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• Swing GUI using JNI crashes

  - by Div

  Hi, A java swing application(GUI) using JNI code to communicate with native C code. The Swing application launches properly and works fine. The GUI is used to start some customized system level tests(io,memory,cpu) and show their progress. The tests have to be left running at-least overnight to get the results. But, the next morning, GUI crashes and throws following message. Any pointers on source of the issue will be greatly appreciated. Java version: java 1.5 / java 1.6 OS: Solaris 10. Thanks, Div =============MESSAGES================== # uname -a SunOS Generic_127127-11 sun4v sparc SUNW, # # # # An unexpected error has been detected by HotSpot Virtual Machine: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0xff268924, pid=9473, tid=272 # # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (1.5.0_14-b03 mixed mode) # Problematic frame: # C [libc.so.1+0x68924] strstr+0x20 # # An error report file with more information is saved as hs_err_pid9473.log # # If you would like to submit a bug report, please visit: # HotSpot Virtual Machine Error Reporting Page # ============================= Another machine: # A fatal error has been detected by the Java Runtime Environment: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0xff231fd0, pid=1406, tid=180 # # JRE version: 6.0_18-b07 # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (16.0-b13 mixed mode solaris-sparc ) # Problematic frame: # C [libc.so.1+0x31fd0] strcpy+0x70 # # An error report file with more information is saved as: # /usr/sunvts/bin/hs_err_pid1406.log #

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• Question about compilers and how they work

  - by Marin Doric

  This is the C code that frees memory of a singly linked list. It is compiled with Visual C++ 2008 and code works as it should be. /* Program done, so free allocated memory */ current = head; struct film * temp; temp = current; while (current != NULL) { temp = current->next; free(current); current = temp; } But I also encountered ( even in a books ) same code written like this: /* Program done, so free allocated memory */ current = head; while (current != NULL) { free(current); current = current->next; } If I compile that code with my VC++ 2008, program crashes because I am first freeing current and then assigning current-next to current. But obviously if I compile this code with some other complier ( for example, compiler that book author used ) program will work. So question is, why does this code compiled with specific compiler work? Is it because that compiler put instructions in binary file that remember address of current-next although I freed current and my VC++ doesn't. I just want to understand how compilers work.

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• Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

  - by Bob

  What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

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• Set ContentTemplate in CodeBehind: XamlParseException 2260 Error

  - by user362215

  Hi, I'd like to change the ContentTemplate of a ContentPresenter in the CodeBehind file. But if I run the Silverlight 4 application a XamlParseException with the error code 2260 occures. foreach (ContentPresenter item in Headers) { item.ContentTemplate = Parent.UnselectedHeaderTemplate; } if ((index >= 0) && (index < Headers.Count)) { ContentPresenter item0 = (ContentPresenter)Headers[index]; item0.ContentTemplate = Parent.SelectedHeaderTemplate; } If I do only the foreach code without the code in the "if", it works. And if I only do the code in the "if" without the foreach it works too. But togheter (the "if"-code and the foreach-code) it doesn't work. I have no idea why it doesn't work. The two templates look like this: <Setter Property="UnselectedHeaderTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <DataTemplate> <ContentControl Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=Content}" Margin="10,-10" FontSize="72" Foreground="#FF999999" CacheMode="BitmapCache"/> </DataTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <!-- SelectedHeader template --> <Setter Property="SelectedHeaderTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <DataTemplate> <ContentControl Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=Content}" Margin="10,-10" FontSize="72" Foreground="{TemplateBinding Foreground}" CacheMode="BitmapCache"/> </DataTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> If you have an idea what problem is please tell me.

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• Who likes #regions in Visual Studio?

  - by Nicholas

  Personally I can't stand region tags, but clearly they have wide spread appeal for organizing code, so I want to test the temperature of the water for other MS developer's take on this idea. My personal feeling is that any sort of silly trick to simplify code only acts to encourage terrible coding behavior, like lack of cohesion, unclear intention and poor or incomplete coding standards. One programmer told me that code regions helped encourage coding standards by making it clear where another programmer should put his or her contributions. But, to be blunt, this sounds like a load of horse manure to me. If you have a standard, it is the programmer's job to understand what that standard is... you should't need to define it in every single class file. And, nothing is more annoying than having all of your code collapsed when you open a file. I know that cntrl + M, L will open everything up, but then you have the hideous "hash region definition" open and closing lines to read. They're just irritating. My most stead fast coding philosophy is that all programmer should strive to create clear, concise and cohesive code. Region tags just serve to create noise and redundant intentions. Region tags would be moot in a well thought out and intentioned class. The only place they seem to make sense to me, is in automatically generated code, because you should never have to read that outside of personal curiosity.

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• What is wrong with accessing DBI directly?

  - by canavanin

  Hi everyone! I'm currently reading Effective Perl Programming (2nd edition). I have come across a piece of code which was described as being poorly written, but I don't yet understand what's so bad about it, or how it should be improved. It would be great if someone could explain the matter to me. Here's the code in question: sub sum_values_per_key { my ( $class, $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ) = @_; my %results; my $dbh = DBI->connect( $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ); my $sth = $dbh->prepare( 'select key, calculate(value) from my_table'); $sth->execute(); # ... fill %results ... $sth->finish(); $dbh->disconnect(); return \%results; } The example comes from the chapter on testing your code (p. 324/325). The sentence that has left me wondering about how to improve the code is the following: Since the code was poorly written and accesses DBI directly, you'll have to create a fake DBI object to stand in for the real thing. I have probably not understood a lot of what the book has so far been trying to teach me, or I have skipped the section relevant for understanding what's bad practice about the above code... Well, thanks in advance for your help!

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• "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

  - by sam

  I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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• .change(function) can control two command

  - by klox

  dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

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• GridView will not update underlying data source

  - by John Christensen

  So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

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• Coding Practices which enable the compiler/optimizer to make a faster program.

  - by EvilTeach

  Many years ago, C compilers were not particularly smart. As a workaround K&R invented the register keyword, to hint to the compiler, that maybe it would be a good idea to keep this variable in an internal register. They also made the tertiary operator to help generate better code. As time passed, the compilers matured. They became very smart in that their flow analysis allowing them to make better decisions about what values to hold in registers than you could possibly do. The register keyword became unimportant. FORTRAN can be faster than C for some sorts of operations, due to alias issues. In theory with careful coding, one can get around this restriction to enable the optimizer to generate faster code. What coding practices are available that may enable the compiler/optimizer to generate faster code? Identifying the platform and compiler you use, would be appreciated. Why does the technique seem to work? Sample code is encouraged. Here is a related question [Edit] This question is not about the overall process to profile, and optimize. Assume that the program has been written correctly, compiled with full optimization, tested and put into production. There may be constructs in your code that prohibit the optimizer from doing the best job that it can. What can you do to refactor that will remove these prohibitions, and allow the optimizer to generate even faster code? [Edit] Offset related link

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• how to return response from post in a variable? jQuery

  - by robertdd

  i use this function to return the response of post: $.sendpost = function(){ return jQuery.post('inc/operations.php', {'operation':'test'}, "json"); }, i want to make something like this: in: $.another = function(){ var sendpost = $.sendpost(); alert(sendpost); } but i get: [object XMLHttpRequest] if i print the object with: jQuery.each(sendpost, function(i, val) { $(".displaydetails").append(i + " => " + val + "<br/>"); }); i get: details abort => function () { x && h.call(x); g("abort"); } dispatchEvent => function dispatchEvent() { [native code] } removeEventListener => function removeEventListener() { [native code] } open => function open() { [native code] } setRequestHeader => function setRequestHeader() { [native code] } onreadystatechange => [xpconnect wrapped nsIDOMEventListener] send => function send() { [native code] } readyState => 4 status => 200 getResponseHeader => function getResponseHeader() { [native code] } responseText => mdaaa from php how to return only the response in the variable?

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• Strange problem with PHP and sessions

  - by Jhorra

  So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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• How to overcome the programmer's block ?

  - by Nicolas Dorier

  How do you do when, during the development of your application, you can't decide yourself what to do next. You have no problem technically speaking, you have no problem to write clean code BUT you have a problem to decide yourself on what to code now. And you spend time thinking and thinking again on your design, in the car, in the shower, and you cannot write a single line of code... I think we call this "analysis paralysis". I hate being in this state ! How can you avoid this ? How do you do to not fall in this state ? I think this occurs when we are writting a big chunk of code with no visible improvement, but I'm not sure... UPDATE Like some of you said, this problem is also what we call the "programmer's block" (analogy with the writer's block). Doing some TDD doesn't help because I'm stuck, I can't decide myself what class to code, what methods to put inside (even a name of method). Though I admit that it helps to break a big chunk of code into smaller ones. Like Talesh said my head becomes full of "what-if".

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• Uploading a file fails under WordPress

  - by Ash

  I'm using WordPress and I'm following W3's guide for uploading a file: HTML code: <html> <body> <form action="upload_file.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <label for="file">Filename:</label> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> PHP code (upload_file.php): <?php if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] > 0) { echo "Error: " . $_FILES["file"]["error"] . "<br />"; } else { echo "Upload: " . $_FILES["file"]["name"] . "<br />"; echo "Type: " . $_FILES["file"]["type"] . "<br />"; echo "Size: " . ($_FILES["file"]["size"] / 1024) . " Kb<br />"; echo "Stored in: " . $_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"]; } ?> The HTML code is pasted in a PHP page template and the PHP file under the WP installation directory under www. The problem is when I submit the file I get Error: 1. If I remark the "if" part of the PHP code and leave the "else" part I get: Upload: IMG_4258.JPG Type: Size: 0 Kb Stored in: So at least I know the PHP code is running. But what's causing it to fail? Is there a problem with the code or is WordPress meddling with the process?

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• Memory efficient collection class

  - by Joe

  I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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• ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

  - by Allen E. Scharfenberg

  Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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• getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

  - by ideagent

  I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

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• Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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• Error occurs while validating form input using jQuery in Firebug

  - by Param-Ganak

  I have written a custom validation code in jQuery, which is working fine. I have a login form which has two fields, i.e. userid and password. I have written a custom code for client side validation for these fields. This code is working fine and gives me proper error messages as per the situation. But the problem with this code is that when I enter the invalid data in any or both field and press submit button of form then it displays the proper error message but at the same time when I checked it in Firebug it displays following error message when submit button of the form is clicked validate is not defined function onclick(event) { javascript: return validate(); } (click clientX=473, clientY=273) Here is the JQUERY validation code $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_login_form").validate({ rules: { userid: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 20, // basic: true }, password: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 15, // basic: true } }, messages: { userid: { required: " Please enter the username.", minlength: "User Name should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "User Name should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here" }, password: { required: " Please enter the password.", minlength: "Password should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "Password should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here too.", } }, errorClass: "errortext", errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox" } }); }); /* $.validator.addMethod('username_alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'User name should be alphabetic or Alphanumeric and may contain . and _.'); $.validator.addMethod('alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![a-zA-Z]+$)(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9]+$/.test(value); }, 'Password should be Alphanumeric.'); $.validator.addMethod('basic', function (value) { return /^[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'working working working'); */ So please tell me where is I am wrong in my jQuery code. Thank You!

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• Cannot use Java 7 instalation if Java 8 is installed

  - by Sebastien Diot

  I normally still use Java 7 for all my coding projects (it's a company "politics" issue), but I installed Java 8 for one third-party project I am contributing to. Now, it seems I cannot have Java 8 installed in Windows 7 x64, and still use Java 7 by default: C:\>"%JAVA_HOME%\bin\java.exe" -version java version "1.7.0_55" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_55-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 24.55-b03, mixed mode) C:\>java.exe -version java version "1.8.0_05" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.8.0_05-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 25.5-b02, mixed mode) As you can see, JAVA_HOME is completely ignored. I also have Java in the path, using "%JAVA_HOME%\bin", which resolve correctly to Java 7 when I check the path in a DOS box, but it still makes no difference. I checked in the "Java Control Panel" (not sure if this affects the default command-line Java version). Under the "Java" tab, the "View..." button, you get to see "registered" Java versions. I can add all the versions under the "User" tab, but under "System" there is only Java 8, and no way to change it. Am I missing something, or did Oracle just make it impossible to use Java 7, unless I de-install Java 8? I don't want to have to specify the "source" and "target" everywhere, and I don't even know if it is possible for me to specify it everywhere, where Java is used. EDIT: What I did is I de-installed all Java. Then installed the latest Java7 (both 86 and x64), and then the latest Java8 (both 86 and x64). After I did that, I noticed that the x64 JDK was gone. It seems Java8 killed it. So I re-installed the JDK 7 x64, after the JDK 8 x64. Still, JDK7 x64 did not seem to "replace" the "java.exe" which is copied into the "Windows" directory itself (I assume THAT is the problem).

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• C++ Matrix class hierachy

  - by bpw1621

  Should a matrix software library have a root class (e.g., MatrixBase) from which more specialized (or more constrained) matrix classes (e.g., SparseMatrix, UpperTriangluarMatrix, etc.) derive? If so, should the derived classes be derived publicly/protectively/privately? If not, should they be composed with a implementation class encapsulating common functionality and be otherwise unrelated? Something else? I was having a conversation about this with a software developer colleague (I am not per se) who mentioned that it is a common programming design mistake to derive a more restricted class from a more general one (e.g., he used the example of how it was not a good idea to derive a Circle class from an Ellipse class as similar to the matrix design issue) even when it is true that a SparseMatrix "IS A" MatrixBase. The interface presented by both the base and derived classes should be the same for basic operations; for specialized operations, a derived class would have additional functionality that might not be possible to implement for an arbitrary MatrixBase object. For example, we can compute the cholesky decomposition only for a PositiveDefiniteMatrix class object; however, multiplication by a scalar should work the same way for both the base and derived classes. Also, even if the underlying data storage implementation differs the operator()(int,int) should work as expected for any type of matrix class. I have started looking at a few open-source matrix libraries and it appears like this is kind of a mixed bag (or maybe I'm looking at a mixed bag of libraries). I am planning on helping out with a refactoring of a math library where this has been a point of contention and I'd like to have opinions (that is unless there really is an objective right answer to this question) as to what design philosophy would be best and what are the pros and cons to any reasonable approach.

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• Efficiency of manually written loops vs operator overloads (C++)

  - by Sagekilla

  Hi all, in the program I'm working on I have 3-element arrays, which I use as mathematical vectors for all intents and purposes. Through the course of writing my code, I was tempted to just roll my own Vector class with simple +, -, *, /, etc overloads so I can simplify statements like: for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) r[i] = r1[i] - r2[i]; // becomes: r = r1 - r2; Which should be more or less identical in generated code. But when it comes to more complicated things, could this really impact my performance heavily? One example that I have in my code is this: Manually written version: for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { p.vel[j] = p.oldVel[j] + (p.oldAcc[j] + p.acc[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk[j] - p.jerk[j]) * dt12; p.pos[j] = p.oldPos[j] + (p.oldVel[j] + p.vel[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc[j] - p.acc[j]) * dt12; } Using a Vector class with operator overloads: p.vel = p.oldVel + (p.oldAcc + p.acc) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk - p.jerk) * dt12; p.pos = p.oldPos + (p.oldVel + p.vel) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc - p.acc) * dt12; I am compiling my code for maximum possible speed, as it's extremely important that this code runs quickly and calculates accurately. So will me relying on my Vector's for these sorts of things really affect me? For those curious, this is part of some numerical integration code which is not trivial to run in my program. Any insight would be appreciated, as would any idioms or tricks I'm unaware of.

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• Controlling the alpha of a UIImageView with Slider ..Can' t get it

  - by user1824839

  first i' d like to say this Forum was really helpfull for me that just started coding some weeks ago .. I succeed to do a quite nice app for the moment , than, but i m stuck on this : HOW COULD I CONTROL THE ALPHA OF A UIIMAGEVIEW , WITH A SLIDER EMBEDED IN ANOTHER VIEW ??? ; Basically i' like to do like the alpha slider of this : http://www.edumobile.org/iphone/how-to-make-an-app-2/controlling-a-uiviews-properties-for-ipad/ , but for a UIImageView. I promised i searched for hours , and didnt find how to do it ... Could someone have some minutes to give me ideas ?? Sorry for my poor english too. Thanks if you can. L. The resume of the link i posted, only focussing on the alpha property would be : ( considering a UIView ( View ) embeded in a ViewController ( ViewController ): enter code here ----View.h----- @interface View : UIView @property ( nonatomic, assign ) CGFloat alpha; @end enter code here ----View.m---- @implementation View @synthesize alpha; ?} @end enter code here ------ViewController.h----- import "View.h" @interface ViewController : UIViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet View *view; ?- (IBAction)alphaChanged:(UISlider *)sender; @end enter code here -------ViewController.m------ @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize view; (View *)view {?     if (!view) {?        view = [[View alloc] init];?    }?    return view;?} enter code here (IBAction)redChanged:(UISlider *)sender? {?    self.circle.alpha = sender.value;?    [self.circle setNeedsDisplay];?} (void)viewDidLoad ?{?    [super viewDidLoad];?         ?    self.circle.alpha = (CGFloat)1;?} (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning? {?  [super didReceiveMemoryWarning];?    @end enter code here

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• Shuffle Two NSMutableArray independently

  - by Superman

  I'm creating two NSMutableArray in my viewDidLoad, I add it in a NSMutableDictionary. When I tried shuffling it with one array, It is okay. But the problem is when Im shuffling two arrays independently its not working,somehow the indexes got mixed up. Here is my code for my array (I have two of these): self.items1 = [NSMutableArray new]; for(int i = 0; i <= 100; i++) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *savedImagePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"[Images%d.png", i]]; if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:savedImagePath]){ self.container = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [container setObject:[UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:savedImagePath] forKey:@"items1"]; [container setObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:i] forKey:@"index1"]; [items1 addObject:container]; } } NSLog(@"Count : %d", [items1 count]); [items1 enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id object, NSUInteger index, BOOL *stop) { NSLog(@"%@ images at index %d", object, index); }]; then my shuffle code(Which I tried duplicating for the other array,but not working also): srandom(time(NULL)); NSUInteger count = [items1 count]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < count; ++i) { int nElements = count - i; int n = (random() % nElements) + i; [items1 exchangeObjectAtIndex:i withObjectAtIndex:n]; } How am I going to shuffle it using above code (or if you have other suggestions) with two arrays? Thanks My other problem is when I tries subclassing the class for the shuffle method or either use the above code, their index mixed. For example: Object: apple, ball, carrots, dog Indexes: 1 2 3 4 but in my View when shuffled: Object: carrots, apple, dog, balle Indexes: 2 4 1 3

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