Search Results

Search found 62161 results on 2487 pages for 'set difference'.

Page 450/2487 | < Previous Page | 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457  | Next Page >

  • Visual Studio internal project references not always working

    - by Chris
    I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

    Read the article

  • overridePendingTransition doesn't work

    - by Ixx
    Have found already some people asking the same, but the solutions didn't work for me. I see no animation. Calling it this way: Intent intent = new Intent(this, MyActivity.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); fadein.xml and fadeout.xml are in the anim folder: fadein.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="0.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="1.0" /> </set> fadeout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="1.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="0.0" /> </set> Using min. API 7: manifest: <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> API 7 is also in my project.properties file: target=android-7 What am I doing wrong? P.D. Removing the lines with the interpolator doesn't change anything. Already seen / tried: overridePendingTransition doesn't work overridePendingTransition does not work when flag_activity_reorder_to_front is used Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Activity transition in Android

    Read the article

  • Clarification/explanation of RegisterClientScriptInclude method

    - by mpminnich
    I've been looking on the Internet for a fairly clear explanation of the different methods of registering javascript in an asp.net application. I think I have a basic understating of the difference between registerStartupScript and registerClientScriptBlock (the main difference being where in the form the script is inserted). I'm not sure I understand what the RegisterClientScriptInclude method does or when it is used. From what I can gather, it is used to register an external .js file. Does this then make any and all javascript functions in that file available to the aspx page it was registered on? For example, if it was registered in the onLoad event of a master page, would all pages using that master page be able to use the javascript functions in the .js file? What problems would arise when trying to use document.getElementById in this case, if any? Also, when it is necessary/advantageous to use multiple .js files and register them separately? I appreciate any help you can give. If you know of any really good resources I can use to get a thorough understanding of this concept, I'd appreciate it!

    Read the article

  • Point covering problem

    - by Sean
    I recently had this problem on a test: given a set of points m (all on the x-axis) and a set n of lines with endpoints [l, r] (again on the x-axis), find the minimum subset of n such that all points are covered by a line. Prove that your solution always finds the minimum subset. The algorithm I wrote for it was something to the effect of: (say lines are stored as arrays with the left endpoint in position 0 and the right in position 1) algorithm coverPoints(set[] m, set[][] n): chosenLines = [] while m is not empty: minX = min(m) bestLine = n[0] for i=1 to length of n: if n[i][0] <= m and n[i][1] > bestLine[1] then bestLine = n[i] add bestLine to chosenLines for i=0 to length of m: if m <= bestLine[1] then delete m[i] from m return chosenLines I'm just not sure if this always finds the minimum solution. It's a simple greedy algorithm so my gut tells me it won't, but one of my friends who is much better than me at this says that for this problem a greedy algorithm like this always finds the minimal solution. For proving mine always finds the minimal solution I did a very hand wavy proof by contradiction where I made an assumption that probably isn't true at all. I forget exactly what I did. If this isn't a minimal solution, is there a way to do it in less than something like O(n!) time? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Adding new records in Access without wrecking the form

    - by Matt Parker
    I'm working on a simple Access 2003 application to keep track of things that need to be done for clients for some colleagues. Each colleague has a set of clients, and each client has a set of actions that need to be taken by a certain date. I've set up a form that consists of a combobox for client ID (indexed), a drop-down for the person who is handling that client's case, and a button for adding new clients (a standard Access-created Add Record button). The actions are listed in a subform below these three elements. The problem I've run into is that the first person I tested this on clicked the button to add a new record, then didn't fill it out and tried to select another client from the drop-down list. Access interprets this as an attempt to set the selected Client ID as the ID for the new record and rightfully throws an error for duplicate primary keys. I can think of a couple of ways around this problem, but I'd much rather hear your elegant solutions than kludge together some junk in a language I don't know. Let me know if you have any questions. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Expressjs route param as variable in main app

    - by MoDFoX
    For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

    Read the article

  • find nearest match to array of doubles

    - by Scott
    Given the code below, how do I compare a List of objects's values with a test value? I'm building a geolocation application. I'll be passing in longitude and latitude and would like to have the service answer back with the location closest to those values. I started down the path of converting to a string, and formatting the values down to two decimal places, but that seemed a bit too ghetto, and I'm looking for a more elegant solution. public class Location : IEnumerable { public string label { get; set; } public double lat { get; set; } public double lon { get; set; } //Implement IEnumerable public IEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return (IEnumerator)this; } } [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { private List<Location> myList = new List<Location> { new Location { label="Atlanta Midtown", lon=33.657674, lat=-84.423130}, new Location { label="Atlanta Airport", lon=33.794151, lat=-84.387228}, new Location { label="Stamford, CT", lon=41.053758, lat=-73.530979}, ... } public static int Main(String[] args) { string inLat = "-80.987654"; double dblInLat = double.Parse(inLat); // here's where I would like to find the closest location to the inLat // once I figure out this, I'll implement the Longitude, and I'll be set }

    Read the article

  • How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

    - by deeviate
    I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

    Read the article

  • scala 2.8 CanBuildFrom

    - by oxbow_lakes
    Following on from another question I asked, I wanted to understand a bit more about the Scala method TraversableLike[A].map whose signature is as follows: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That Notice a few things about this method: it takes a function turning each A in the traversable into a B it returns That and takes an implicit argument of type CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That] I can call this as follows: > val s: Set[Int] = List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) s: Set[Int] Set(5,6) What I cannot quite grasp is how the fact that That is bound to B (i.e. it is some collection of B's) is being enforced by the compiler. The type parameters look to be independent in both the signature above and in the signature of the trait CanBuildFrom itself: trait CanBuildFrom[-From, -Elem, +To] How is the scala compiler ensuring that That cannot be forced into something which does not make sense? > val s: Set[String] = List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) //will not compile EDIT - this question of course boils down to: How does the compiler decide what implicit CanBuildFrom objects are in scope for the call?

    Read the article

  • help me to choose between two designs

    - by alex
    // stupid title, but I could not think anything smarter I have a code (see below, sorry for long code but it's very-very simple): namespace Option1 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public AuxClass1 AuxClass { get { return _auxClass; } set { _auxClass = value; } } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } namespace Option2 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public string Field1 { get { return _auxClass.Field1; } set { _auxClass.Field1 = value; } } public void Method1() { _auxClass.Method1(); } public void Method2() { _auxClass.Method2(); } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Option1 Option1.MainClass mainClass1 = new Option1.MainClass(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Field1 = "string1"; mainClass1.AuxClass.Method1(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Method2(); // Option2 Option2.MainClass mainClass2 = new Option2.MainClass(); mainClass2.Field1 = "string2"; mainClass2.Method1(); mainClass2.Method2(); Console.ReadKey(); } } What option (option1 or option2) do you prefer ? In which cases should I use option1 or option2 ? Is there any special name for option1 or option2 (composition, aggregation) ?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't this short php script send email?

    - by RoryG
    I can't seem to get my php script to send email. <?php echo "Does this page work?"; mail('my email address', 'test subject', 'test message'); ?> First, I have set the mail function settings in the php.ini file as follows: I checked my email account settings on outlook. It does not require authentication, its port is 25, and its type of encrypted connection is 'Auto'. Given this I configured my php.ini file accordingly: SMTP = ssl://smtp1.iis.com smtp_port = 25 Then I set: sendmail_from: my email address The echo statement prints out in the browser, so I know the php file is recognized and processed. But the browser also shows the following error: Warning: mail() [function.mail]: "sendmail_from" not set in php.ini or custom "From:" header missing in C:\xampp\htdocs\mailtest.php on line 3 I have clearly set the sendmail_from so I don't know what else to do. I have also tried removing the 'ssl://' part from the SMTP setting in the php.ini file, and configuring the php5.ini file. Which of these .ini files should I be configuring anyways?

    Read the article

  • Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • jQuery : how to determine that a div is scrolled down

    - by subtenante
    I have a div with defined height, and overflow:scroll;. Its content is too long so scrollbars appear. Now for the ichy part. Some of its inner HTML strangely appears all the time (to be precise, the footer of a table generated by the tableFilter plugin). I'd like to make this footer disappear when it is not needed (it actually appears out of the containing <div>'s border). I resolved to make it disappear but setting its z-index to -1000. But I want to make it appear when the containing <div> is totally scrolled down. How can I know the user has scrolled at the bottom ? Using the help from answers below, I used scrollTop attribute but the difference between scrollTop and innerHeight is the size of the scrollbar plus some unidentified delta. A scrollbar is 16 pixels high in most browsers under Windows, but I get a difference of 17 in Firefox and something like 20 in IE, where my <div> content's borders seems to be rendered bigger. A way (actually two ways...) to compute the scrollbar size has been given there.

    Read the article

  • Is fetching data from database a get-method thing?

    - by theva
    I have a small class that I call Viewer. This class is supposed to view the proper layout of each page or something like that... I have a method called getFirstPage, when called the user of this method will get a setting value for which page is currently set as the first page. I have some code here, I think it works but I am not really shure that I have done it the right way: class Viewer { private $db; private $user; private $firstPage; function __construct($db, $user) { $this->db = $db; if(isset($user)) { $this->user = $user; } else { $this->user = 'default'; } } function getFistPage() { $std = $db->prepare("SELECT firstPage FROM settings WHERE user = ':user'"); $std->execute(array(':user' => $user)); $result = $std->fetch(); $this->firstPage = $result['firstPage']; return $this->firstPage; } } My get method is fetching the setting from databse (so far so good?). The problem is that then I have to use this get method to set the private variable firstPage. It seems like I should have a set method to do this, but I cannot really have a set method that just fetch some setting from database, right? Because the user of this object should be able to assume that there already is a setting defined in the object... How should I do that?

    Read the article

  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate many-to-many relationship

    - by Capitan
    I have two mapped types, related many-to-many. @Entity @Table(name = "students") public class Student{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name = "students2courses", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "student_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "course_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } ... } __ @Entity @Table(name = "courses") public class Course{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, mappedBy = "courses") public Set<Student> getStudents() { return students; } public void setStudents(Set<Student> students) { this.students = students; } ... } But if I update/delete Course entity, records are not created/deleted in table students2courses. (with Student entity updating/deleting goes as expected) I wrote abstract class HibObject public abstract class HibObject { public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return null; } } which is inherited by Student and Course. In DAO I added this code (for delete() method): String query = obj.getRemoveMTMQuery(); if (query != null) { session.createSQLQuery(query).executeUpdate(); } and I ovrerided method getRemoveMTMQuery() for Course @Override @Transient public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return "delete from students2courses where course_id = " + id + ";"; } Now it works but I think it's a bad code. Is there a best way to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

    Read the article

  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS in NSURLConnection: how to debug?

    - by baswell
    I have an iPhone app that downloads URLs. (PDFs to display) Easy: self.conn = [NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:self.request delegate:self]; where self.conn is a retained property. For specific URLs, this throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS. The URL is valid and is constructed in the same way as URLs that do work. (90% of URLs are fine) These ones work: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARG_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARK_11-Mar-2010.pdf These don't: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YAMK_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YATN_11-Mar-2010.pdf Spot the difference? Yeah, me neither. Also no difference in response headers from the server for them. To clarify, the ones that work ALWAYS work, the ones that don't NEVER work. So not some random release/retain issue it seems. For the ones that don't work, none of the methods in my delegate are ever called, it fails hard before that. And with no error message, just EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Sooo.... Any way to debug what is going on inside NSURLConnection?

    Read the article

  • Passing additional data value to strongly typed partial views in ASP.NET MVC

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I have an OrderForm domain class, which has property subclasses, something like: interface IOrderForm { int OrderId { get; } ICustomerDetails CustomerDetails { get; set; } IDeliveryDetails DeliveryDetails{ get; set; } IPaymentsDetails PaymentsDetails { get; set; } IOrderDetails OrderDetails { get; set; } } My "Details" view is strongly typed inheriting from IOrderForm. I then have a strongly type partial for rendering each section: <div id="CustomerDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CustomerDetails", Model.CustomerDetails); %> </div> <div id="DeliveryDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("DeliveryDetails", Model.DeliveryDetails); %> </div> ... etc This works ok up to this point, but I'm trying to add some nice ajax bits for updating some parts of the order form, and I've realised that each of my partial views also needs access to the IOrderForm.OrderId. Whats the easiest way to give my partials access to this value?

    Read the article

  • Using SimpleDB (with SimpleSavant) with POCO / existing entities, not attributes on my classes

    - by alex
    I'm trying to use Simple Savant within my application, to use SimpleDB I currently have (for example) public class Person { public Guid Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public DateTime DateOfBirth { get; set; } } To use this with Simple Savant, i'd have to put attributes above the class declaration, and property - [DomainName("Person")] above the class, and [ItemName] above the Id property. I have all my entities in a seperate assembly. I also have my Data access classes an a seperate assembly, and a class factory selects, based on config, the IRepository (in this case, IRepository I want to be able to use my existing simple class - without having attributes on the properties etc.. In case I switch out of simple db, to something else - then I only need to create a different implementation of IRepository. Should I create a "DTO" type class to map the two together? Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Linq-to-sql join/where?

    - by Curtis White
    I've the following table structures Users id Types id isBool UsersTypes userid types I want to select all the UserTypes based on id and isBool. I tried this query var q = from usertype in usertypes from type in types where type.isBool == false where userstypes.user == id select usertype; But this did not work as expected. My questions are: Why? Is there any difference in using the join on syntax vs where, where vs where cond1 && cond2? My understanding is query optimizer will optimize. Is there any difference in using where cond1 == var1 && cond2 == var2 with and without the parenthesis? This seems peculiar that it is possible to build this without parenthesis What type of query do I need in this case? I can see that I could do a subquery or use a group but not 100% sure if it is required. An example might be helpful. I'm thinking a subquery may be required in this case.

    Read the article

  • LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

    - by Remon
    As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Code Only Fires On Hard Refresh?

    - by Rob Vanders
    The XFBML version of the Facebook Registration plugin only loads HTTPS. I need it to load HTTP so my form does not call a security error mismatch between domains. I wrote this code to get the SRC and rewrite it with out HTTPS It works fine on the first load, however on Chrome and Safari it only loads the first time and on HARD refreshes. It does not load on standard reloads or by pressing "enter" on the address bar. Here is the code $(window).load(function () { // Replace HTTPS with HTTP when frame has loaded $(".subscribe iframe").each(function(){ var source = $(this).attr("src"); //alert(source); var sourceNew = source.replace("https", "http"); // change https to http alert(sourceNew); $(this).attr("src", sourceNew); }); }); I have .HTACCESS set to disable server cache <Files *> Header set Cache-Control: "private, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0" Header set Expires: 0 Header set Pragma: no-cache </Files> What is causing this to not fire reliably? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Container of Generic Types in java

    - by Cyker
    I have a generic class Foo<T> and parameterized types Foo<String> and Foo<Integer>. Now I want to put different parameterized types into a single ArrayList. What is the correct way of doing this? Candidate 1: public class MMM { public static void main(String[] args) { Foo<String> fooString = new Foo<String>(); Foo<Integer> fooInteger = new Foo<Integer>(); ArrayList<Foo<?> > list = new ArrayList<Foo<?> >(); list.add(fooString); list.add(fooInteger); for (Foo<?> foo : list) { // Do something on foo. } } } class Foo<T> {} Candidate 2: public class MMM { public static void main(String[] args) { Foo<String> fooString = new Foo<String>(); Foo<Integer> fooInteger = new Foo<Integer>(); ArrayList<Foo> list = new ArrayList<Foo>(); list.add(fooString); list.add(fooInteger); for (Foo foo : list) { // Do something on foo. } } } class Foo<T> {} In a word, it is related to the difference between Foo<?> and the raw type Foo. Update: Grep What is the difference between the unbounded wildcard parameterized type and the raw type? on this link may be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Should I still be using jquery .getJson in 1.4.2?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I was looking at the 14 days of jquery http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 and I saw this and it got me to wondering is there a point to use getJson anymore? JSON and script types auto-detected by content-type (jQuery.ajax Documentation, Commit 1, Commit 2) If the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JSON mime type (application/json), the dataType defaults to “json” (if no dataType is specified). Additionally, if the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JavaScript mime type (text/javascript or application/x-javascript) , the dataType defaults to “script” (if no dataType is specified), causing the script to automatically execute. First I can see such a huge benefit of this. In jquery 1.3 I came to a situation where in some cases I would return a partial view and some cases I would return a json result (asp.net mvc). It worked in firefox but in no other browser and one of the problems was I basically had to tell jquery to either do json or text/html. With it automatically detecting I could get away with this. Anyways I found a solution around this at that time. So now it just makes me wonder if there is any point to using GetJson. I am also unsure how to set these JavaScript mime types? I am assuming that if you return a JsonResult from asp.net mvc it will set it. but I am not sure if I was just sending a text result if it would be set( I am not sure if ContentResult would set this).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457  | Next Page >