - by james lewis
    I came accross the following code today and I didn't like it. It's fairly obvious what it's doing but I'll add a little explanation here anyway: Basically it reads all the settings for an app from the DB and the iterates through all of them looking for the DB Version and the APP Version then sets some variables to the values in the DB (to be used later). I looked at it and thought it was a bit ugly - I don't like switch statements and I hate things that carry on iterating through a list once they're finished. So I decided to refactor it. My question to all of you is how would you refactor it? Or do you think it even needs refactoring at all? Here's the code: using (var sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(Lfepa.Itrs.Framework.Configuration.ConnectionString)) { sqlConnection.Open(); var dataTable = new DataTable("Settings"); var selectCommand = new SqlCommand(Lfepa.Itrs.Data.Database.Commands.dbo.SettingsSelAll, sqlConnection); var reader = selectCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader[SettingKeyColumnName].ToString().ToUpper()) { case DatabaseVersionKey: DatabaseVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; case ApplicationVersionKey: ApplicationVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; default: break; } } if (DatabaseVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Database Version Setting from the database."); if (ApplicationVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Application Version Setting from the database."); }

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  • What exactly is the GNU tar ././@LongLink "trick"?

    - by Cheeso
    I read that a tar entry type of 'L' (76) is used by gnu tar and gnu-compliant tar utilities to indicate that the next entry in the archive has a "long" name. In this case the header block with the entry type of 'L' usually encodes the name ././@LongLink . My question is: where is the format of the next block described? The format of a tar archive is very simple: it is just a series of 512-byte blocks. In the normal case, each file in a tar archive is represented as a series of blocks. The first block is a header block, containing the file name, entry type, modified time, and other metadata. Then the raw file data follows, using as many 512-byte blocks as required. Then the next entry. If the filename is longer than will fit in the space allocated in the header block, gnu tar apparently uses what's known as "the ././@LongLink trick". I can't find a precise description for it. When the entry type is 'L', how do I know how long the "long" filename is? Is the long name limited to 512 bytes, in other words, whatever fits in one block? Most importantly: where is this documented?

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  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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  • error catching exception while System.out.print

    - by user1702633
    I have 2 classes, one that implements a double lookup( int i); and one where I use that lookup(int i) in solving a question, or in this case printing the lookup values. This case is for an array. So I read the exception documentation or google/textbook and come with the following code: public double lookup(int i) throws Exception { if( i > numItems) throw new Exception("out of bounds"); return items[i]; } and take it over to my class and try to print my set, where set is a name of the object type I define in the class above. public void print() { for (int i = 0; i < set.size() - 1; i++) { System.out.print(set.lookup(i) + ","); } System.out.print(set.lookup(set.size())); } I'm using two print()'s to avoid the last "," in the print, but am getting an unhandled exception Exception (my exception's name was Exception) I think I have to catch my exception in my print() but cannot find the correct formatting online. Do I have to write catch exception Exception? because that gives me a syntax error saying invalid type on catch. Sources like http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/exceptions/ are of little help to me, I'm can't seem to grasp what the text is telling me. I'm also having trouble finding sources with multiple examples where I can actually understand the coding in the examples. so could anybody give me a source/example for the above catch phrase and perhaps a decent source of examples for new Java programmers? my book is horrendous and I cannot seem to find an understandable example for the above catch phrase online.

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  • Cannot change font size /type in plots

    - by Sameet Nabar
    I recently had to re-install my operating system (Ubuntu). The only thing I did differently is that I installed Matlab on a separate partition, not the main Ubuntu partition. After re-installing, the fonts in my plots are no longer configurable. For example, if I ask the title font to be bold, it doesn't happen. I ran the sample code below on my computer and then on my colleague's computer and the 2 results are attached. This cannot be a problem with the code; rather in the settings of Matlab. Could somebody please tell me what settings I need to change? Thanks in advance for your help. Regards, Sameet. x1=-pi:.1:pi; x2=-pi:pi/10:pi; y1=sin(x1); y2=tan(sin(x2)) - sin(tan(x2)); [AX,H1,H2]=plotyy(x1,y1,x2,y2); xlabel ('Time (hh:mm)'); ylabel (AX(1), 'Plot1'); ylabel (AX(2), 'Plot2'); axes(AX(2)) set(H1,'linestyle','none','marker','.'); set(H2,'linestyle','none','marker','.'); title('Plot Title','FontWeight','bold'); set(gcf, 'Visible', 'off'); [legh, objh] = legend([H1 H2],'Plot1', 'Plot2','location','Best'); set(legend,'FontSize',8); print -dpng Trial.png; Bad image: http://imageshack.us/photo/my-images/708/trial1u.png/ Good image: http://imageshack.us/photo/my-images/87/trial2.png/

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  • Find all ways to insert zeroes into a bit pattern

    - by James
    I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

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