Search Results

Search found 12857 results on 515 pages for 'spatial index'.

Page 451/515 | < Previous Page | 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458  | Next Page >

  • Ruby on Rails controller and architecture with cells

    - by dt
    I decided to try to use the cells plugin from rails: http://cells.rubyforge.org/community.html given that I'm new to Ruby and very used to thinking in terms of components. Since I'm developing the app piecemeal and then putting it together piece by piece, it makes sense to think in terms of components. So, I've been able to get cells working properly inside a single view, which calls a partial. Now, what I would like to be able to do (however, maybe my instincts need to be redirected to be more "Rails-y"), is call a single cell controller and use the parameters to render one output vs. another. Basically, if there were a controller like: def index params[:responsetype] end def processListResponse end def processSearchResponse end And I have two different controller methods that I want to respond to based on the params response type, where I have a single template on the front end and want the inner "component" to render differently depending on what type of request is made. That allows me to reuse the same front-end code. I suppose I could do this with an ajax call instead and just have it rerender the component on the front end, but it would be nice to have the option to do it either way and to understand how to architect Rails a bit better in the process. It seems like there should be a "render" option from within the cells framework to render to a certain controller or view, but it's not working like I expect and I don't know if I'm even in the ballpark. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Ideas Needed for a Base Code System

    - by Tegan Snyder
    I've developed a PHP web application that is currently in need of a strategic restructuring. Currently when we setup new clients we give them the entire code base on a subdomain of our main domain and create a new table for them in the database. This results in each client having the entire codebase, meaning when we make bug changes, fixes we have to go back and apply them independently across all clients and this is a pain. What I'd like to create is a base code server that holds all the core PHP files. base.domain.com Then all of our clients (client.domain.com) will only need a few files: config.php would have the database connection information. index.php - displays the login box if session non-existant, otherwise it loads baseline code via remote includes to base.domain.com. My question is does my logic seem feasible? How do other people handle similar situations by having a base code? Also.... Is it even possbile to remotely include PHP files from base.domain.com and include them in client.domain.com? Thanks, Tegan

    Read the article

  • Does F# documentation have a way to search for functions by their types?

    - by Nathan Sanders
    Say I want to know if F# has a library function of type ('T -> bool) -> 'T list -> int ie, something that counts how many items of a list that a function returns true for. (or returns the index of the first item that returns true) I used to use the big list at the MSR site for F# before the documentation on MSDN was ready. I could just search the page for the above text because the types were listed. But now the MSDN documentation only lists types on the individual pages--the module page is a mush of descriptive text. Google kinda-sorta works, but it can't help with // compatible interfaces ('T -> bool) -> Seq<'T> -> int // argument-swaps Seq<'T> -> ('T -> bool) -> int // type-variable names ('a -> bool) -> Seq<'a> -> int // wrappers ('a -> bool) -> 'a list -> option<int> // uncurried versions ('T -> bool) * 'T list -> int // .NET generic syntax ('T -> bool) -> List<'T> -> int // methods List<'T> member : ('T -> bool) -> int Haskell has a standalone program for this called Hoogle. Does F# have an equivalent, like Fing or something?

    Read the article

  • Sort ranges in an array in google apps script

    - by user1637113
    I have a timesheet spreadsheet for our company and I need to sort the employees by each timesheet block (15 rows by 20 columns). I have the following code which I had help with, but the array quits sorting once it comes to a block without an employee name (I would like these to be shuffled to the bottom). Another complication I am having is there are numerous formulas in these cells and when I run it as is, it removes them. I would like to keep these intact if at all possible. Here's the code: function sortSections() { var activeSheet = SpreadsheetApp.getActiveSheet(); //SETTINGS var sheetName = activeSheet.getSheetName(); //name of sheet to be sorted var headerRows = 53; //number of header rows var pageHeaderRows = 5; //page totals to top of next emp section var sortColumn = 11; //index of column to be sorted by; 1 = column A var pageSize = 65; var sectionSize = 15; //number of rows in each section var col = sortColumn-1; var sheet = SpreadsheetApp.getActive().getSheetByName(sheetName); var data = sheet.getRange(headerRows+1, 1, sheet.getMaxRows()-headerRows, sheet.getLastColumn()).getValues(); var data3d = []; var dataLength = data.length/sectionSize; for (var i = 0; i < dataLength; i++) { data3d[i] = data.splice(0, sectionSize); } data3d.sort(function(a,b){return(((a[0][col]<b[0][col])&&a[0][col])?-1:((a[0][col]>b[0][col])?1:0))}); var sortedData = []; for (var k in data3d) { for (var l in data3d[k]) { sortedData.push(data3d[k][l]); } } sheet.getRange(headerRows+1, 1, sortedData.length, sortedData[0].length).setValues(sortedData);

    Read the article

  • Added CAGradientLayer, getting this in my UIView dealloc: [CALayer release]: message sent to deallocated instance

    - by developerdoug
    Here there, I have a custom UIView. This view acts as a activity indicator but as label above the UIActivityIndicatorView. In the init, I add a CAGradientLayer. I allocate and initialize it and insert it at index 0 as a sublayer of the UIView layer property. In my dealloc method was called, I received a message in the console: - [CALayer release]: message sent to deallocated instance. My code: @interface LabelActivityIndicatorView () { UILabel *_label; UIActivityIndicatorView *_activityIndicatorView; CAGradientLayer *_gradientLayer; } @end @implementation LabelActivityIndicatorView //dealloc - (void) dealloc { [_label release]; [_activityIndicatorView release]; //even tried to remove the layer [_gradientLayer removeFromSuperLayer]; [_gradientLayer release]; [super dealloc]; } // init - (id) initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ( (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) ) { // init the label // init the gradient layer _gradientLayer = [[CAGradientLayer alloc] init]; [_gradientLayer setBounds:[self bounds]]; [_gradientLayer setPosition:CGPointMake(frame.size.width/2, frame.size.height/2)]; [[self layer] insertSublayer:_gradientLayer atIndex:0]; [[self layer] setNeedsDisplay]; } return self; } @end Anyone have any ideas. Since I'm allocating and initializing the gradient layer I'm responsible for releasing it. I should be able to alloc and init and assign to some ivar. Perhaps I should create a property with retain on it. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • A little confused about MVC and where to put a database query

    - by jax
    OK, so my Joomla app is in MVC format. I am still a little confused about where to put certain operations, in the Controller or in the Model. This function below is in the controller, it gets called when &task=remove. Should the database stuff be in the Model? It does not seem to fit there because I have two models editapp (display a single application) and allapps (display all the applications), now which one would I put the delete operation in? /** * Delete an application */ function remove() { global $mainframe; $cid = JRequest::getVar( 'cid', array(), '', 'array' ); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); //if there are items to delete if(count($cid)){ $cids = implode( ',', $cid ); $query = "DELETE FROM #__myapp_apps WHERE id IN ( $cids )"; $db->setQuery( $query ); if (!$db->query()){ echo "<script> alert('".$db->getErrorMsg()."');window.history.go(-1); </script>\n"; } } $mainframe->redirect( 'index.php?option=' . $option . '&c=apps'); } I am also confused about how the flow works. For example, there is a display() function in the controller that gets called by default. If I pass a task, does the display() function still run or does it go directly to the function name passed by $task?

    Read the article

  • Is it necessary to var scope loop variables in CFScript?

    - by Mel
    When using CFML and CF9 I usually var scope my loop variables; in this case local.i, for example: <cfloop list="#this.list#" index="local.i"> <cfif Len(local.i) GT 10> // do something </cfif> </cfloop> I recently started converting some stuff into CFScript, and (to my disappointment I found out that there is no way to loop over a list in CFScript) I'm wondering if I should still var scope my loop variables, and how: for (i = 1; LTE ListLen(this.list); i = i + 1 ) { if (Len(ListGetAt(this.list, i) GT 10)) { // do something } } Should I be doing local.i = 1 and local.i = local.i + 1 istead of the sample code in my example? Is it necessary? EDIT: I should also ask if the CFScript form of my CFML loop is correct; I ask because I just noticed that my CFML loop uses a , (comma and space) for the delimiter argument, which seems non-existence in the CFScript version of the loop.

    Read the article

  • named type not used for constructor injection

    - by nmarun
    Hi, I have a simple console application where I have the following setup: public interface ILogger { void Log(string message); } class NullLogger : ILogger { private readonly string version; public NullLogger() { version = "1.0"; } public NullLogger(string v) { version = v; } public void Log(string message) { Console.WriteLine("NULL " + version + " : " + message); } } The configuration details are below: <type type="UnityConsole.ILogger, UnityConsole" mapTo="UnityConsole.NullLogger, UnityConsole"> My calling code looks as below: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); UnityConfigurationSection section = (UnityConfigurationSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("unity"); section.Containers.Default.Configure(container); ILogger nullLogger = container.Resolve(); nullLogger.Log("hello"); This works fine, but once I give a name to this type something like: <type type="UnityConsole.ILogger, UnityConsole" mapTo="UnityConsole.NullLogger, UnityConsole" name="NullLogger"> The above calling code does not work even if I explicitly register the type using container.RegisterType<ILogger, NullLogger>(); I get the error: {"Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"UnityConsole.ILogger\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[UnityConsole.NullLogger, null]) failed: The parameter v could not be resolved when attempting to call constructor UnityConsole.NullLogger(System.String v). (Strategy type BuildPlanStrategy, index 3)"} Why doesn't unity look into named instances? To get it to work, I'll have to do: ILogger nullLogger = container.Resolve("NullLogger"); Where is this behavior documented? Arun

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't this PHP execute?

    - by cam
    I copied the code from this site exactly: http://davidwalsh.name/web-service-php-mysql-xml-json as follows, /* require the user as the parameter */ if(isset($_GET['user']) && intval($_GET['user'])) { /* soak in the passed variable or set our own */ $number_of_posts = isset($_GET['num']) ? intval($_GET['num']) : 10; //10 is the default $format = strtolower($_GET['format']) == 'json' ? 'json' : 'xml'; //xml is the default $user_id = intval($_GET['user']); //no default /* connect to the db */ $link = mysql_connect('localhost','username','password') or die('Cannot connect to the DB'); mysql_select_db('db_name',$link) or die('Cannot select the DB'); /* grab the posts from the db */ $query = "SELECT post_title, guid FROM wp_posts WHERE post_author = $user_id AND post_status = 'publish' ORDER BY ID DESC LIMIT $number_of_posts"; $result = mysql_query($query,$link) or die('Errant query: '.$query); /* create one master array of the records */ $posts = array(); if(mysql_num_rows($result)) { while($post = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $posts[] = array('post'=>$post); } } /* output in necessary format */ if($format == 'json') { header('Content-type: application/json'); echo json_encode(array('posts'=>$posts)); } else { header('Content-type: text/xml'); echo '<posts>'; foreach($posts as $index => $post) { if(is_array($post)) { foreach($post as $key => $value) { echo '<',$key,'>'; if(is_array($value)) { foreach($value as $tag => $val) { echo '<',$tag,'>',htmlentities($val),'</',$tag,'>'; } } echo '</',$key,'>'; } } } echo '</posts>'; } /* disconnect from the db */ @mysql_close($link); } And the php doesn't execute, it just displays as plain text. What's the dealio? The host supports PHP, I use it to run a Wordpress blog and other things.

    Read the article

  • Determining where in the code an error came from - iPhone

    - by Robert Eisinger
    I'm used to Java programming where an error is thrown and it tells you at what line the error was thrown from which file. But with Objective-C in XCode, I can't ever tell where the error comes from. How can I figure out where the error came from? Here is an example of a crash error: 2011-01-04 10:36:31.645 TestGA[69958:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '*** -[NSMutableArray objectAtIndex:]: index 0 beyond bounds for empty array' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x01121be9 __exceptionPreprocess + 185 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x012765c2 objc_exception_throw + 47 2 CoreFoundation 0x011176e5 -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:] + 261 3 TestGA 0x000548d8 -[S7GraphView drawRect:] + 5763 4 UIKit 0x003e16eb -[UIView(CALayerDelegate) drawLayer:inContext:] + 426 5 QuartzCore 0x00ec89e9 -[CALayer drawInContext:] + 143 6 QuartzCore 0x00ec85ef _ZL16backing_callbackP9CGContextPv + 85 7 QuartzCore 0x00ec7dea CABackingStoreUpdate + 2246 8 QuartzCore 0x00ec7134 -[CALayer _display] + 1085 9 QuartzCore 0x00ec6be4 CALayerDisplayIfNeeded + 231 10 QuartzCore 0x00eb938b _ZN2CA7Context18commit_transactionEPNS_11TransactionE + 325 11 QuartzCore 0x00eb90d0 _ZN2CA11Transaction6commitEv + 292 12 QuartzCore 0x00ee97d5 _ZN2CA11Transaction17observer_callbackEP19__CFRunLoopObservermPv + 99 13 CoreFoundation 0x01102fbb __CFRUNLOOP_IS_CALLING_OUT_TO_AN_OBSERVER_CALLBACK_FUNCTION__ + 27 14 CoreFoundation 0x010980e7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 295 15 CoreFoundation 0x01060bd7 __CFRunLoopRun + 1575 16 CoreFoundation 0x01060240 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 208 17 CoreFoundation 0x01060161 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 97 18 GraphicsServices 0x01932268 GSEventRunModal + 217 19 GraphicsServices 0x0193232d GSEventRun + 115 20 UIKit 0x003b842e UIApplicationMain + 1160 21 TestGA 0x00001cd8 main + 102 22 TestGA 0x00001c69 start + 53 23 ??? 0x00000001 0x0 + 1 So from looking at this, where is the error coming from and from which class is it coming from?

    Read the article

  • No event is firing when placing a custom data bound control in DataRepeater control in Windows forms

    - by Remo
    Hi, Custom events in a custom data bound control are not firing in DataRepeater control. When I debug it I found that the DataRepeater Control recreates the control using Activator.CreateInstance and Copies the Properties and Events. In my case copying events doesn't copy the custom events that I hooked in. For example public class MyClass : Control { public event EventHandler MyEvent; protected virtual void OnMyEvent() { if(this.MyEvent != null) { this.MyEvent(this,EventArgs.Empty); } } private int selectedIndex= -1; public int SelectedIndex { get { return this.selectedIndex; } set { if(this.selectedIndex != value) { this.selectedIndex = value; this.OnMyEvent(); } } } // // DataBinding stuff goes here // } public Form1() { InitialiseComponent(); ArrayList list = new ArrayList(); list.Add("one"); this.dataRepeater1.DataSource = list; // One Repeater MyClass test = new Myclass(); test.DataSource = GetDataTable(); this.dataRepeater1.ItemTemplate.Controls.Add(test); test.MyEvent +=new EventHandler(test_MyEvent); } // This Event should fire when selected index of Datatable is changed and is firing when placed directly in the form and not firing when place in DataRepeater control/////////////////////// private void test_MyEvent(object sender, EventArgss e) { // This event is not fired/////////////////////// } private DataTable GetDataTable() { ..// Create a data Table and return } Any help Appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • .next is undefined, jquery plugin problem

    - by ndelangen
    I'm trying to create my own plugin. But I'm having trouble getting things right. It appears when I'm trying to traverse inside .each things go wrong. I'm trying to go to the next item every 6 seconds by fading. jQuery(function($){ $.fn.rotator = function(options){ this.each(function() { var container = $(this); var images = container.children(); //Set the opacity of all images to 0 images.css({opacity: 0.0}); //Get the first image and display it (gets set to full opacity) $('div:first',this).css({opacity: 1.0}).addClass('show'); //Call the rotator function to run the slideshow, 6000 = change to next image after 6 seconds var obj = $(this); setInterval(nextimage(obj),6000); }); }; // rotate function function nextimage(obj) { var container = $(obj); var images = container.children(); //Get the current image var current = (images.hasClass('show')? images.hasClass('show') : images.first()); //Get next image, when it reaches the end, rotate it back to the first image var next = ((current.next().length) ? ((current.next().hasClass('show')) ? images.first() :current.next()) : images.first()); //Set the fade in effect for the next image, the show class has higher z-index next.css({opacity: 0.0}) .addClass('show') .animate({opacity: 1.0}, 1000); //Hide the current image current.animate({opacity: 0.0}, 1000) .removeClass('show'); }; }); $(document).ready(function(){ $("#bg").rotator({ }) }); The error I get is: current.next is not a function Line 35 Line 35 = var next = ((current.next().length) ? ((current.next().hasClass('show')) ? images.first() :current.next()) : images.first()); Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Database class is not correctly connecting to my database.

    - by blerh
    I'm just venturing into the world of OOP so forgive me if this is a n00bish question. This is what I have on index.php: $dbObj = new Database(); $rsObj = new RS($dbObj); This is the Database class: class Database { private $dbHost; private $dbUser; private $dbPasswd; private $dbName; private $sqlCount; function __construct() { $this->dbHost = 'localhost'; $this->dbUser = 'root'; $this->dbPasswd = ''; $this->dbName = 'whatever'; $this->sqlCount = 0; } function connect() { $this->link = mysql_connect($this->db_host, $this->db_user, $this->db_passwd); if(!$this->link) $this->error(mysql_error()); $this->selection = mysql_select_db($this->db_name, $this->link); if(!$this->selection) $this->error(mysql_error()); } } I've shortened it to just the connect() method to simplify things. This is the RS class: class RS { private $username; private $password; function __construct($dbObj) { // We need to get an account from the db $dbObj->connect(); } } As you can probably see, I need to access and use the database class in my RS class. But I get this error when I load the page: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\includes\database.class.php on line 22 The thing is I have NO idea where it got the idea that it needs to use ODBC as a user... I've read up on doing this stuff and from what I can gather I am doing it correctly. Could anyone lend me a hand? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to start matching and saving matched from exact point in a text

    - by yuliya
    I have a text and I write a parser for it using regular expressions and perl. I can match what I need with two empty lines (I use regexp), because there is a pattern that allows recognize blocks of text after two empty lines. But the problem is that the whole text has Introduction part and some text in the end I do not need. Here is a code which matches text when it finds two empty lines #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; my $file = 'first'; open(my $fh, '<', $file); my $empty = 0; my $block_num = 1; open(OUT, '>', $block_num . '.txt'); while (my $line = <$fh>) { chomp ($line); if ($line =~ /^\s*$/) { $empty++; } elsif ($empty == 2) { close(OUT); open(OUT, '>', ++$block_num . '.txt'); $empty = 0; } else { $empty = 0;} print OUT "$line\n"; } close(OUT); This is example of the text I need (it's really small :)) this is file example I think that I need to iterate over the text till the moment it will find the word LOREM IPSUM with regexps this kind "/^LOREM IPSUM/", because it is the point from which needed text starts(and save the text in one file when i reach the word). And I need to finish iterating over the text when INDEX word is fount or save the text in separate file. How could I implement it. Should I use next function to proceed with lines or what? BR, Yuliya

    Read the article

  • declarative_authorization permissions on roles

    - by William
    Hey all, I'm trying to add authorization to a rather large app that already exists, but I have to obfuscate the details a bit. Here's the background: In our app we have a number or roles that are hierarchical, roughly like this: BasicUser -> SuperUser -> Admin -> SuperAdmin For authorization each User model instance has an attribute 'role' which corresponds to the above. We have a RESTful controller "Users" that is namespaced under Backoffice. So in short it's Backoffice::UsersController. class Backoffice::UsersController < ApplicationController filter_access_to :all #... RESTful actions + some others end So here's the problem: We want users to be able to give permissions for users to edit users but ONLY if they have a 'smaller' role than they currently have. I've created the following in authorization_rules.rb authorization do role :basic_user do has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :index end role :super_user do includes :basic_user has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :edit do if_attribute :role => is_in { %w(basic_user) } end end role :admin do includes :super_user end role :super_admin do includes :admin end end And unfortunately that's as far as I got, the rule doesn't seem to get applied. If I comment the rule out, nobody can edit If I leave the rule in you can edit everybody I've also tried a couple of variations on the if_attribute: if_attribute :role => is { 'basic_user' } if_attribute :role => 'basic_user' and they get the same effect. Does anybody have any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC TDD using Moq

    - by Nicholas Murray
    I am trying to learn TDD/BDD using NUnit and Moq. The design that I have been following passes a DataService class to my controller to provide access to repositories. I would like to Mock the DataService class to allow testing of the controllers. There are lots of examples of mocking a repository passed to the controller but I can't work out how to mock a DataService class in this scenerio. Could someone please explain how to implement this? Here's a sample of the relevant code: [Test] public void Can_View_A_Single_Page_Of_Lists() { var dataService = new Mock<DataService>(); var controller = new ListsController(dataService); ... } namespace Services { public class DataService { private readonly IKeyedRepository<int, FavList> FavListRepository; private readonly IUnitOfWork unitOfWork; public FavListService FavLists { get; private set; } public DataService(IKeyedRepository<int, FavList> FavListRepository, IUnitOfWork unitOfWork) { this.FavListRepository = FavListRepository; this.unitOfWork = unitOfWork; FavLists = new FavListService(FavListRepository); } public void Commit() { unitOfWork.Commit(); } } } namespace MyListsWebsite.Controllers { public class ListsController : Controller { private readonly DataService dataService; public ListsController(DataService dataService) { this.dataService = dataService; } public ActionResult Index() { var myLists = dataService.FavLists.All().ToList(); return View(myLists); } } }

    Read the article

  • OCaml delimiters and scopes

    - by Jack
    Hello! I'm learning OCaml and although I have years of experience with imperative programming languages (C, C++, Java) I'm getting some problems with delimiters between declarations or expressions in OCaml syntax. Basically I understood that I have to use ; to concatenate expressions and the value returned by the sequence will be the one of last expression used, so for example if I have exp1; exp2; exp3 it will be considered as an expression that returns the value of exp3. Starting from this I could use let t = something in exp1; exp2; exp3 and it should be ok, right? When am I supposed to use the double semicol ;;? What does it exactly mean? Are there other delimiters that I must use to avoid syntax errors? I'll give you an example: let rec satisfy dtmc state pformula = match (state, pformula) with (state, `Next sformula) -> let s = satisfy_each dtmc sformula and adder a state = let p = 0.; for i = 0 to dtmc.matrix.rows do p <- p +. get dtmc.matrix i state.index done; a +. p in List.fold_left adder 0. s | _ -> [] It gives me syntax error on | but I don't get why.. what am I missing? This is a problem that occurs often and I have to try many different solutions until it suddently works :/ A side question: declaring with let instead that let .. in will define a var binding that lasts whenever after it has been defined? What I basically ask is: what are the delimiters I have to use and when I have to use them. In addition are there differences I should consider while using the interpreter ocaml instead that the compiler ocamlc? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • how to get data from another file?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hey guys i got this jquery codes: jQuery(function ($) { var OSX = { container: null, init: function () { $("input.osx, a.osx").click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $("#osx-modal-content").modal({ overlayId: 'osx-overlay', containerId: 'osx-container', closeHTML: null, minHeight: 80, opacity: 65, position: ['0',], overlayClose: true, onOpen: OSX.open, onClose: OSX.close }); }); }, open: function (d) { var self = this; self.container = d.container[0]; d.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function () { $("#osx-modal-content", self.container).show(); var title = $("#osx-modal-title", self.container); title.show(); d.container.slideDown('slow', function () { setTimeout(function () { var h = $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).height() + title.height() + 20; // padding d.container.animate( {height: h}, 200, function () { $("div.close", self.container).show(); $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).show(); } ); }, 300); }); }) }, close: function (d) { var self = this; // this = SimpleModal object d.container.animate( {top:"-" + (d.container.height() + 20)}, 500, function () { self.close(); // or $.modal.close(); } ); } }; OSX.init(); }); this js is gets #osx-modal-content,#osx-modal-title,#osx-modal-data from index.php. how can i get divs from another page? thanks

    Read the article

  • Load iframe in html, only with jquery

    - by phpExe
    In this jquery code: $(document).ready(function(){ $list = $(".channeList li"); $list.click(function(){ var $this = $(this); var $mainDesc = $(".ply"); var iframe = $("a", $this).attr("rel"); $("iframe", $mainDesc).attr("src", iframe); } ); } ); There is a list o channels in left that iframe loads from a rel's. I want to load first iframe in <div class="ply"></div> In html, I dont want insert the first item. Can we do this without load first item in html and do this only with jquery? The php function channel() { if (is_numeric($_GET['kanalID'])) { $kanalID = $_GET['kanalID']; } if ($_GET['kanalID'] == "") { $kanalID = 1;} $channel = '<ul class="channeList">'; foreach ($tv as $id => $kanal) { $class = $kanalID == $id ? $class = "currentt": ''; $channel .= '<li> <a href="#" rel="http://mysite.com/index.php?id='.$id.'&w=500&h=320" >'.$kanal.'</a></li>'; } $channel .= '</ul>'; $channel .= '<div class="ply"><iframe frameborder=0 width="500" height="320"></iframe></div>'; return $channel; } Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

    - by Astrofaes
    Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

    Read the article

  • Simple problem with mod_rewrite in the Fat Free Framework

    - by ian
    I am trying to setup and learn the Fat Free Framework for PHP. http://fatfree.sourceforge.net/ It's is fairly simple to setup and I am running it on my machine using MAMP. I was able to get the 'hello world' example running just fin: require_once 'path/to/F3.php'; F3::route('GET /','home'); function home() { echo 'Hello, world!'; } F3::run(); But when I try to add in the second part, which has two routes: require_once 'F3/F3.php'; F3::route('GET /','home'); function home() { echo 'Hello, world!'; } F3::route('GET /about','about'); function about() { echo 'About Us.'; } F3::run(); I get a 404 error if I try the second URL: /about Not sure why one of the mod_rewrite commands would be working and not the other. Below is my .htaccess file: # Enable rewrite engine and route requests to framework RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .* index.php [L,QSA] # Disable ETags Header Unset ETag FileETag none # Default expires header if none specified (stay in browser cache for 7 days) <IfModule mod_expires.c> ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault A604800 </IfModule>

    Read the article

  • Rails routing of a controller's functions query

    - by Jty.tan
    So I've got a Users controller, and it has (amongst others) a function called details. The idea is that a user can go to localhost:3000/user/:user_id/details and be able to view the details of :user_id. For example, I have a user called "tester". When I go to the uri: http://localhost:3000/users/tester/details I'd want the details function to be called up, to render the details view, and to display the information for the user tester. But instead I get an error saying that No action responded to tester. Actions: change_password, create, current_user, details, forgot_password, index, login_required, new, redirect_to_stored, show, and update_attributes And I understand that to basically mean that if I wanted to access details, I should really be using http://localhost:3000/users/details Except that that isn't really working either... .< That is instead bringing me to http://localhost:3000/users/details/registries (which is the default path that I'd stipulated for anybody trying to view users/:user_id, so again, that's working the way I wanted it to) Point is: Can anybody help and tell me how I can go about getting users/:user_id/details to work the way I want it to and display the details of :user_id? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • div with absolute position behind the normal flow

    - by vasion
    i am trying to get a div to be my background and am using absolute positioning to achieve it. everything works fine except for the fact that it appears above anything in the normal flow and fiddling with z-indexes does absolutely nothing. <div id="blind"> <div id="blindbackground"></div> <div id="blindcontainer"><div class="loader"><img class='loader' src="/img/loader.gif"/></div></div> <div id="blindclosecontainer"><img id='blindclose' src="/img/close.gif"/></div> </div> and this is the css: #blind{ position :absolute; width:100%; z-index: 2; border-bottom: 1px silver solid; } #blindclosecontainer{ text-align: right; } #blindbackground{ position:absolute; top:0; width:100%; height:100%; background-color: white; filter:alpha(opacity=60); opacity:0.6; } #blindcontainer{ margin:auto; width:500px; background-color: white; padding:10px; } .loader{ margin: auto; width:18px; margin-top:10px; margin-bottom: 5px; }

    Read the article

  • Modify passed, nested dict/list

    - by Gerenuk
    I was thinking of writing a function to normalize some data. A simple approach is def normalize(l, aggregate=sum, norm_by=operator.truediv): aggregated=aggregate(l) for i in range(len(l)): l[i]=norm_by(l[i], aggregated) l=[1,2,3,4] normalize(l) l -> [0.1, 0.2, 0.3, 0.4] However for nested lists and dicts where I want to normalize over an inner index this doesnt work. I mean I'd like to get l=[[1,100],[2,100],[3,100],[4,100]] normalize(l, ?? ) l -> [[0.1,100],[0.2,100],[0.3,100],[0.4,100]] Any ideas how I could implement such a normalize function? Maybe it would be crazy cool to write normalize(l[...][0]) Is it possible to make this work?? Or any other ideas? Also not only lists but also dict could be nested. Hmm... EDIT: I just found out that numpy offers such a syntax (for lists however). Anyone know how I would implement the ellipsis trick myself?

    Read the article

  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458  | Next Page >