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  • How to output KML by GAE

    - by Niklas R
    Hi I use KML for a google map where entities have a geopt.db coordinate and soft memory limit was exceeded with 213.465 MB after servicing 1 requests total. The log says /list.kml 200 13130ms 10211cpu_ms 4238api_cpu_ms The file list.kml which outputs about 455,7 KB is a template as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><kml xmlns="http:// www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:gx="http://www.google.com/kml/ext/2.2" xmlns:kml="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:atom="http:// www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <Document>{% for a in list %} <Placemark> <name> </name> <description> <![CDATA[<a href="http://{{host}}/{{a.key.id}}"> {{ a.title }} </a> <br/>{{a.text}}]]> </description> <Style> <IconStyle> <Icon> <href> http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/icons/green-dot.png </href> </Icon> </IconStyle> </Style> <Point> <coordinates> {{a.geopt.lon|floatformat:2}},{{a.geopt.lat|floatformat:2}} </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> {% endfor %} </Document> </kml> Is there a memory leak in the template or the python that passes the list variable? Can I improve using other template engine or other framework than default? Is kmz compression a good idea in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestion where or how to change the code.

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  • How can I execute a .sql from C#?

    - by J. Pablo Fernández
    For some integration tests I want to connect to the database and run a .sql file that has the schema needed for the tests to actually run, including GO statements. How can I execute the .sql file? (or is this totally the wrong way to go?) I've found a post in the MSDN forum showing this code: using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.IO; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Common; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string sqlConnectionString = "Data Source=(local);Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True"; FileInfo file = new FileInfo("C:\\myscript.sql"); string script = file.OpenText().ReadToEnd(); SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(sqlConnectionString); Server server = new Server(new ServerConnection(conn)); server.ConnectionContext.ExecuteNonQuery(script); } } } but on the last line I'm getting this error: System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. --- System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for '' threw an exception. --- .ModuleLoadException: The C++ module failed to load during appdomain initialization. --- System.DllNotFoundException: Unable to load DLL 'MSVCR80.dll': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). I was told to go and download that DLL from somewhere, but that sounds very hacky. Is there a cleaner way to? Is there another way to do it? What am I doing wrong? I'm doing this with Visual Studio 2008, SQL Server 2008, .Net 3.5SP1 and C# 3.0.

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  • jQuery Tablesorter - column not sorting alphabetically

    - by McGirl
    I'm not sure what's going wrong here. This is the page: http://www.utexas.edu/ssw/cswr/projects/project-list/ The first column sorts, but it isn't returning data in the correct order (alphabetical). The table itself is being generated by a custom PHP function that pulls info from a WordPress database. I thought that might be the issue, but as you can see the fourth column (End Date) sorts correctly. I also thought it might be the links in the first column that were messing things up, but adding the text-extraction code from this page broke the sorting altogether. This is the jQuery code I'm current using to call Tablesorter: <script type="text/javascript" id="js"> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $(document).ready(function() { // call the tablesorter plugin, the magic happens in the markup $("#projectTable").tablesorter({ // pass the headers argument and assing a object //debug: true, //sortList: [[0,0]], headers: { 0: { // set the column to sort as text sorter: 'text', }, // assign the secound column (we start counting zero) 1: { // disable it by setting the property sorter to false sorter: false, }, // assign the third column (we start counting zero) 2: { // disable it by setting the property sorter to false sorter: false }, 3: { sorter:'digit' } } }); // Works only with plugin modification $("#projectTable").bind("sortStart",function(e) { if( $(e.target).hasClass('header') ) { $("#overlay").show(); } }).bind("sortEnd",function(e) { if( $(e.target).hasClass('header') ) { $("#overlay").hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks for your help!

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  • Understanding Domain Driven Design

    - by Nihilist
    Hi I have been trying to understand DDD for few weeks now. Its very confusing. I dont understand how I organise my projects. I have lot of questions on UnitOfWork, Repository, Associations and the list goes on... Lets take a simple example. Album and Tracks. Album: AlbumId, Name, ListOf Tracks Tracks: TrackId, Name Question1: Should i expose Tracks as a IList/IEnumerabe property on Album ? If that how do i add an album ? OR should i expose a ReadOnlyCollection of Tracks and expose a AddTrack method? Question2: How do i load Tracks for Album [assuming lazy loading]? should the getter check for null and then use a repository to load the tracks if need be? Question3: How do we organise the assemblies. Like what does each assembly have? Model.dll - does it only have the domain entities? Where do the repositories go? Interfaces and implementations both. Can i define IAlbumRepository in Model.dll? Infrastructure.dll : what shold this have? Question4: Where is unit of work defined? How do repository and unit of work communicate? [ or should they ] for example. if i need to add multiple tracks to album, again should this be defined as AddTrack on Album OR should there a method in the repository? Regardless of where the method is, how do I implement unit of work here? Question5: Should the UI use Infrastructure..dll or should there be ServiceLayer? Do my quesitons make sense? Regards

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  • How to use pagination on codeignator datagrid??

    - by riad
    Dear all, Below is my code.Can anybody guide me how can i use pagination on data grid in codeignator?? function viewAllList() { $sql = '(SELECT id,songName,albumName,artistName,category FROM tbl_rbt )as abc'; $getInstance = & get_instance(); $getInstance-load-library('rapyd'); $this-rapyd-load('datagrid'); $grid = new DataGrid('', $sql); $grid-column('Song Name', 'songName', 'align=\'left\''); $grid-column('Album Name','albumName', 'align=\'left\''); $grid-column('Artist Name','artistName', 'align=\'left\''); $grid-column('Category', 'category', 'align=\'left\''); $linkshow = anchor('admin_controller/editRbt/<#id#', 'Edit'); $linkshow .= ' ' . anchor('admin_controller/deleteRbt/<#id#', 'Delete', 'onclick = "return checkDelete();"'); $grid-column('Actions', $linkshow,'align=\'left\' width="100px"'); $grid-build(); return $grid-output; } I need urgent help.Pls help Thanks in advance Riad

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  • HTML5 move Canvas object

    - by Mircea
    Hi, I have 2 canvas created on the same canvas. Is it possible to drag the small black one around? I want to make it draggable but I can not find any online tutorial or demo on this. Is it possible? I had looked to Canvas moveTo or transitions but I was unable to make it work. The code is here http://jsfiddle.net/35P9F/2/ var ctx = document.getElementById('canvas').getContext('2d'); var radgrad3 = ctx.createLinearGradient(255,10,0,180,80,190); radgrad3.addColorStop(0, '#00C9FF'); radgrad3.addColorStop(1, 'red'); ctx.fillStyle = radgrad3; ctx.fillRect(0,0,255,255); var ctx4 = document.getElementById('canvas').getContext('2d'); var radgrad4 = ctx4.createLinearGradient(0, 0, 0, 255); radgrad4.addColorStop(0, '#000000'); radgrad4.addColorStop(1, '#ff0000'); ctx4.fillStyle = radgrad4; ctx4.fillRect(0,0,25,25); Thank you.

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  • C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

    - by JL
    I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

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  • RavenDB Ids and ASP.NET MVC3 Routes

    - by goober
    Hey all, Just building a quick, simple site with MVC 3 RC2 and RavenDB to test some things out. I've been able to make a bunch of projects, but I'm curious as to how Html.ActionLink() handles a raven DB ID. My example: I have a Document called "reasons" (a reason for something, just text mostly), which has reason text and a list of links. I can add, remove, and do everything else fine via my repository. Below is the part of my razor view that lists each reason in a bulleted list, with an Edit link as the first text: @foreach(var Reason in ViewBag.ReasonsList) { <li>@Html.ActionLink("Edit", "Reasons", "Edit", new { id = Reason.Id }, null) @Reason.ReasonText</li> <ul> @foreach (var reasonlink in Reason.ReasonLinks) { <li><a href="@reasonlink.URL">@reasonlink.URL</a></li> } </ul> } The Problem This works fine, except for the edit link. While the values and code here appear to work directly (i.e the link is firing directly), RavenDB saves my document's ID as "reasons/1". So, when the URL happens and it passes the ID, the resulting route is "http://localhost:4976/Reasons/Edit/reasons/2". So, the ID is appended correctly, but MVC is interpreting it as its own route. Any suggestions on how I might be able to get around this? Do I need to create a special route to handle it or is there something else I can do?

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  • Are dots legal in the name property of an HTML button

    - by justSteve
    a page with a bit of MVC code: <%=Html.SubmitButton("ChooseWebinar.Submit", "Continue to Registration Details")%><br/> that generates an input button where the '.' is embedded in the name: [rendered html] At page load this control (the submit button) is hidden - when one of two different dropdowns registers a value, the button is shown: function toggleChooseWebinarSubmit() { if ($("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val() || $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").show(); } else { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").hide(); } I've just received a report from an IE8 user who says that after selecting a value in a dropdown, the button is _not displaying. I can't reproduce the condition (i've tried compatibility mode too). Obviously the show/hide is targeting the 'ID' selector but i can't help but wonder about that period in the control's name. Any known issues? - or perhaps the .change is problematic and the toggle's never getting called: $(window).load(function() { toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); }); thx

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  • Upload two files at once

    - by Keyo
    I am trying to upload two files at once (two file fields) with codeigniters upload class. Despite having provided the field name codeigniter produces errors on the second field. I this a limitation of codeigniter, php or html or am I simply using the class incorectly? $this->upload->do_upload('video_file') $this->upload->do_upload('image_file') Produces this on the image field: The filetype you are attempting to upload is not allowed. Here are my two functions function upload_image() { $thumb_size = 94; $config['upload_path'] = './assets/uploads/images/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'jpg|png|gif'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; $config['file_name'] = 'video_' . rand(999999, 999999999); $this->load->library('upload', $config); if (!$this->upload->do_upload('image_file')) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else { function upload_video() { $config['upload_path'] = './assets/uploads/videos/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'flv'; $config['max_size'] = '0'; $config['file_name'] = 'video_' . rand(999999, 999999999); $this->load->library('upload', $config); if (!$this->upload->do_upload('video_file')) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else {

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  • Flex/Flash 4 ExternalInterface.call - trying to get a string from HTML to Actionscript.

    - by Setori
    Dear all, I need to obtain a string from HTML and put it into Actionscript. the actionscript: import flash.external.ExternalInterface; protected function getUserName():void{ var isAvailable:Boolean = ExternalInterface.available; var findUserName:String = "findUserName"; if(isAvailable){ var foundUserName:String = ExternalInterface.call(findUserName); Alert.show(foundUserName);}} the javascript: function findUserName() { var label = document.getElementById("username-label"); if(label.value != ""){ alert("the name in the box is: " + label.value); return label.value;} else return "nothing in the textbox";}} the JSP: <%IUserSession userSession = SessionManager.getSession();%> <logic:notEmpty name="userSession"> <logic:notEqual value="anonymous" name="userSession" property="userLoginId"> <td align="right" width="10%" > <input id="username-label" type="text" value="<bean:write name="userSession" property="userLoginId"/>" /> </td> </logic:notEqual> </logic:notEmpty> the rendered HTML: <td align="right" width="10%"> <input id="username-label" type="text" value="a-valid-username" /> </td> when the javascript execution hits var label = document.getElementById("username-label"); a null is returned and crashes, no alert shows no error message is shown. firfox 3.5 windows, container is Tomcat. Please advise, and thank you in advance.

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  • java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read)

    - by Stefano Borini
    I have a non-signed java applet interacting with the same host. Every time I click on an element in my page, the applet (which is a third part applet I have no control on) should load data from a URL. I say should, because for some files, I get java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read) and some other files are correctly loaded. All files are correctly readable and downloadable from the web server, and they are very simple text files. I also found that, in some cases, files that previously returned the error are now loaded and continue to load, so it seems a cache is involved somehow. Does any of you have an idea of what's going on here ? The behavior seems to be absolutely random, and I have no way of performing debug on this thing. Note: I used this applet to perform many other "single shot" file access, and it never gave me any problem. The only apparent difference I have is that now I do it "on-demand" via a javascript event. What could be the cause, in the java of the applet or anywhere else ?

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  • jQuery add() function and the context of jQuery objects

    - by patrick
    Given the following HTML example... <div id='div1'>div one</div> <div id='div2'>div two</div> ...I found that the following jQuery code... $('#div1').click(function() { var $d = $(this); // Using 'this' instead of '#div1' $d.add('#div2').remove(); }); ...would not add #div2 to the set referenced by $d, but this code... $('#div1').click(function() { var $d = $('#div1'); // Using '#div1' instead of 'this' $d.add('#div2').remove(); }); ...successfully added #div2. Upon consulting firebug, I found that using $(this) gave the jQuery object a context of #div1, but doing $('#div1') gave the object a context of document. Given this information I tried... var $d = $(this, document); ...and the add() function worked as expected. So here's the question. Could someone please explain to my why a different context is assigned when using $(this) vs $('#div1')? Thanks much!

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  • How to set focus to a web control in ASP.NET

    - by Dan7el
    Question: What is the best way to set focus to a web control in ASP .NET. I can do it, but it's ugly. I have a web control wrapped in a web control hosted on a web page. So, if you do a view | source on the page the id is something like WrapperControl_Control_TextBox. I've tried the "tried and true" Javascript methods of grabbing the element and setting it's focus: document.getElementByID( "WrapperControl_Control_TextBox" ).focus(); and it didn't work. I'm not sure why. I know I could possibly do: document.getElementById( "<%= TextBox.ClientID %" ).focus(); too, I think. This won't work because of another totally separate error based on the fact you can't dynamically add controls to a header if there is a "<% %" in the page. GAH. In the "bottom-most" control, I've tried setting the focus (TextBox.Focus() in Page_Load) and that doesn't work either. Anyway, the way that works is by simply taking the ControlsCollection of the Page, grabbing the control I need from that, getting it's collection, grabbing the next lower control and so forth. I only have to do this seven times. So I have eight foreach loops. Basically, my code is like this: /////////////////////////////// // On the page /////////////////////////////// ControlCollection controls = Controls; foreach( Control control in controls) { if ( string.Equals( control.ID, "FormID", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnore ) ) { ControlCollection nextControls = control.Controls; foreach( Control nextControl in nextControls ) { if ( string.Equals( nextControl.ID, "DivICareAboutInTheForm", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnor ) ) { ControlCollection nextNextControls = nextControl.Controls; //: //: //Yes, it's that bad and so forth. //: //: } } } }

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  • Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

    - by Juan Luis Soldi
    I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • Changing the parameters of a Javascript function using GreaseMonkey

    - by Dave
    There are a lot of questions here about Greasemonkey, but I didn't see anything directly related to my question. I'm on a website that uses a text editor control, and it's really annoying that they don't allow horizontal resizing (only vertical). So if you are using a cheapo projector that only supports 1024x768, the text runs off of the screen and there's nothing you can do about it. I looked at the page source, and found the section of code that I want Greasemonkey to modify: <script type="text/javascript"> // TinyMCE instance type: CD_TinyMCE tinyMCE.init({ convert_urls : "", mode : "specific_textareas", editor_selector : "rte", theme : "advanced", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "bottom", theme_advanced_resizing : true, **theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false**, ... I just want to change the boldfaced value to true. I tried to approach this the brute force way and replace the text this way: function allowHorizontalResize() { var search_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false"; var replace_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : true"; var doc_text = document.body.innerHTML; document.body.innerHTML = doc_text.replace( search_string, replace_string); } ...but it doesn't work. However, I know the basic search and replace part works because I can use this script to replace text within the editor -- I just can't change the javascript code that initializes the text editor. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong? Is this even possible?

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  • Loading from archive?

    - by fuzzygoat
    Can anyone point me in the right direction, I have two sets of load/save methods below that I am playing with to save an array of objects out to disk and then load them back in. I am getting a little confused after calling "saveMoons" how I should go about loading that data back in ... any pointers would be great. -(void)saveMoons:(NSString *)savePath { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; NSKeyedArchiver *archiver = [[NSKeyedArchiver alloc] initForWritingWithMutableData:data]; [moons encodeWithCoder:archiver]; [archiver finishEncoding]; [data writeToFile:savePath atomically:YES]; [data release]; [archiver release]; } -(void)loadMoons:(NSString *)loadPath { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:loadPath]; NSKeyedUnarchiver *unarchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; // [self setMoons:[unarchiver ??????]]; } . // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** // SIMPLER // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** -(void)saveMoons_SIMPLE:(NSString *)savePath { NSData *data = [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:moons]; [data writeToFile:savePath atomically:YES]; } -(void)loadMoons_SIMPLE:(NSString *)loadPath { [self setMoons:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:loadPath]]; } // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** // // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** gary

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  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

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  • Can you have multiple clipping regions in an HTML Canvas?

    - by emh
    I have code that loads a bunch of images into hidden img elements and then a Javascript loop which places each image onto the canvas. However, I want to clip each image so that it is a circle when placed on the canvas. My loop looks like this: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.beginPath(); context.arc(x+24, y+24, 20, 0, Math.PI * 2, 1); context.clip(); context.strokeStyle = "black"; context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); context.stroke(); }); Problem is, only the first image is drawn (or is visible). If I remove the clipping logic: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); }); Then all my images are drawn. Is there a way to get each image individually clipped? I tried resetting the clipping area to be the entire canvas between images but that didn't work.

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  • Using MEF with exporting project that uses resources (xml) contained in the xap.

    - by JSmyth
    I'm doing a proof of concept app in SL4 using MEF and as part of the app I am importing another xap from an existing Silverlight Project and displaying it in my host project. The problem is that the existing app uses some .xml files (as content) and it uses linq2xml to load these files which are (assumed to be) bundled in the xap. When I compose the application the initalization fails because the host app doesn't contain the xml files. If I copy these xml files into the host project and run it the composition works fine. However, I need to keep the xml files in the original project. Is there a way that I can download a xap and look at it's contents for xml files and then load them into the host xap at runtime so that after the compostion takes place the xml resources that are required can be found? Or should I work out some kind of contract with an import/export to pass the xml files to the host xap? As the people developing the imported xaps (should the project go ahead) are from a different company, I would like to keep changes to the way they develop their apps to a minimum.

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  • Efficient Method for Preventing Hotlinking via .htaccess

    - by Michael Robinson
    I need to confirm something before I go accuse someone of ... well I'd rather not say. The problem: We allow users to upload images and embed them within text on our site. In the past we allowed users to hotlink to our images as well, but due to server load we unfortunately had to stop this. Current "solution": The method the programmer used to solve our "too many connections" issue was to rename the file that receives and processes image requests (image_request.php) to image_request2.php, and replace the contents of the original with <?php header("HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error") ; ?> Obviously this has caused all images with their src attribute pointing to the original image_request.php to be broken, and is also the wrong code to be sending in this case. Proposed solution: I feel a more elegant solution would be: In .htaccess If the request is for image_request.php Check referrer If referrer is not our site, send the appropriate header If referrer is our site, proceed to image_request.php and process image request What I would like to know is: Compared to simply returning a 500 for each request to image_request.php: How much more load would be incurred if we were to use my proposed alternative solution outlined above? Is there a better way to do this? Our main concern is that the site stays up. I am not willing to agree that breaking all internally linked images is the best / only way to solve this. I refuse to tell our users that because of something WE changed they must now manually change the embed code in all their previously uploaded content.

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  • Simple Prototype.js code to select multiple elements with the same classname

    - by stephemurdoch
    I have one link with an id of "link", and I use the javascript below to open that link up in a modalbox: #In my template I have: <a href="some/path" id="link">link</a> #Then in my application.js file I have: document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $('login-link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500}); }); }) Since id's must be unique, this javascript only works for one element per page so I use it to observe my login-link and it has served me well. Until now. I want to use the same javascript to observe multiple links which have classnames instead of id's as below: <a href="link/to/some/stuff" class="link">link 1</a> <a href="link/to/some/other/stuff" class="link">link 2</a> When I do this, I can't get any of the links to open in a modalbox. If I change the class to an id for each link, then I can get the first link in the list to open in a modalbox. I've tried to use the '$$' notation to build an array of links in my javascript (shown below) but if I do that, then none of the links open correctly #document.observe method removed for display purposes $$('link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500} ); }); My javascript skills obviously suck. Does anyone know how to fix the problem?

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  • Help making userscript work in chrome

    - by Vishal Shah
    I've written a userscript for Gmail Pimp.my.Gmail & i'd like it to be compatible with Google Chrome too. Now i have tried a couple of things, to the best of my Javascript knowledge (which is very weak) & have been successful up-to a certain extent, though im not sure if it's the right way. Here's what i tried, to make it work in Chrome: The very first thing i found is that contentWindow.document doesn't work in chrome, so i tried contentDocument, which works. BUT i noticed one thing, checking the console messages in Firefox and Chrome, i saw that the script gets executed multiple times in Firefox whereas in Chrome it just executes once! So i had to abandon the window.addEventListener('load', init, false); line and replace it with window.setTimeout(init, 5000); and i'm not sure if this is a good idea. The other thing i tried is keeping the window.addEventListener('load', init, false); line and using window.setTimeout(init, 1000); inside init() in case the canvasframe is not found. So please do lemme know what would be the best way to make this script cross-browser compatible. Oh and im all ears for making this script better/efficient code wise (which is sure there is)

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