Search Results

Search found 46928 results on 1878 pages for 'inner class'.

Page 442/1878 | < Previous Page | 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449  | Next Page >

  • Store request.headers in a serialized model attribute

    - by Horace Loeb
    Here's my model: class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base serialize :request_headers end But when I try to do @comment.request_headers = request.headers I get a TypeError (can't dump anonymous class Class) exception. Another way to ask my question: how can I convert request.headers into a Hash? It uses a Hash under the covers so this should be easy, no?

    Read the article

  • How do I avoid a race condition in my Rails app?

    - by Cathal
    Hi, I have a really simple Rails application that allows users to register their attendance on a set of courses. The ActiveRecord models are as follows: class Course < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :scheduled_runs ... end class ScheduledRun < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :course has_many :attendances has_many :attendees, :through => :attendances ... end class Attendance < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :scheduled_run, :counter_cache => true ... end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :attendances has_many :registered_courses, :through => :attendances, :source => :scheduled_run end A ScheduledRun instance has a finite number of places available, and once the limit is reached, no more attendances can be accepted. def full? attendances_count == capacity end attendances_count is a counter cache column holding the number of attendance associations created for a particular ScheduledRun record. My problem is that I don't fully know the correct way to ensure that a race condition doesn't occur when 1 or more people attempt to register for the last available place on a course at the same time. My Attendance controller looks like this: class AttendancesController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_scheduled_run before_filter :load_user, :only => :create def new @user = User.new end def create unless @user.valid? render :action => 'new' end @attendance = @user.attendances.build(:scheduled_run_id => params[:scheduled_run_id]) if @attendance.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created attendance." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end protected def load_scheduled_run @run = ScheduledRun.find(params[:scheduled_run_id]) end def load_user @user = User.create_new_or_load_existing(params[:user]) end end As you can see, it doesn't take into account where the ScheduledRun instance has already reached capacity. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Getting a Type variable knowing the name of type C#

    - by StuffHappens
    Hello! I'm developing a TypeTranslator class which has a method Type TranslateType(Type type). This method gets a type of an interface and if there's a class of interface name without leading I it creates it, otherwise an exception is raised. Here's some code to clearify what's written before: class Program { interface IAnimal { } class Animal : IAnimal { } void Function() { TypeTranslator typeTranslator = new TypeTranslator(); Assert(typeTranslator.TranslateType(typeof(IAnimal) == typeof(Animal))); } } Is it possible to get what I want? Thank you for your help!

    Read the article

  • How do I differentiate between different descendents with the same name?

    - by zotty
    I've got some XML I'm trying to import with c#, which looks something like this: <run> <name = "bob"/> <date = "1958"/> </run> <run> <name = "alice"/> <date = "1969"/> </run> I load my xml using XElement xDoc=XElement.Load(filename); What I want to do is have a class for "run", under which I can store names and dates: public class RunDetails { public RunDetails(XElement xDoc, XNamespace xmlns) { var query = from c in xDoc.Descendants(xmlns + "run").Descendants(xmlns + "name") select c; int i=0; foreach (XElement a in query) { this.name= new NameStr(a, xmlns); // a class for names Name.Add(this.name); //Name is a List<NameStr> i++; } // Here, i=2, but what I want is a new instance of the RunDetails class for each <run> } } How can I set up my code to create a new instance of the RunDetails class for every < run, and to only select the < name and < date inside a given < run?

    Read the article

  • Is it an example of decorator pattern?

    - by Supereme
    Hi, I've an example please tell me whether it is Decorator pattern or not? public abstract class ComputerComponent { String description ="Unknown Type"; public String getDescription() { return description; } public abstract double getCost(); } public abstract class AccessoryDecorator { ComputerComponent comp; public abstract String getDescription(); } public class PIIIConcreteComp extends ComputerComponent { public PIIIConcreteComp() { description=“Pentium III”; } public double getCost() { return 19950.00; } public class floppyConcreteDeco extends AccessoryDecorator { public floppyConcreteDeco(ComputerComponent comp) this.comp=comp; } public String getDescription() { return comp.getDescription() +”, floppy 1.44 mb”; } public double getCost() { return 250+comp.getCost(); } } public class ComponentAssembly { public static void createComponent() { ComputerComponent comp = new PIIConcreteComp(); // create a PIII computer object ComputerComponent deco1= new floppyConcreteDeco(comp); // decorate it with a floppy //ComputerComponent deco2= newCDRomConcreteDeco(deco1); ComputerComponent deco2= new floppyConcreteDeco(deco1); // decorate with a CDRom or with one more floppy System.out.println( deco2.getdescription() +” “+ deco2.getCost(); } } Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Can jQuery perform a compound select against the top level only? (a.k.a. "How to avoid chaining chil

    - by harpo
    Basically, is there a way to write a.children('.outer').children('.inner') without the intermediate selector? I can't write $('.outer > .inner', a) because I don't want to do full-depth search against a — I know that the .outer elements are immediate children of a. It's partly a matter of "elegance", but partly because I'm trying to avoid "throwaway" element sets. Yes, jQuery may in effect do the same thing, but it has a better chance of optimizing (at least in theory), when it knows the full query's intent.

    Read the article

  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Mappings ClassMap<Entities>....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I was going through fluent hibernate getting started tutorial.... In my asp.net mvc web application i have created Entities and Mapping folder as they stated... I created an entity class and i tried to map it my mapping class using this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Mappings { public class ClientMap : ClassMap<Client> { } } I cant able to find a ClassMap keyword in my autosuggest list why? This is my entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities { public class Client { public int ClientId { get; set; } public string ClientName { get; set; } public string ClientMobNo { get; set; } public string ClientAddress { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedDate { get; set; } public byte IsDeleted { get; set; } public int CreatedBy { get; set; } } } I have added all references to my project...Am i missing some thing...

    Read the article

  • Bootstrap inline button dropdown within <p> jumbotron

    - by C.B.
    Currently I have a jumbotron setup with some paragraph text, and I would like to stick a button dropdown inline with the text. Dropdown button <span class="btn-group"> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default dropdown-toggle" data-toggle="dropdown"> Button... <span class="caret"></span> </button> <ul class="dropdown-menu" role="menu"> <li><a href="#">Opt 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Opt 2</a></li> </ul> </span> Jumbotron <div class="jumbotron"> <h1>Hello!</h1> <p>Welcome</p> <p>Another paragraph <!-- dropdown is here --> </p> </div> <!-- jumbotron --> If the dropdown is within the <p> tag, it does not "dropdown" (but renders). If it is outside of the <p> tag it functions fine, but I would like it to be inline with the text and need the text to be in the <p> tag to get the style. Any ideas? Things to note -- If I replace the <span> tags with <div> tags, it will work fine within the <p> tags, but won't be inline.

    Read the article

  • PropertyGrid + interface

    - by nilphilus
    public interface ITest { void Somethink(); } public class Test1 : ITest { public void Somethink() { /* do stuff */ } public int Test1Property { get; set; } } public class Test2 : ITest { public void Somethink() { /* do stuff */ } public float Test2Property { get; set; } } //Main class public class MainClass { [TypeConverter(ExpandableObjectConverter)] public ITest test { get; set; } } Ok, i have sth like this. Instance of MainClass is selected by PropertyGrid. How to make a DropDownList of objects of classes which implement ITest (here Test1 and Test2)

    Read the article

  • Setting custom SQL in django admin

    - by eugene y
    I'm trying to set up a proxy model in django admin. It will represent a subset of the original model. The code from models.py: class MyManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): return super(MyManager, self).get_query_set().filter(some_column='value') class MyModel(OrigModel): objects = MyManager() class Meta: proxy = True Now instead of filter() I need to use a complex SELECT statement with JOINS. What's the proper way to inject it wholly to the custom manager?

    Read the article

  • Rails nested form for belongs_to

    - by user1232533
    I'm new to rails and have some troubles with creating a nested form. My models: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company accepts_nested_attributes_for :company, :reject_if => :all_blank end class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users end Now i would like to create a new company from the user sign_up page (i use Devise btw) by given only a company name. And have a relation between the new User and new Company. In the console i can create a company for a existing User like this: @company = User.first.build_company(:name => "name of company") @company.save That works, but i can't make this happen for a new user, in my new user sign_up form i tried this (i know its wrong by creating a new User fist but im trying to get something working here..): <%= simple_form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :html => { :class => 'form-horizontal' }, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| %> <%= f.error_notification %> <div class="inputs"> <% @user = User.new company = @user.build_company() %> <% f.fields_for company do |builder| %> <%= builder.input :name, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <% end %> <%= f.input :email, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <%= f.input :password, :required => true %> <%= f.input :password_confirmation, :required => true %> </div> <div class="form-actions"> <%= f.button :submit, :class => 'btn-primary', :value => 'Sign up' %> </div> I did my best to google for a solution/ example.. found some nested form examples but it's just not clear to me how to do this. Really hope somebody can help me with this. Any help on this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! Greets, Daniel

    Read the article

  • How to access the map returned by IParameterValues::getParameterValues()?

    - by Hua
    I declared a command and a commandParameter for this command. I specified the "values" of this commandParameter as a class implemented by myself. The implementation of this class is below, public class ParameterValues implements IParameterValues { @Override public Map<String, Double> getParameterValues() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, Double> values = new HashMap<String, Double>(2); values.put("testParam", 1.1239); values.put("AnotherTest", 4.1239); return values; } } The implementation of the handler of this command is blow, public class testHandler extends AbstractHandler implements IHandler { private static String PARAMETER_ID = "my.parameter1"; @Override public Object execute(ExecutionEvent event) throws ExecutionException { String value = event.getParameter(PARAMETER_ID); MessageDialog.openInformation(HandlerUtil.getActiveShell(event), "Test", "Parameter ID: " + PARAMETER_ID + "\nValue: " + value); return null; } } Now, I contribute the command to a menu, <menuContribution locationURI="menu:org.eclipse.ui.main.menu"> <menu id="my.edit" label="Edit"> <command commandId="myCommand.test" label="Test1"> <parameter name="my.parameter1" value="testParam"> </parameter> </command> Since I specified a "values" class for the commandParater, I expect when the menu is clicked, this code line "String value = event.getParameter(PARAMETER_ID);" in the handler class returns 1.1239 instead of "testParam". But, I still see that code line returns "testParam". What's the problem? How could I access the map returned by getParameterValues()? By the way, following menu declaration still works even I don't define "ppp" in the map. <menuContribution locationURI="menu:org.eclipse.ui.main.menu"> <menu id="my.edit" label="Edit"> <command commandId="myCommand.test" label="Test1"> <parameter name="my.parameter1" value="ppp"> </parameter> </command> Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Basic SQL query question

    - by user318573
    Hello, I have the following query: SELECT Base.ReportDate, Base.PropertyCode, Base.FirstName, Base.MiddleName, Base.LastName, Person.FirstName, Person.MiddleName, Person.LastName FROM LeaseT INNER JOIN Base ON LeaseT.LeaseID = Base.LeaseID INNER JOIN Person ON LeaseT.TenantID = Person.ID works fine, except there could be 0 to 'N' people in the 'Person' table for each record in the Base table, but I only want to return exactly 1 for each 'Base' record (doesn't matter which, but the one with the lowest Person.ID) would be a reasonable choice. If there is 0 rows in the person table, I still need to return the row, but with null values for the 'person' fields. How would I structure the SQL to do that? Thanks. Edit: Yes, the tables are probably not structured properly, but restructuring at this time is not possible - got to work with what is there.

    Read the article

  • Showing multiple elements onClick

    - by Nimbuz
    HTML: <ul id="mode"> <li><a href="#tab1">tab1</a> <div class="extra">tada</div> </li> <li><a href="#tab2">tab2</a> <div class="extra">tada</div> </li> </ul> <div id="tab1" class="tab-content" style="display: none">content 1</div> <div id="tab2" class="tab-content" style="display: none">content 2</div> ? jQuery: $(function(){ var mode = $('#mode'); var arrow = $('<span/>', {'class': 'arrow'}); $('li a', mode).bind('click.mytabs', function() { $('li', mode).removeClass('active'); $(this).parent().addClass('active').append(arrow); var a = $(this).attr('href'); $('.tab-content').hide(); $(a).show(); return false; }).filter(':first').triggerHandler('click.mytabs'); // eq(0) works as well }); JSFiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/wwMJL/ I'd like to also show each li's 'extra' div on click and hide when the tab is inactive, what do I need to change in the code? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Works on emulator but not on device

    - by Klaus
    Hello Community, I have an inner handler class that calls the method sendMessage. sendMessige is outside the handler class, but inside the conatining Android java class. On the emulator (AVD 2.2) it works fine, but on my Android 2.2 device the method sendMessage is not called at all. Inner handler class: private Handler handler2 = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message msg) { if (GeoSetting.equals("s") && (inNumber.equals(definedNumber))) **SendService.this.sendMessage(definedNumber, DisplayLoc)**; if (GeoSetting.equals("a")) **SendService.this.sendMessage(inNumber, DisplayLoc)**; stopService(new Intent(getApplicationContext(), GeoService.class)); }; The method that should be called: private void sendMessage(String sendNumber, String sendText){ Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "done!!!", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); SmsManager sms = SmsManager.getDefault(); try { sms.sendTextMessage(sendNumber, null, sendText, null, null); if (Message == true) {Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Sending SMS to "+sendNumber+": "+sendText, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show();} } catch (Exception exeption){ Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Something is wrong, could not send SMS!", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "method called!", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } Does anybody have an idea why sendMessage is not called on the real device? Thank you for the help!

    Read the article

  • How to reflect over T to build an expression tree for a query?

    - by Alex
    Hi all, I'm trying to build a generic class to work with entities from EF. This class talks to repositories, but it's this class that creates the expressions sent to the repositories. Anyway, I'm just trying to implement one virtual method that will act as a base for common querying. Specifically, it will accept a an int and it only needs to perform a query over the primary key of the entity in question. I've been screwing around with it and I've built a reflection which may or may not work. I say that because I get a NotSupportedException with a message of LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. So then I tried another approach and it produced the same exception but with the error of The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in LINQ to Entities. I know it's because EF will not parse the expression the way L2S will. Anyway, I'm hopping someone with a bit more experience can point me into the right direction on this. I'm posting the entire class with both attempts I've made. public class Provider<T> where T : class { protected readonly Repository<T> Repository = null; private readonly string TEntityName = typeof(T).Name; [Inject] public Provider( Repository<T> Repository) { this.Repository = Repository; } public virtual void Add( T TEntity) { this.Repository.Insert(TEntity); } public virtual T Get( int PrimaryKey) { // The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in // LINQ to Entities. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)(t as EntityObject).EntityKey.EntityKeyValues[0].Value) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); // LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method // 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)t.GetType().GetProperties().Single( p => (p.Name == (this.TEntityName + "Id"))).GetValue(t, null)) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); } public virtual IList<T> GetAll() { return this.Repository.Select().ToList(); } protected virtual void Save() { this.Repository.Update(); } }

    Read the article

  • Fortran pointer as an argument to interface procedure

    - by icarusthecow
    Im trying to use interfaces to call different subroutines with different types, however, it doesnt seem to work when i use the pointer attribute. for example, take this sample code MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE INTERFACE ptr_interface MODULE PROCEDURE do_something END INTERFACE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(atype) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: atype ! code determines that this allocation is correct from input ALLOCATE(child::atype) WRITE (*,*) atype%q END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype CALL ptr_interface(ctype) END PROGRAM This gives error Error: There is no specific subroutine for the generic 'ptr_interface' at (1) however if i remove the pointer attribute in the subroutine it compiles fine. Now, normally this wouldnt be a problem, but for my use case i need to be able to treat that argument as a pointer, mainly so i can allocate it if necessary. Any suggestions? Mind you I'm new to fortran so I may have missed something edit: forgot to put the allocation in the parents subroutine, the initial input is unallocated EDIT 2 this is my second attempt, with caller side casting MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: second INTEGER :: meow END TYPE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(this, type_num) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: this INTEGER type_num IF (type_num == 0) THEN ALLOCATE (child::this) ELSE IF (type_num == 1) THEN ALLOCATE (second::this) ENDIF END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype SELECT TYPE(ctype) CLASS is (parent) CALL do_something(ctype, 0) END SELECT WRITE (*,*) ctype%q END PROGRAM however this still fails. in the select statement it complains that parent must extend child. Im sure this is due to restrictions when dealing with the pointer attribute, for type safety, however, im looking for a way to convert a pointer into its parent type for generic allocation. Rather than have to write separate allocation functions for every type and hope they dont collide in an interface or something. hopefully this example will illustrate a little more clearly what im trying to achieve, if you know a better way let me know

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to do this with basic JS DOM?

    - by Thomas
    I need to apply/remove to an input field according to a user's selection in a separate drop down form - but I can't figure out how to target the input's class. I need to add/remove the 'pageRequired' class from this input: <input type="text" title="Company Required" name="customfields-tf-2-tf" class="inputclass pageRequired textInput" id="customfields-tf-2-tf" /> When the user selects one of two options from a drop down field. For example: <select class="dropdown" name="customfields-s-1-s" id="customfields-s-1-s" > <option value="Owner"<?php if(in_array("Owner",$temp_values)) { ?> selected='selected'<?php } ?>> Owner</option> <option value="Broker"<?php if(in_array("Broker",$temp_values)) { ?> selected='selected'<?php } ?>> Broker</option> </select> If the user selects broker than I want to add the pageRequired class to the first input field and remove it if the user selects Owner.

    Read the article

  • Adding a ActionPerformed Array to a String Array

    - by user267490
    Hey, Before you guys ask, yes I've searched online for the answer, but everything I found just leaves a lil confuse and nothing is recent so asking in those forums won't really help. My problems is this: I have an array that holds my name for a menu. String[] fontColor = new String[] {"Red", "Blue", "Green"}; for (int i = 0; i < fontColors.length; i++) { JMenuItem fontC = new JMenuItem(fontColors[i]); fontC.addActionListener(new fontColorAction()); changeFontColor.add(fontC); } Then I have an array that holds my color change in a class called fontColorAction in that class I have another array that does the same thing as my string array except all thats in the statement is textarea.setForeground(colorArr[i]); that will set the setForeground() in order, but now how do I successfully attact the action listner in my class to my menuItems? my class looks like this private class fontColorAction implements ActionListener { Color[] colorArr - new Color[] {"Color.RED","Color.BLUE","Color.GREEN"}; public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e){ for(i = 0; i < collorArr.length; i++){ textarea.setForeground(colorArr[i]); } } }

    Read the article

  • IE: position two text lines on top and bottom corners in table cell?

    - by diggonce
    I have a table with dynamic data. And there is a specific line of text which should be displayed only when a user hovers over the table row. This line of text should be 'fixed' to the table cell's bottom edge. It works so far with Firefox, but fails in IE. Live code can be seen here: http://2010resolutions.org/test/index.html The text in red should be fixed to the table cell's bottom border. (They will have a fixed height and width) Any clues how to get this working in IE? Any help is appreciated. Here's the code: <style> table { width: 500px; background: gray; } td { vertical-align: top; } .wrapper { position: relative; background: green; } tr, td, .wrapper { height: 100%; padding-bottom: 0.75em; } .bottom { position: absolute; left: 0; bottom: 0; background: red; } .bottom { visibility: hidden; } tr:hover .bottom { visibility: visible; } </style> <table> <tr class="data"> <td> <div class="wrapper"> This is line 1<br /> This is line 2<br /> This is line 3<br /> <span class="bottom">Bottom line 1</span> </div> </td> <td> <div class="wrapper"> This is line 4<br /> This is line 5<br /> This is line 6<br /> <span class="bottom">Bottom line 2</span></span> </div> </td> <td> <div class="wrapper"> This is line 7<br /> This is line 8<br /> This is line 9<br /> This is line 10<br /> This is line 11<br /> This is line 12<br /> <span class="bottom">Bottom line 3</span> </div> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>&nbsp;</td> </tr> </table>

    Read the article

  • Generics limitation, or lack of skillz ?

    - by Two Shoes
    I want to define the following class as such: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<T>> { private String name; private E value; public CollectionAttribute(String name, E value) { this.name = name; this.value = value; } public E getValue() { return value; } public void addValue(T value) { value.add(T); } } This won't compile (cannot resolve symbol T). If I replace the class declaration with the following: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<?>> Then I can't reference the parametrized type of the collection. Am I missing something or have I reached a limitation with generics in Java ?

    Read the article

  • How to mock static member variables

    - by pkrish
    I have a class ClassToTest which has a dependency on ClassToMock. public class ClassToMock { private static final String MEMBER_1 = FileReader.readMemeber1(); protected void someMethod() { ... } } The unit test case for ClassToTest. public class ClassToTestTest { private ClassToMock _mock; @Before public void setUp() throws Exception { _mock = mock(ClassToMock.class) } } When mock is called in the setUp() method, FileReader.readMemeber1(); is executed. Is there a way to avoid this? I think one way is to initialize the MEMBER_1 inside a method. Any other alternatives? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Java: Reflection against casting when you know superclass

    - by Ema
    I don't know exactly how to define my doubt so please be patient if the question has already been asked. Let's say I have to dinamically instantiate an object. This object will surely be instance of a subclass of a known, immutable class A. I can obtain dinamically the specific implementation class. Would it be better to use reflection exactly as if I didn't know anything about the target class, or would it be preferrable/possible to do something like: A obj = (Class.forName("com.package.Sub-A")) new A(); where Sub-A extends A ? The purpose would be to avoid reflection overhead times... Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449  | Next Page >