Search Results

Search found 13164 results on 527 pages for 'missing'.

Page 448/527 | < Previous Page | 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455  | Next Page >

• Migrating Ajax web application to web socket

  - by Bastan

  Hi, I think i'm just missing a little detail that is preventing me from seeing the whole picture. I have a web application which use ajax request every x time to update client with new information or tasks. I also have a long running process on the server which is a java computation engine. I would like this engine to send update to the client. I am wondering how to migrate my web app to using websocket. Probably phpwebsocket or similar. Can my server 'decide' to send information to a specific client? It seems possible looking at the php-websocket. Can my java backend long process use the websocket server to send notification to a specific client. How? well I can say that my java app could use a class that could send over websocket instead of http. But how the websocket server knows to which client to send the 'info'. I am puzzle by all this. Any document that explain this in more details? It seems that the websocket could create an instance of my web application. Thanks

  Read the article

• Why does this program require MSVCR80.dll and what's the best solution for this kinda problem?

  - by Runner

  #include <gtk/gtk.h> int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { GtkWidget *window; gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new (GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_widget_show (window); gtk_main (); return 0; } I tried putting various versions of MSVCR80.dll under the same directory as the generated executable(via cmake),but none matched. Is there a general solution for this kinda problem? UPDATE Some answers recommend install the VS redist,but I'm not sure whether or not it will affect my installed Visual Studio 9, can someone confirm? Manifest file of the executable <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"></requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type="win32" name="Microsoft.VC90.DebugCRT" version="9.0.21022.8" processorArchitecture="x86" publicKeyToken="1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b"></assemblyIdentity> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> It seems the manifest file says it should use the MSVCR90, why it always reporting missing MSVCR80.dll? FOUND After spending several hours on it,finally I found it's caused by this setting in PATH: D:\MATLAB\R2007b\bin\win32 After removing it all works fine.But why can that setting affect my running executable from using msvcr90 to msvcr80 ???

  Read the article

• Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

  - by Andrew Arrow

  Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

  Read the article

• How can I change the default startup directory for cmd.exe?

  - by Nano HE

  Hi. My Procedure last day as below Click Start, Run and type Regedit.exe Navigate to the following branch: HKEY_CURRENT_USER \ Software \ Microsoft \ Command Processor In the right-pane, double-click Autorun and set the startup folder path as its data, preceded by “CD /d “. If Autorun value is missing, you need to create one, of type REG_EXPAND_SZ or REG_SZ in the above location. Example: To set the startup directory to D:\learning\perl, set the Autorun value data to CD /d D:\learning\perl Then I clicked Start, run and type cmd. It successfully. I could do perl practice more conveniently now. But today, I find when I try to build my Visual Studio 2005 solution which included some Pre-build event Command like this: perl.exe MyAppVersion.pl perl.exe AttrScan.pl It doesn't work. Show error: can't find the path. I check the environment variable setting and find the variable-path and it's value-c:\perl\bin\; still exist. Finially, I try to removed the Regedit.exe configuration "Autorun" value and test again. The issue fixed. I only changed the default startup directory for cmd.exe command. Why the pre-build event perl command was impacted? (I am using winxp and activePerl 5.8)

  Read the article

• Ruby 1.9: turn these 4 arrays into hash of key/value pairs

  - by randombits

  I have four arrays that are coming in from the client. Let's say that there is an array of names, birth dates, favorite color and location. The idea is I want a hash later where each name will have a hash with respective attributes: Example date coming from the client: [name0, name1, name2, name3] [loc0, loc1] [favcololor0, favcolor1] [bd0, bd1, bd2, bd3, bd4, bd5] Output I'd like to achieve: name0 => { location => loc0, favcolor => favcolor0, bd => bd0 } name1 => { location => loc1, favcolor => favcolor1, bd => bd1 } name2 => { location => nil, favcolor => nil, bd => bd2 } name3 => { location => nil, favcolor => nil, bd => bd3 } I want to have an array at the end of the day where I can iterate and work on each particular person hash. There need not be an equivalent number of values in each array. Meaning, names are required.. and I might receive 5 of them, but I only might receive 3 birth dates, 2 favorite colors and 1 location. Every missing value will result in a nil. How does one make that kind of data structure with Ruby 1.9?

  Read the article

• Mixing has_one and has_and_belongs_to_many associations

  - by Thomas

  I'm trying to build a database of urls(links). I have a Category model that has and belongs to many Links. Here's the migration I ran: class CreateLinksCategories < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :links_categories, :id => false do |t| t.references :link t.references :category end end def self.down drop_table :links_categories end end Here's the Link model: class Link < ActiveRecord::Base validates :path, :presence => true, :format => { :with => /^(#{URI::regexp(%w(http https))})$|^$/ } validates :name, :presence => true has_one :category end Here's the category model: class Category < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :links end And here's the error the console kicked back when I tried to associate the first link with the first category: >>link = Link.first => #<Link id: 1, path: "http://www.yahoo.com", created_at: "2011-01-10... >>category = Category.first => #<category id : 1, name: "News Site", created_at: "2011-01-11... >>link.category << category => ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: SQLite3::Exception: no such column : categories.link_id: Are my associations wrong or am I missing something in the database? I expected it to find the links_categories table. Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• File upload issue

  - by Varun

  I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

  Read the article

• Why is a DataViewManager not sorting?

  - by Alarion

  First off, a quick rundown of what the code is doing. I have two tables: Companies and Clients. There is a one to many relationship between Companies and Clients (one company can have many clients). In some processing logic, I have both tables loaded into a DataSet - each are DataTables. I have added a DataRelation to set the relationship, and it works when I use GetChildRows on a record from the Companies table. However, I need to sort the records returned. After googling around some it looks like the DataViewManager is the way to go, and I have examined several basic examples. However, I cannot get my rows sorted. Am I missing something, or am I not using this how it is supposed to be used? Example code: Dim ldvmManager As New DataViewManager(mdsData) ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Sort = "comName ASC" ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").ApplyDefaultSort = False ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").Sort = "entLastName ASC, entFirstName ASC" For Each mdrCurrentCompany in ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Table.Rows Dim ldrClients() as DataRow = mdrCurrentCompany.GetChildRows("CompaniesClients") Next No matter what I do, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with a 'B' and the second has one that starts with a 'A'. From there, the order is all mixed up. If I use my entire data instead of the subset I was using to test with, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with 'J'. It seems like it is still using whatever default sort was being used before I tried to use the DataViewManager. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• How to delete ProgIDs from other user accounts when uninstalling from Windows?

  - by Mordachai

  I've been investigating "how should a modern windows c++ application register its file types" with Windows (see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828637/c-how-do-i-correctly-register-and-unregister-file-type-associations-for-our-ap). And having combed through the various MSDN articles on the subject, the summary appears to be as follows: The installer (elevated) should register the global ProgID HKLM\Software\Classes\my-app.my-doc[.version] (e.g. HKLM\Software\Classes\TextPad.text) The installer also configures default associations for its document types (e.g. .myext) and points this to the aforementioned global ProgID in HKLM. NOTE: a user interface should be provided here to allow the user to either accept all default associations, or to customize which associations should be set. The application, running standard (unelevated), should provide a UI for allowing the current user to set their personal associations as is available in the installer, except that these associations are stored in HKCU\Software\Classes (per user, not per machine). The UN-installer is then responsible for deleting all registered ProgIDs (but should leave the actual file associations alone, as Windows is smart enough to handle associations pointing to missing ProgIDs, and this is the specified desired behavior by MSDN). So that schema sounds reasonable to me, except when I consider #4: How does an uninstaller, running elevated for a given user account, delete any per-user ProgIDs created in step #3 for other users? As I understand things, even in elevated mode, an uninstaller cannot go into another user's registry hive and delete items? Or can it? Does it have to load each given user hive first? What are the rules here? Thanks for any insight you might have to offer! EDIT: See below for the solution (My question was founded in confusion)

  Read the article

• Has anyone ever successfully make index merge work for MySQL?

  - by user198729

  Setup: mysql> create table t(a integer unsigned,b integer unsigned); mysql> insert into t(a,b) values (1,2),(1,3),(2,4); mysql> create index i_t_a on t(a); mysql> create index i_t_b on t(b); mysql> explain select * from t where a=1 or b=4; +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | t | ALL | i_t_a,i_t_b | NULL | NULL | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ Is there something I'm missing? Update mysql> explain select * from t where a=1 or b=4; +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | t | ALL | i_t_a,i_t_b | NULL | NULL | NULL | 1863 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ Version: mysql> select version(); +----------------------+ | version() | +----------------------+ | 5.1.36-community-log | +----------------------+ Has anyone ever successfully make index merge work for MySQL? I'll be glad to see successful stories here:)

  Read the article

• Android Facebook RequestListener

  - by Marcus King

  I'm new to Java, but have been a .NET developer for years now and I am a bit confused about the point of the RequestListener object as I can't retrieve the results of my asynchronous calls on the UI thread from what I can tell. My research has told me I should not use singletons or the application context object for getting and storing data. I could use sqlLite, but the data I need is too transient to bother. I would like to know how to have the asyncfacebookrunner object report back it's responses to the UI thread so I can proceed to make decisions between my own api and the objects returned to me from the facebook calls I am making in the async calls. Am I missing something? I can't seem to find a way to get data out. I can pass a Bundle in, but I'm not too sure how to get data out. I would think I would pass it an Intent object to retrieve, but I am not seeing it. I think my eyes are crossed from lack of sleep at this point. Any help here?

  Read the article

• C# code simple console program not working

  - by Wast334

  I am trying to test some console ability in C#.. I can't get this code to work using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Dim myMessage; myMessage = @"Hello World"; printf(@"%@", myMessage); return 0; } } } I am getting a bunch of compiler errors i am not sure what I am doing wrong..? Error 1 The type or namespace name 'Dim' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Documents and Settings\wstevens\Local Settings\Application Data\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs 12 13 ConsoleApplication1 Error 2 The name 'printf' does not exist in the current context C:\Documents and Settings\wstevens\Local Settings\Application Data\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs 14 13 ConsoleApplication1 Error 3 Since 'ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(string[])' returns void, a return keyword must not be followed by an object expression C:\Documents and Settings\wstevens\Local Settings\Application Data\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs 15 13 ConsoleApplication1

  Read the article

• How to access a variable outside a function in Javascript

  - by Luke101

  Here is the code I am working with: $(document).ready(function () { var TemplateEditor = function () { var GroupClassName = 'group'; var SelectedGroup = 0; var BindClicks = function () { $('.CriteriaSelections').unbind('click').click(function (event) { event.preventDefault(); if (fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup($(this))) { TemplateEditor.GroupClicked(); } else { TemplateEditor.CriteriaClicked($(this), SelectedGroup); } }); $('.groupselected').unbind('click').click(function (event) { event.preventDefault(); SelectedGroup = $(this).attr('group-'.length); TemplateEditor.SelectGroup(SelectedGroup); }); } var fnGetGroupID = function (Obj) { if (fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup(Obj) == true) { return null; } else { //Get parent which is the group var ObjParent = Obj.parent(); var GID = ObjParent.attr('id').substr('group-'.length); return GID; } } var fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup = function (Obj) { var GetClass = Obj.attr('class'); if (GetClass == GroupClassName) { return true; } else { return false; } } return { Init: function () { BindClicks(); }, CriteriaClicked: function (Obj, GroupID) { $('<div>').attr({ id: '' }).addClass('selection').text(Obj).appendTo('#group-' + GroupID); }, GroupClicked: function () { }, SelectGroupClicked: function () { }, UpdateTargetPanel: function () { } }; } (); TemplateEditor.Init(); }); I am trying to access this variable: GroupClassName This variable is inside this function var fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup = function (Obj) { var GetClass = Obj.attr('class'); if (GetClass == GroupClassName) { return true; } else { return false; } } When I run the program it says GroupClassName is undefined. Am I missing something here?

  Read the article

• WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

  - by d3j4vu

  I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

  Read the article

• dynamic inheritance without touching classes

  - by Jasper

  I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

  Read the article

• Windows Workflow Foundation 4.0 Designer Rehosting with Custom Activities

  - by Robert

  I have several WF 4.0 workflows that I have created for an application my company is developing. Some of these workflows are simple, and some are very complex (i.e. many steps, several different types of activities, custom activities). For many of these workflows, I have created several custom code activities to support some internal process types. The workflows work great and we have had very few problems when it comes to maintaining them within VS 2010. We now want to move that responsibility off to our business users, so I have created a WPF application to rehost the WF designer (according to the MS samples). My problem is that when I open one of the workflows that contains custom code activities, those activities are represented as red boxes with the error message of "Activity could not be loaded because of errors in XAML." I have done research and have found several posts that mention that this is usually a problem with namespacing and referencing. The rehosted designer is in a namespace similar to this: Company.Application.Workflow.Designer And the custom code activities are contained within a separate custom workflow library, which I have included as a reference in the designer project. The library's namespace is similar to this: Company.Application.Workflow.Data.Activities As I have mentioned, the library is set as a reference in the designer's project, and I see it being copied to the output when I build the project. I have also included the reference in the XAML of the main designed application. What am I missing?

  Read the article

• Matching Class arrays

  - by frinkz

  I'm writing a routine to invoke methods, found by a name and an array of parameter Class values Matching the Method by getName works, but when trying to match the given Class[] for parameters, and Method.getParameterTypes(), I'm having trouble. I assumed that this would work: Class[] searchParams = new Class[] { float.class, String.class }; Class[] methodParams = m.getParameterTypes(); if(methodParams == searchParams) { m.invoke(this, paramValues); } But apparantly not - m.invoke is never reached. I've checked, and methodParams gives the same classes as searchParams. The code below works, and picks the right method, but it seems like a very dirty way of doing things, I'm sure I'm missing something obvious. Class[] searchParams = new Class[] { float.class, String.class }; Class[] methodParams = m.getParameterTypes(); boolean isMatch = true; for(int i = 0; i < searchParams.length; i++) { if(!searchParams.getClass().equals(methodParams.getClass())) { isMatch = false; } } if(isMatch) { m.invoke(this, paramValues); }

  Read the article

• How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

  - by kazanaki

  Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

  Read the article

• Good functions and techniques for dealing with haskell tuples?

  - by toofarsideways

  I've been doing a lot of work with tuples and lists of tuples recently and I've been wondering if I'm being sensible. Things feel awkward and clunky which for me signals that I'm doing something wrong. For example I've written three convenience functions for getting the first, second and third value in a tuple of 3 values. Is there a better way I'm missing? Are there more general functions that allow you to compose and manipulate tuple data? Here are some things I am trying to do that feel should be generalisable. Extracting values: Do I need to create a version of fst,snd,etc... for tuples of size two, three, four and five, etc...? fst3(x,_,_) = x fst4(x,_,_,_) = x Manipulating values: Can you increment the last value in a list of pairs and then use that same function to increment the last value in a list of triples? Zipping and Unzipping values: There is a zip and a zip3. Do I also need a zip4? or is there some way of creating a general zip function? Sorry if this seems subjective, I honestly don't know if this is even possible or if I'm wasting my time writing 3 extra functions every time I need a general solution. Thank you for any help you can give!

  Read the article

• Why onCreate() calling multiple times when i use Thread()?

  - by RajaReddy PolamReddy

  In my app i faced a problem with threads. i am using native code in my app. i try to load library and then calling native functions from the android code. 1. By using Threads() : PjsuaThread pjsuaThread = new PjsuaThread(); pjsuaThread.start(); thread code class PjsuaThread extends Thread { public void run() { if (pjsua_app.initApp() != 0) { // native function calling return; } else { } pjsua_app.startPjsua(ApjsuaActivity.CFG_FNAME); // native function calling finished = true; } When i use code like this, onCreate() function calling multiple times and able to load library and calling some functions properly, after some seconds onCreate calling again because of that it's crashing. 2. Using AsyncTask(): And also i used AsyncTask< for this requirement, it's crashing the application( crashing in lib code ). not able to open any functions class SipTask extends AsyncTask<Void, String, Void> { protected Void doInBackground(Void... args) { if (pjsua_app.initApp() != 0) { return null; } else { } pjsua_app.startPjsua(ApjsuaActivity.CFG_FNAME); finished = true; return null; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result) { super.onPostExecute(result); Log.i(TAG, "On POst "); } } What is annoying is that in most cases it is not the missing library, it's tried to able to load the lib crashing in between. any one know the reason ?

  Read the article

• Code Analysis Warning CA1004 with generic method

  - by Vaccano

  I have the following generic method: // Load an object from the disk public static T DeserializeObject<T>(String filename) where T : class { XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); try { TextReader textReader = new StreamReader(filename); var result = (T)xmlSerializer.Deserialize(textReader); textReader.Close(); return result; } catch (FileNotFoundException) { } return null; } When I compile I get the following warning: CA1004 : Microsoft.Design : Consider a design where 'MiscHelpers.DeserializeObject(string)' doesn't require explicit type parameter 'T' in any call to it. I have considered this and I don't know a way to do what it requests with out limiting the types that can be deserialized. I freely admit that I might be missing an easy way to fix this. But if I am not, then is my only recourse to suppress this warning? I have a clean project with no warnings or messages. I would like to keep it that way. I guess I am asking "why this is a warning?" At best this seems like it should be a message. And even that seems a bit much. Either it can or it can't be fixed. If it can't then you are just stuck with the warning with no recourse but suppressing it. Am I wrong?

  Read the article

• html in do_GET() method of a simple Python webserver

  - by Meeri_Peeri

  I am relatively new to Python but have been doing a lot of different things with it recently and I am liking it a lot. However, I ran into trouble/block with the following code. import http.server import socketserver import glob import random class Server(http.server.SimpleHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): self.send_response(200, 'OK') self.send_header('Content-type', 'html') self.end_headers() self.wfile.write(bytes("<html> <head><title> Hello World </title> </head> <body>", 'UTF-8')) images = glob.glob('*.jpg') rand = random.randint(0,len(images)-1) imagestring = "<img src = \"" + images[rand] + "\" height = 1028 width = 786 align = \"right\"/> </body> </html>" self.wfile.write(bytes(imagestring, 'UTF-8')) def serve_forever(port): socketserver.TCPServer(('', port), Server).serve_forever() if __name__ == "__main__": Server.serve_forever(8000) What I am trying to do here is grab a random image from multiple images in the directory and add it into the response to a web request. The code works fine but when I access the server via browser, the image is not displayed. The html of the page is as intended though. The permissions on the files are 755. Also I tried to create an index.html file in the do_GET method. That didn't work either. I mean the index.html was generated fine, but the response in the browser this time did not show anything (not even the hello world in the title). Am I missing anything very simple here? I was thinking should I overload the handle_request of the underlying SocketServer.BaseServer as the documentation says you should never override BaseHTTPServer's handle() method and should rather override the corresponding do_* method?

  Read the article

• C++ class with char pointers returning garbage

  - by JMP

  I created a class "Entry" to handle Dictionary entries, but in my main(), I create the Entry() and try to cout the char typed public members, but I get garbage. When I look at the Watch list in debugger, I see the values being set, but as soon as I access the values, there is garbage. Can anyone elaborate on what I might be missing? #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Entry { public: Entry(const char *line); char *Word; char *Definition; }; Entry::Entry(const char *line) { char tmp[100]; strcpy(tmp, line); Word = strtok(tmp, ",") + '\0'; Definition = strtok(0,",") + '\0'; } int main() { Entry *e = new Entry("drink,What you need after a long day's work"); cout << "Word: " << e->Word << endl; cout << "Def: " << e->Definition << endl; cout << endl; delete e; e = 0; return 0; }

  Read the article

• PHP extend a class method that is called from another class which extends it and calls the method wi

  - by dan.codes

  I am trying to extend a class and override one of its methods. lets call that class A. My class, class B, is overiding a protected method. Class C extends class A and Class D extends class C. Inside of Class D, the method I am trying to overwrite is also extended here and that calls parent::mymethodimoverriding. That method does not exist in class C so it goes to it in class A. That is the method I am overiding in class B and obviously you can't extend A with B and have those changes show up in D since it does not fall in line with the class hierarchy. I might be wrong, so correct me please. so if my class b is called and ran then class D gets called it runs the method in A and overwrites what I had set. I am thinking there must be a way to get this to work, I am just missing something. here is an example, as you can see in class A there is a call to setTitle and it is set to "Example" In my class I set it to "NewExample". My class is getting called before class D so when class D is called it goes back to the parent and sets the title back to "Example" class A{ protected function _thefunction(){ setTitle("Example"); } } class B extends A{ protected function _thefunction(){ My new code here setTitle("NewExample"); } } class C extends A{ nothing that matters in here for what I am doing } class D extends C{ protected function _thefunction(){ parent::_thefunction(); additional code here } }

  Read the article

• Are Thread.stop and friends ever safe in Java?

  - by Stephen C

  The stop(), suspend(), and resume() in java.lang.Thread are deprecated because they are unsafe. The Sun recommended work around is to use Thread.interrupt(), but that approach doesn't work in all cases. For example, if you are call a library method that doesn't explicitly or implicitly check the interrupted flag, you have no choice but to wait for the call to finish. So, I'm wondering if it is possible to characterize situations where it is (provably) safe to call stop() on a Thread. For example, would it be safe to stop() a thread that did nothing but call find(...) or match(...) on a java.util.regex.Matcher? (If there are any Sun engineers reading this ... a definitive answer would be really appreciated.) EDIT: Answers that simply restate the mantra that you should not call stop() because it is deprecated, unsafe, whatever are missing the point of this question. I know that that it is genuinely unsafe in the majority of cases, and that if there is a viable alternative you should always use that instead. This question is about the subset cases where it is safe. Specifically, what is that subset?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455  | Next Page >