Search Results

Search found 21360 results on 855 pages for 'domain controller'.

Page 446/855 | < Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >

  • Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

    - by slugolicious
    It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

    Read the article

  • How to best implement Version Control for Web Development?

    - by Adam Taylor
    Version control systems are obviously important in development projects but there use in web development projects appears to be more complex, what with the requirement of having a web server to run all but the simplest of web applications. With that in mind, I have looked around and discovered a few different methods of using version control in web development projects: Provide each developer with a virtual machine which is a replication of the development server and have the developer run their working copy of the application in the virtual machine. Have each developer use a sub domain on the development server, e.g. john.project.com and checkout their working copy of the app to the directories the sub domain points to. Use the version control system to checkout code, make a change, commit the code and then check it on the development server (which points to the head of the repository). I can see a drawback of 1 being the added time required to create the virtual machines and ensure that the virtual machines are kept insync with the development server (also the need(?) to continuously change the developers host file to point at the virtual machine not the development server). I can see 2 possibly being a problem if absolute URLs are used within the site unless there is an easy way to update the configuration to use the new subdomains as well. 3 is the easiest to set up but is rather primitive and it will presumably become quite tedious for a developer to keep checking in the code after every time change. How have the users of stackoverflow used version control with web development projects and which method/workflow was most effective. Please also include extra methods I haven't thought of / read about.

    Read the article

  • Spring-hibernate mapping problem

    - by James
    I have a spring-hibernate application which is failing to map an object properly: basically I have 2 domain objects, a Post and a User. The semantics are that every Post has 1 corresponding User. The Post domain object looks roughly as follows: class Post { private int pId; private String attribute; ... private User user; //getters and setters here } As you can see, Post contains a reference to User. When I load a Post object, I want to corresponding User object to be loaded (lazily - only when its needed). My mapping looks as follows: <class name="com...Post" table="post"> <id name="pId" column="PostId" /> <property name="attribute" column="Attribute" type="java.lang.String" /> <one-to-one name="User" fetch="join" class="com...User"></one-to-one> </class> And of course I have a basic mapping for User set up. As far as my table schema is concerned, I have a table called post with a foreign UserId which links to the user table. I thought this setup should work, BUT when I load a page that forces the lazy loading of the User object, I notice the following Hiberate query being generated: Select ... from post this_ left outer join user user2_ on this.PostId=user2_.UserId ... Obviously this is wrong: it should be joining UserId from post with UserId from user, but instead its incorrectly joining PostId from post (its primary key) with UserId from user. Any ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Grails - Simple hasMany Problem - How does 'save' work?

    - by gav
    My problem is this: I want to create a grails domain instance, defining the 'Many' instances of another domain that it has. I have the actual source in a Google Code Project but the following should illustrate the problem. class Person { String name static hasMany[skills:Skill] static constraints = { id (visible:false) skills (nullable:false, blank:false) } } class Skill { String name String description static constraints = { id (visible:false) name (nullable:false, blank:false) description (nullable:false, blank:false) } } If you use this model and def scaffold for the two Controllers then you end up with a form like this that doesn't work; My own attempt to get this to work enumerates the Skills as checkboxes and looks like this; But when I save the Volunteer the skills are null! This is the code for my save method; def save = { log.info "Saving: " + params.toString() def skills = params.skills log.info "Skills: " + skills def volunteerInstance = new Volunteer(params) log.info volunteerInstance if (volunteerInstance.save(flush: true)) { flash.message = "${message(code: 'default.created.message', args: [message(code: 'volunteer.label', default: 'Volunteer'), volunteerInstance.id])}" redirect(action: "show", id: volunteerInstance.id) log.info volunteerInstance } else { render(view: "create", model: [volunteerInstance: volunteerInstance]) } } This is my log output (I have custom toString() methods); 2010-05-10 21:06:41,494 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Saving: ["skills":["1", "2"], "name":"Ian", "_skills":["", ""], "create":"Create", "action":"save", "controller":"volunteer"] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,495 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Skills: [1, 2] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,508 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Volunteer[ id: null | Name: Ian | Skills [Skill[ id: 1 | Name: Carpenter ] , Skill[ id: 2 | Name: Sound Engineer ] ]] Note that in the final log line the right Skills have been picked up and are part of the object instance. When the volunteer is saved the 'Skills' are ignored and not commited to the database despite the in memory version created clearly does have the items. Is it not possible to pass the Skills at construction time? There must be a way round this? I need a single form to allow a person to register but I want to normalise the data so that I can add more skills at a later time. If you think this should 'just work' then a link to a working example would be great. Hope this makes sense, thanks in advance! Gav

    Read the article

  • Parsec: backtracking not working

    - by Nathan Sanders
    I am trying to parse F# type syntax. I started writing an [F]Parsec grammar and ran into problems, so I simplified the grammar down to this: type ::= identifier | type -> type identifier ::= [A-Za-z0-9.`]+ After running into problems with FParsec, I switched to Parsec, since I have a full chapter of a book dedicated to explaining it. My code for this grammar is typeP = choice [identP, arrowP] identP = do id <- many1 (digit <|> letter <|> char '.' <|> char '`') -- more complicated code here later return id arrowP = do domain <- typeP string "->" range <- typeP return $ "("++domain++" -> "++range++")" run = parse (do t <- typeP eof return t) "F# type syntax" The problem is that Parsec doesn't backtrack by default, so > run "int" Right "int" -- works! > run "int->int" Left "F# type syntax" unexpected "-" expecting digit, letter, ".", "`" or end of input -- doesn't work! The first thing I tried was to reorder typeP: typeP = choice [arrowP, identP] But this just stack overflows because the grammar is left-recursive--typeP never gets to trying identP because it keeps trying arrowP over and over. Next I tried try in various places, for example: typeP = choice [try identP, arrowP] But nothing I do seems to change the basic behaviours of (1) stack overflow or (2) non-recognition of "-" following an identifier. My mistake is probably obvious to anybody who has successfully written a Parsec grammar. Can somebody point it out?

    Read the article

  • Optional route parameters in ASP.NET 4 RTM no longer work as before

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I upgraded my project to ASP.NET 4 RTM with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM today. I was previously using ASP.NET 3.5 with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM. Some of my routes don't work suddenly and I don't know why. I'm not sure if something changed between 3.5 and 4.0 - or if this was a regression type issue in the 4.0 RTM. (I never previously tested my app with 4.0). I like to use Url.RouteUrl("route-name", routeParams) to avoid ambiguity when generating URLs. Here's my route definition for a gallery page. I want imageID to be optional (you get a thumbnail page if you don't specify it). // gallery id routes.MapRoute( "gallery-route", "gallery/{galleryID}/{imageID}/{title}", new { controller = "Gallery", action = "Index", galleryID = (string) null, imageID = (string) null, title = (string) null} ); In .NET 3.5 / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => /gallery/cats Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles In .NET 4.0 RTM / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => null Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles Previously I could supply only the galleryID and everything else would be ignored in the generated URL. But now it's looking like I need to specify all the parameters up until title - or it gives up in determining the URL. Incoming URLs work fine for /gallery/cats and that is correctly mapped through this rule with imageID and title both being assigned null in my controller. I also tested the INCOMING routes with http://haacked.com/archive/2008/03/13/url-routing-debugger.aspx and they all work fine.

    Read the article

  • Spring-json problem in Liferay with Spring 2.5

    - by Jesus Benito
    Hi all, I am trying to use the library spring-json.1.3.1 in a project that has been done with Liferay 5.1.2 which includes Spring 2.5. Following the project website instructions, I managed to make the request hit in my controller, but at the moment of returning the json object back through the modelAndView object it fails with the following error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException at com.liferay.portlet.MimeResponseImpl.setContentType(MimeResponseImpl.java:162) I have checked Liferays source code, and it checks that contentType that its being set is in a harcoded list,if it not it will throw a IllegalArgumentException that it is exactly what os happening. This is my view resolver code: <bean id="xmlFileViewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.XmlViewResolver"> /WEB-INF/context/views.xml 1 My views.xml code: <beans> <bean name="jsonView" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.json.JsonView"/> And my controller: @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") @Override public ModelAndView handleRenderRequest(RenderRequest arg0, RenderResponse arg1) throws Exception { Map model = new HashMap(); model.put("firstname", "Peter"); model.put("secondname", "Schmitt"); return new ModelAndView("jsonView", model); } Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Ajax.BeginForm eats params of submit button clicked. Looks like bug.

    - by RonnBlack
    If you are using Ajax.BeginForm() with multiple submit buttons similar to this: // View.aspx <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "MyControl", })) { %> <span id="MyControl"> <% Html.RenderPartial("MyControl"); %> </span> <% } %> //MyControl.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <input name="prev" type="submit" value="prev" /> <input name="next" type="submit" value="next" /> //... Everything is submitted to the controller fine but the params for the submit button that was clicked are absent from the Request. In otherwords Request["next"] and Request["prev"] are always null. I looked in to the JavaScript in Microsoft.MvcAjax.js and it looks like the function Sys_Mvc_MvcHelpers$_serializeForm completely skips over the inputs that are of type 'submit'. This doesn't seem logical at all. How else can you find out what button has been clicked? It looks like a bug to me. Is there any logical reason to skip these form parameters?

    Read the article

  • Altering URLs and mapping - path_prefix? - Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL which blows up my view because nothing is being set for the @user variable. How do I tell Rails to create the link reading www.myapp.com/brandon/posts/id vs www.myapp.com/posts/id and then map that action? I am assuming this will involve some code in the view, and then adding another line in the routes.rb file, map.subdomain_link '/:username/posts/:id', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'show' and adding the @user variable to the PostController#show action, but not totally sure if this is even the right approach. UPDATE: I have been reading about :path_prefix and seems like it might be what I am looking for. I have tried to implement simply by adding map.resources :posts, :path_prefix => '/:user_username/:post_id' to the routes.rb file but not working (even after server restart). I am sure this is not correct but wanted to let you know what I have tried.

    Read the article

  • Bind postback data from a strong type view of type List<T>

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a strong type view of type List<List<MyViewModelClass>> The outer list will always have two lists of List<MyViewModelClass>. For each of the two outer lists I want to display a group of checkboxes. Each set can have an arbitrary number of choices. My view model class looks similar to this: public class MyViewModelClass { public Area Area { get; set; } public bool IsGeneric { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public bool IsChecked { get; set; } } So the final view will look something like: Please select those that apply: First set of choices: x Option 1 x Option 2 x Option 3 etc. Second set of choices: x Second Option 1 x Second Option 2 x Second Option 3 x Second Option 4 etc. Checkboxes should display MyViewModelClass.Area.Name, and their value should be related to MyViewModelClass.Area.Id. Checked state is of course related to MyViewModel.IsChecked. Question I wonder how should I use Html.CheckBox() or Html.CheckBoxFor() helper to display my checkboxes? I have to get these values back to the server on a postback of course. I would like to have my controller action like one of these: public ActionResult ConsumeSelections(List<List<MyViewModelClass>> data) { // process data } public ActionResult ConsumeSelections(List<MyViewModelClass> first, List<MyViewModelClass> second) { // process data } If it makes things simpler, I could make a separate view model type like: public class Options { public List First { get; set; } public List Second { get; set; } } As well as changing my first version of controller action to: public ActionResult ConsumeSelections(Options data) { // process data }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Chart Control errors in Event Viewer

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have been using the ASP.NET chart controls for a while on win2k3 (32bit) setups without any issue but have noticed that on our new win2k8 (64bit) box I am getting a warning message showing up in the event viewer from the chart control. In my web.config file I have the following tag telling the Chart Control where I can store the Temp Files: <add key="ChartImageHandler" value="storage=file;timeout=20;dir=c:\TempImageFiles\;" /> Below is the warning message produced by the control: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event time (UTC): 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event ID: 237c3b208962429e8bbc5a48ffd177f0 Event sequence: 2860 Event occurrence: 26 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT-1-128993655360497729 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: C:\data\sites\mydomain.com\ Machine name: 231692-WEB Process information: Process ID: 4068 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ArgumentException Exception message: The image is not found. Request information: Request URL: http://www.mydomain.com/ChartImg.axd?i=chart%5F0%5F3.png&g=bccc8aa11abb470980c60e8cf1e71e15 Request path: /ChartImg.axd User host address: my domain ip User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.ProcessSavedChartImage(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) It's worth pointing out that ALL of the chart images are displayed correctly on the screen so I'm not sure when/where the image not found error is being caused. Is this a 64bit issue? Thanks, Rich

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Protocols within Protocols

    - by LucasTizma
    I recently began trying my hand at using protocols in my Objective-C development as an (obvious) means of delegating tasks more appropriately among my classes. I completely understand the basic notion of protocols and how they work. However, I came across a roadblock when trying to create a custom protocol that in turn implements another protocol. I since discovered the solution, but I am curious why the following DOES NOT work: @protocol STPickerViewDelegate < UIPickerViewDelegate > - ( void )customCallback; @end @interface STPickerView : UIPickerView { id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; } @property ( nonatomic, assign ) id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; @end Then in a view controller, which conforms to STPickerViewDelegate: STPickerView * pickerView = [ [ STPickerView alloc ] init ]; pickerView.delegate = self; - ( void )customCallback { ... } - ( NSString * )pickerView:( UIPickerView * )pickerView titleForRow:( NSInteger )row forComponent:( NSInteger )component { ... } The problem was that pickerView:titleForRow:forComponent: was never being called. On the other hand, customCallback was being called just fine, which isn't too surprising. I don't understand why STPickerViewDelegate, which itself conforms to UIPickerViewDelegate, does not notify my view controller when events from UIPickerViewDelegate are supposed to occur. Per my understanding of Apple's documentation, if a protocol (A) itself conforms to another protocol (B), then a class (C) that conforms to the first protocol (A) must also conform to the second protocol (B), which is exactly the behavior I want and expected. What I ended up doing was removing the id< STPickerViewDelegate > delegate property from STViewPicker and instead doing something like the following in my STViewPicker implementation where I want to evoke customCallback: if ( [ self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ] ) { [ self.delegate performSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ]; } This works just fine, but I really am puzzled as to why my original approach did not work.

    Read the article

  • Detection of page refresh / F5 key in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by Michael
    How would one go about detecting a page refresh / F5 key push on the controller handling the postback? I need to distinguish between the user pressing one of two buttons (e.g., Next, Previous) and when the F5 / page refresh occurs. My scenario is a single wizard page that has different content shown between each invocation of the user pressing the "Next" or "Previous" buttons. The error that I am running into is when the user refreshes the page / presses the F5 key, the browser re-sends the request back to the controller, which is handled as a post-back and the FormCollection type is used to look for the "submitButton" key and obtain its value (e.g., "Next," "Send"). This part was modeled after the post by Dylan Beattie at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/442704/how-do-you-handle-multiple-submit-buttons-in-asp-net-mvc-framework. Maybe I'm trying to bend MVC 2 to where it isn't meant to go but I'd like to stay with the current design in that the underlying database drives the content and order of what is shown. This allows us to add new content into the database without modifying the code the displays the content. Thanks, Michael

    Read the article

  • This 404 seems unavoidable - what am I doing wrong? [Ninject 2.0 with ASP.NET MVC 2 on .NET 4]

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I downloaded the fairly new Ninject 2.0 and Ninject.Web.Mvc (targeting mvc2) sources today, and successfully built them against .NET 4 (release configuration). When trying to run an application using Ninject 2.0, i keep getting 404 errors and I can't figure out why. This is my global.asax.cs (slightly shortified, for brevity): using ... using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using Ninject.Modules; namespace Booking.Web { public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { Booking.Models.AutoMapperBootstrapper.Initialize(); RegisterAllControllersIn(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); base.OnApplicationStarted(); } protected void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { ... routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Entry", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { INinjectModule[] mods = new INinjectModule[] {...}; return new StandardKernel(mods); } } } The EntryController exists, and has an Index method that simply does a return View(). I have debugged, and verified that the call to RegisterAllControllersIn() is executed. I have also tried to use Phil Haacks Routing debugger but I still get a 404. What do I do to find the cause of this?

    Read the article

  • HtmlHelper Getting the route name

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've created a html helper that adds a css class property to a li item if the user is on the current page. The helper looks like this: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class if ( currentControllerName.Equals( controllerName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) && currentActionName.Equals( actionName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) ) builder.AddCssClass( "active" ); // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.ActionLink( linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } I want to expand this class so I can pass a route name to the helper and if the user is on that route then it adds the css class to the li item. However I'm having difficulty finding the route the user is on. Is this possible? The code I have so far is: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string routeName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class // Some code for here // if ( routeName == currentRoute ) AddCssClass; // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.RouteLink( linkText, routeName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } BTW I'm using MVC 1.0. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Poll multiple desktops/servers on a network remotely to determine the IP Type: Static or DHCP

    - by Charles Laird
    Had a gentleman answer 90% of my original question, which is to say I now have the ability to poll a device that I am running the below script on. The end goal is to obtain IP type: Static or DHCP on all desktop/servers on a network I support. I have the list of servers that I will input in a batch file, just looking for the code to actually poll the other devices on the network from one location. Output to be viewed: Device name: IP Address: MAC Address: Type: Marvell Yukon 88E8001/8003/8010 PCI Gigabit Ethernet Controller NULL 00:00:F3:44:C6:00 DHCP Generic Marvell Yukon 88E8056 based Ethernet Controller 192.168.1.102 00:00:F3:44:D0:00 DHCP ManagementClass objMC = new ManagementClass("Win32_NetworkAdapterConfiguration"); ManagementObjectCollection objMOC = objMC.GetInstances(); txtLaunch.Text = ("Name\tIP Address\tMAC Address\tType" +"\r\n"); foreach (ManagementObject objMO in objMOC) { StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); object o = objMO.GetPropertyValue("IPAddress"); object m = objMO.GetPropertyValue("MACAddress"); if (o != null || m != null) { builder.Append(objMO["Description"].ToString()); builder.Append("\t"); if (o != null) builder.Append(((string[])(objMO["IPAddress"]))[0].ToString()); else builder.Append("NULL"); builder.Append("\t"); builder.Append(m.ToString()); builder.Append("\t"); builder.Append(Convert.ToBoolean(objMO["DHCPEnabled"]) ? "DHCP" : "Static"); builder.Append("\r\n"); } txtLaunch.Text = txtLaunch.Text + (builder.ToString()); I'm open to recommendations here.

    Read the article

  • How to resolve user registration and activation email error in Django registration?

    - by user2476295
    So I was just trying to setup a basic user authentication in Django and downloaded a django registration app with templates. Now when I run the server at 127.0.0.1:8000/accounts/register/ I get a basic registration page, I fill in the details and when I click submit I get this error "NoReverseMatch at /accounts/register/" Error during template rendering In template Users/sudhasinha/mysite/mysite/registration/templates/registration/activation_email.txt, error at line 4 'url' requires a non-empty first argument. The syntax changed in Django 1.5, see the docs. 1 {% load i18n %} 2 {% trans "Activate account at" %} {{ site.name }}: 3 4 http://{{ site.domain }}{**% url registration_activate activation_key %**} 5 6 {% blocktrans %}Link is valid for {{ expiration_days }} days.{% endblocktrans %} 7 This is what my activation_email.txt looks like: {% load i18n %} {% trans "Activate account at" %} {{ site.name }}: http://{{ site.domain }}{% url registration_activate activation_key %} {% blocktrans %}Link is valid for {{ expiration_days }} days.{% endblocktrans %} And this is what my registration_form.html looks like: {% extends "base.html" %} {% load i18n %} {% block content %} <form method="post" action="."> {{ form.as_p }} <input type="submit" value="{% trans 'Submit' %}" /> </form> {% endblock %} I have very minimal experience with Django and would appreciate some help to resolve this error. My urls seem to be setup correctly but I will post it if needed. Also pardon my horrible formatting

    Read the article

  • How can I capture Rake output when invoked from with a Ruby script?

    - by Adrian O'Connor
    I am writing a web-based dev-console for Rails development. In one of my controller actions, I am calling Rake, but I am unable to capture any of the output that Rake generates. For example, here is some sample code, from the controller: require 'rake' require 'rake/rdoctask' require 'rake/testtask' require 'tasks/rails' require 'stringio' ... def show_routes @results = capture_stdout { Rake.tasks['routes'].invoke } # @results is nil -- the capture_stdout doesn't catpure anything that Rake generates end def capture_stdout s = StringIO.new $stdout = s yield s.string ensure $stdout = STDOUT end Does anybody know why I can't capture the Rake output? I've tried going through the Rake source, and I can't see where it fires a new process or anything, so I think I ought to be able to do this. Many thanks! Adrian I have since discovered the correct way to call Rake from inside Ruby that works much better: Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].reenable Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].invoke Strangely, some rake tasks work perfectly now (routes), some capture the output the first time the run and after that are always blank (db:migrate:redo) and some don't seem to ever capture output (test). Odd.

    Read the article

  • Rails, RSpec and Webrat: Expected output matches rendered output but still getting error in view spe

    - by Anthony Burns
    Hello all, I've just gotten started using BDD with RSpec/Cucumber/Webrat and Rails and I've run into some frustration trying to get my view spec to pass. First of all, I am running Ruby 1.9.1p129 with Rails 2.3.2, RSpec and RSpec-Rails 1.2.6, Cucumber 0.3.11, and Webrat 0.4.4. Here is the code relevant to my question config/routes.rb: map.b_posts 'backend/posts', :controller => 'backend/posts', :action => 'backend_index', :conditions => { :method => :get } map.connect 'backend/posts', :controller => 'backend/posts', :action => 'create', :conditions => { :method => :post } views/backend/posts/create.html.erb: <% form_tag do %> <% end %> *spec/views/backend/posts/create.html.erb_spec.rb:* describe "backend/posts/create.html.erb" do it "should render a form to create a post" do render "backend/posts/create.html.erb" response.should have_selector("form", :method => 'post', :action => b_posts_path) do |form| # Nothing here yet. end end end Here is the relevant part of the output when I run script/spec: 'backend/posts/create.html.erb should render a form to create a post' FAILED expected following output to contain a <form method='post' action='/backend/posts'/> tag: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html40/loose.dtd"> <html><body><form action="/backend/posts" method="post"> </form></body></html> It would appear to me that what have_selector is looking for is exactly what the template generates, yet the example still fails. I am very much looking forward to seeing my error (because I have a feeling it is my error). Any help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Using iphone accelerometer AND UIEventSubtypeMotionShake event simultaneousluy.

    - by lukya
    Hi, I am using accelerometer to move/change things on the screen in my app. I also need to detect UIEventSubtypeMotionShake in the view controller for some other animations. As my app is a simple view based app, there is just one view controller which acts as UIAccelerometerDelegate AND FirstResponder (for detecting the shake event). After the first Shake gesture is detected, I don’t need accelerometer inputs through [accelerometer didAccelerate] method so I set the accelerometer delegate to nil. -(void)motionEnded:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (motion == UIEventSubtypeMotionShake) { NSLog(@"shake"); [[UIAccelerometer sharedAccelerometer] setDelegate:nil]; //my shake handling code } } The problem is that the first shake motion is not being detected correctly. I have to shake 2 3 or more times to trigger the UIEventSubtypeMotionShake event, while the subsequent shakes, after the accelerometer delegate is made nil, are being detected perfectly. This must be happening because UIEventSubtypeMotionShake in turn depends on the accelerometer didAccelerate events which are being overridden by my code. But I need to use both the events. Are there any apps or code samples which use both accelerometer and UIEventSubtypeMotionShake simultaneously? Thanks Swapnil

    Read the article

  • Mysql Powerdns issue when adding a new CName record

    - by Roland
    I'm trying to add a new CNAME record in PowerDNS to the mysql database, but my website does not want to show. When adding it in via Zone Admin it works, but as soon as I add the record as below it just does not want to work. Am I doing something wrong here. I checked if my record looks exactly the same in the DB as the record added with PowerDNS and it does. $type = 'CNAME'; //Adding the subdomain to the DNS database $sql = "insert into records " . "(domain_id, name,type,content,ttl,prio,change_date) values("; $sql .= $domain_id . ",'"; $sql .= trim($subdomain).".". trim($domain) . "','"; $sql .= trim($type) . "','"; $sql .= trim($domain) . "',"; $sql .= "3600,0,'".time()."')";

    Read the article

  • PerformancePoint dashboard permissions problem in MOSS

    - by Nathan DeWitt
    I have a PerformancePoint dashboard running in MOSS 2007 portal. The dashboard consists of one SSRS 2005 report, running in SharePoint Integrated mode. NT Authority\Authenticated Users have read permissions to the report library containing the SSRS report, the dashboard, and the report library containing the dashboard. Users that attempt to access the dashboard receive the following error message: The permissions granted to user 'DOMAIN\firstname.lastname' are insufficient for performing this operation. (rsAccessDenied) Users that then click on the direct link to the report in MOSS will see the report with no problem. Subsequent visits to the dashboard show the report with no problem. The report is using a data source that is located one folder up from the report location. The report has been updated to point to the correct shared data source after deployment. Both the report and the data source have been published. The data source is using stored credentials, with a domain service account that has been set to Use as Windows credentials. This service account is serving other reports in other areas with no problem. Edit: Ok, I've gotten a lot more information on this problem. The request is never actually being made to the data source. The user comes in to the dashboard and requests a report for the first time using their kerberos token identifying themselves. The report looks in the Report Server database and finds that they are not listed in the users table and generates this rsAccessDenied error. Once they view the report directly their name is in this table and they never have the problem again. Unfortunately, removing the user from the Users table in the RS database doesn't actually cause this error to happen again. Everything I've read says that when you run a Report Server in MOSS integrated mode all your permissions are handled at the MOSS report library level, and all Auth users have permissions to the report library, as stated earlier. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • .NET WF4: Should it be in the middle of everything?

    - by stimpy77
    I am aware that WF4 (Windows Workflow 4.0, part of .NET 4.0) is a significant rework and redesign of WF3, where much of what made WF3 a poor technology choice has been cleaned up in WF4. For example, as far as I can tell, WF4 (Windows Workflow 4.0) activities are more or less testable with [TestMethod] and mocking. This among other things, like improved performance, has grabbed my attention about the technology again, whereas I had previously pooh-poohed WF3. I'm working on a new architecture for essentially an n-tier collaborative application (not enterprise-class, just a smallish project with potential to grow significantly) where I'm already trying to discipline myself to use IoC and, to some extent, TDD, and I'm wondering, in general terms, whether it is wiser to just hand-code workflow logic or if I should delve into learning and integrating WF4 so that WF becomes literally the controller of the entire application, i.e. the practical C in "MVC" (not ASP.NET MVC but rather the pattern). So should workflow activities in WF4 be the primary controller for a highly expandable/growable web-based collaborative application? Or am I asking entirely the wrong question? This is a vague question, I'm sure, so abstract answers are as welcome as specific ones.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework with ASP.NET MVC. Updating entity problem

    - by Kitaly
    Hi people. I'm trying to update an entity and its related entities as well. For instance, I have a class Car with a property Category and I want to change its Category. So, I have the following methods in the Controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var categories = context.Categories.ToList(); ViewData["categories"] = new SelectList(categories, "Id", "Name"); var car = context.Cars.Where(c => c.Id == id).First(); return PartialView("Form", car); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { var category = context.Categories.Where(c => c.Id == car.Category.Id).First(); car.Category = category; context.UpdateCar(car); context.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } The UpdateCar method, in ObjectContext class, follows: public void UpdateCar(Car car) { var attachedCar = Cars.Where(c => c.Id == car.Id).First(); ApplyItemUpdates(attachedCar, car); } private void ApplyItemUpdates(EntityObject originalItem, EntityObject updatedItem) { try { ApplyPropertyChanges(originalItem.EntityKey.EntitySetName, updatedItem); ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(updatedItem, originalItem); } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } public void ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(IEntityWithRelationships newEntity, IEntityWithRelationships oldEntity) { foreach (var relatedEnd in oldEntity.RelationshipManager.GetAllRelatedEnds()) { var oldRef = relatedEnd as EntityReference; if (oldRef != null) { var newRef = newEntity.RelationshipManager.GetRelatedEnd(oldRef.RelationshipName, oldRef.TargetRoleName) as EntityReference; oldRef.EntityKey = newRef.EntityKey; } } } The problem is that when I set the Category property after the POST in my controller, the entity state changes to Added instead of remaining as Detached. How can I update one-to-one relationship with Entity Framework and ASP.NET MVC without setting all the properties, one by one like this post?

    Read the article

  • Importing MEF-Plugins into MVC Controllers

    - by Marks
    Hello. There are several examples of using MEF to plugin whole controller/view packages into a MVC application, but i didn't found one, using MEF to plugin funcional parts, used by other controllers. For example, think of a NewsService with a simple interface like interface INewsService { List<NewsItem> GetAllNews(); } That gets news wherever he wants, and returns them in a List of NewsItems. My page should load an exported INewsService and show the news on the page. But there is the problem. I cant just use [Import] in the controllers, as they are just created when they are needed. Edit: (Importing them to the main MVCApplication class doesn't work, becouse i cant access it from the controllers.) I think i found a way to access the main app via HttpContext.ApplicationInstance. But the Service object in this instance is null although it was created successfully in the Application_Start() method. Any idea why? So, how can i access the NewsService from within a controller? Thanks in advance, Marks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >