Search Results

Search found 47712 results on 1909 pages for 'looking for a script'.

Page 452/1909 | < Previous Page | 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459  | Next Page >

  • Sinatra, JavaScript Cross-Domain Requests JSON

    - by pex
    I run a REST-API build on top of Sinatra. Now I want to write a jQuery Script that fetches data from the API. Sinatra is told to response with JSON before do content_type :json end A simple Route looks like get '/posts' do Post.find.to_json end My jQuery script is a simple ajax-call $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: 'http://api.com/posts', dataType: 'json', success: function(data) { // do something } }) Actually everything works fine as long as both runs on the same IP, API and requesting JS. I already tried to play around with JSONP for Rack without any positive results, though. Probably I just need a hint how to proceed.

    Read the article

  • How do I find the current virtual terminal

    - by camh
    I am working around a problem in Ubuntu 10.04 where after resume, the mouse cursor disappears. This can be "fixed" by running chvt 1; chvt 7 in a script in /etc/pm/sleep.d, such that those commands run on thaw and resume. However, the X console is not always vt #7, so chvt 7 is wrong in those cases. What I would like to do is find out the current vt in the fix-up script and make sure I change back to that vt. How can I find the current vt? (tty(1) just reports "not a tty")

    Read the article

  • json jquery post request

    - by John
    <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a").click(function() { var content = $('#content').html(); var data = {"content":content}; $.ajax({ type: "POST", dataType: "json", url: "ajax.php", data: {content:content}, success function (data) { alert('Hello!'); } }); }); }); </script> <div id="content"><?php echo $content; ?></div> ajax.php echo json_encode($_POST['content']); ?> Nothing happens... WhatI really want to achieve is to get that alert box and get the return data, but I am lost since I don't get any errors or nothing.

    Read the article

  • Click events not working in Rails view

    - by Fdr
    I have following view (html.erb): <h3>My view</h3> <script> function test() { alert("hello"); } </script> <input type="button" onClick="test();" value="test" /> For reasons I cannot understand the onClick event never gets fired when I access the view through rails(tried static apache hosting - no problems there). Here is rendered html: http://pastebin.com/LmGysgUG I feel quite stupid, is this something to do the way Rails renders views?

    Read the article

  • query excuting problem

    - by srini-r85
    hi, i tried to execute following query in php script. $db_selected = mysql_select_db("lumiinc1_sndemo1", $con); if ($db_selected) { echo "database connected"; } else { die ("Can\'t use db : " . mysql_error()); } $sql = "INSERT INTO `markers` ( `name`, `address`, `lat`, `lng`, `id` ) SELECT `name`, `street`, `latitude`, `longitude`, `lid` FROM `location` WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM `markers` WHERE `location`.`lid` = `markers`.`id` )"; $result = mysql_query($sql); if ($result) { echo "Query executed OK"; } else { die("Invalid query: " . mysql_error()); } script does not show any error.also query executed.but i didn't get my expected result.at the same i try this query in phpmyAdmin i got my expected result. i dont know the cause of this problem. plz any one find the problem . thanks

    Read the article

  • Care to be taken when serving static content (JS, CSS, Media) from different domain?

    - by Aahan Krish
    Let me try to explain by example. Say website is hosted at example.com (NOT www.example.com). In order to serve static content cookie-free, I've chosen to use a different domain example-static.com. Now, lets consider that my static content is currently served like this: http://example.com/js/script.js http://example.com/css/style.css http://example.com/media/image.jpg ** Now I create a CNAME record aliasing example-static.com to my main domain i.e. example.com so that the static content is served as such: http://example-static.com/js/script.js http://example-static.com/css/style.css http://example-static.com/media/image.jpg ** Is that all I have to do? Will all browsers execute JavaScript files and load web fonts without any security concerns? OR should I be using some .htaccess rules to modify header information and the like? PS: It would be great if you can provide what rules should be added, if need be.

    Read the article

  • How to properly match the following message id format in a case statement

    - by hsatterwhite
    I'm trying to get this regex pattern working in a case statement to match a particular type of ID, which could be passed to the script. I need to match the exact number of alphanumeric characters with the dashes to differentiate this message id from anything else, which may be passed to this bash script. An example of the message id format: c7c3e910-c9d2-71e1-0999-0aec446b0000 #!/bin/bash until [ -z "$1" ] do case "$1" in "") echo "No value passed" ;; [a-z0-9]\{8\}-[a-z0-9]\{4\}-[a-z0-9]\{4\}-[a-z0-9]\{4\}-[a-z0-9]\{12\}) echo "Found message ID: $1" ;; *) echo "Server $1" ;; esac shift done

    Read the article

  • how to handle exceptions/errors in php?

    - by fayer
    when using 3rd part libraries they tend to throw exceptions to the browser and hence kill the script. eg. if im using doctrine and insert a duplicate record to the database it will throw an exception. i wonder, what is best practice for handling these exceptions. should i always do a try...catch? but doesn't that mean that i will have try...catch all over the script and for every single function/class i use? Or is it just for debugging? i don't quite get the picture. Cause if a record already exists in a database, i want to tell the user "Record already exists". And if i code a library or a function, should i always use "throw new Expcetion($message, $code)" when i want to create an error? Please shed a light on how one should create/handle exceptions/errors. Thanks

    Read the article

  • What is the Perl equivalent to C's #include? [closed]

    - by Herms
    Possible Duplicate: How do I include functions from another file in my Perl script? I have a couple simple perl scripts that share some subroutines. I'd like to pull those subroutines out into another file, but I'm not sure how to go about doing that. All I need is an equivalent to C's #include. I found a couple things online about creating modules, but that seems like overkill for what I'm doing. Is there a way to just tell perl to load/execute another perl script inline, so it's treated as if it's just part of the file (like #include in C)?

    Read the article

  • Merge Primary Keys - Cascade Update

    - by Chris Jackson
    Is there a way to merge two primary keys into one and then cascade update all affected relationships? Here's the scenario: Customers (idCustomer int PK, Company varchar(50), etc) CustomerContacts (idCustomerContact int PK, idCustomer int FK, Name varchar(50), etc) CustomerNotes (idCustomerNote int PK, idCustomer int FK, Note Text, etc) Sometimes customers need to be merged into one. For example, you have a customer with the id of 1 and another with the id of 2. You want to merge both, so that everything that was 2 is now 1. I know I could write a script that updates all affected tables one by one, but I'd like to make it more future proof by using the cascade rules, so I don't have to update the script every time there is a new relationship added. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Iframe height not adjusting with javascript in newer versions of Internet Explorer

    - by user1486047
    I have an Iframe that links to another html page. The iframe is contained within a div. I found some code that would auto adjust the high depending on the contents of the iframe. This code works fine in firefox and older versions of internet explorer but its not adjusting the height in v7 or later..... Javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> function changeContent() { document.getElementById('right').innerHTML = window.frames['contentFRAME'].document.getElementsByTagName('html')[0].innerHTML; } </script> HTML: <div class="fl" id="right"> <iframe class="newsFrame" id = "contentFRAME" name = "contentFRAME" src ="news.html" onLoad = "changeContent()"></iframe> </div> Can anyone help.....

    Read the article

  • How do I post dynamic information to Facebook from Flash?

    - by daidai
    I am building a Flash site and I want to be able to allow the user to post dynamically produced information to their Facebook wall, but I can't find out any information within the Facebook developers documentation. Its simple enough in Javascript/HTML: <script type="text/javascript"> function callPublish(msg, attachment, action_link) { FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.Connect.streamPublish('', attachment, action_link); }); } </script> <input type="button" onclick="callPublish('',{'name':'Post this to Facebook','href':'http://dev2.com','description':'this is some body test'},null);return false;" value="Preview Dialog" /> As you can see I don't want to create sessions or login or anything complicated, just post to info to their wall.

    Read the article

  • Is this Javascript object literal key restriction strictly due to parsing?

    - by George Jempty
    Please refer to the code below, when I "comment in" either of the commented out lines, it causes the error (in IE) of "':' expected". So then is my conclusion correct, that this inability to provide a reference to an object value, as an object key in a string literal; is this strictly an interpreter/parsing issue? Is this a candidate for an awful (or at least "bad") "part" of Javascript, in contrast to Crockford's "good parts"? <script> var keys = {'ONE': 'one'}; //causes error: //var obj1 = {keys.ONE: 'value1'}; //var obj1 = {keys['ONE']: 'value1'}; //works var obj1 = {}; obj1[keys.ONE] = 'value1'; //also works var key_one = keys.ONE; var obj2 = {key_one: 'value1'}; </script>

    Read the article

  • How to pass an asp.net control to a jQuery ajax call?

    - by Abe Miessler
    I have the following jQuery event that gets fired every time an anchor is clicked. How can I pass a asp.net control (lets say a textbox called "tb_name") as one of the parameters, in addition to the "target" parameter i'm already passing? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a").click(function(event) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/Click", data: "{target:'" + event.target + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", error: function(xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.responseText); $("#myContent").html(xhr.statusText); //alert(xhr.responseText); }, success: function(msg) { alert(msg.d); } }); return false; }) }) </script>

    Read the article

  • How might one detect the first run of a program?

    - by Julian H. Lam
    In my web application, users can download a .tar.gz archive containing the app files. However, because the MySQL database won't have been configured then, the user needs to run the install script located in ./install. I "catch" the user upon first run of the app by checking to see if the ./install directory exists. If so, the index.php page redirects the user to the install script. However, I was wondering if there were a more elegant way to "catch" a user upon first-run of a program. Someone on IRC suggested the web-server create a file .installed upon completion, but because the web server might not have write privileges to the web root directory, I can't rely on that. How would you go about solving this problem, or is my solution workable?

    Read the article

  • Create fake subdirectories with htaccess and php AND keep existing directories as is.

    - by Arseni
    I have a website, which has numerous subdirectories already. (All existing in server's filesystem) I want to create new "virtual" sub-dirs with htaccess, but I only want the htaccess rule work for directories, listed in DB, and not existing in filesystem. i.e. File system has: /dir1/ & /dir2/ MySQL database has record for 'dir3' & 'dir4' And I want: A: mysite.com/dir1/ and mysite.com/dir2/ display existing old content B: mysite.com/dir3/ and mysite.com/dir4/ display content from MySQL provided by PHP sctipt via redirect like: mysite.com/myscript.php?dir=dir3 C: mysite.com/dir5/ display 404 error (Dir does not exist in DB nor in Database) Basically I want .htaccess to work like this: IF DIR Exists in DB - apply the rewrite rule and show content from myscript.php?dir=DIR ELSE don't apply any rule. I can create a separate php script, which can return 0/1 when given dir name exist in DB or not, but how do I make mod_rewrite get the data from that script? Is it possible with htaccess/PHP at all?

    Read the article

  • jquery .add() is weird

    - by phil
    Hi folks. Why all elements turn red? I only intend to turn <p> red. <ul> <li>list item 1</li> <li>list item 2</li> <li>list item 3</li> </ul> <p>a paragraph</p> <script> $('li').add('p').css('background-color', 'red'); </script>

    Read the article

  • Should I use DATE and TIME as fields rather than DATETIME

    - by whitstone86
    I have a project on going for a TV guide, called mytvguide in the database - I use PHPMyAdmin. This is the structure for one table, which is called tvshow1: Field Type channel varchar(255) date date No airdate time No expiration time No episode varchar(255) setreminder varchar(255) but am not sure how to get DATE, TIME to work with the pagination script (below is the script, which works for the version with DATETIME): http://pastebin.com/6S1ejAFJ However, although the DATETIME one works - it shows programmes that air on the day itself like this: Programme 1 showing on Channel 1 2:35pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Programme 1 showing on Channel 1 May 26th - 12:50pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Programme 1 showing on Channel 1 May 26th - 5:55pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder but I'm not quite sure how to replicate that for the fields that use DATE, TIME functions as seen above. Any advice on this is appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • creating existing users on AWS when they don't have a group

    - by Jon Strayer
    It seems when chef creates a user with the id of "foobar" it also creates a group with the id of "foobar". AWS doesn't do that. So, when I run my create users script via Opsworks it blows up on the first user that already exists because the group doesn't. I thought there was a way to say create the user but not the group, but I can't find it. What's the best way to solve this problem? Can I: Tell chef to not create the user's group? Tell chef to create it if the user exists but the group doesn't? Write a script that finds the existing users and creates groups for them? Something else?

    Read the article

  • Changing background images like this

    - by Azzyh
    If you guys check out this webpage: http://www2.scandvision.se/oresund10/ How have they done this background fade in fade out? When i check the source this <img id="wrapper-background" src="images/body-background-0.jpg" alt="Background" /> and i think theres some kind of script maybe php or js, or both, that every 5 sec changes the background: images/body-background-1.jpg images/body-background-2.jpg images/body-background-3.jpg and so on.. So how did they do this? an example would be great, as i want to learn how to do that. If i was going to do something like this i think i would only manage to do a script in php that randomize everytime you refresh. Thank you, this will expand my knowledge

    Read the article

  • jquery: show data after change event

    - by klox
    i have this code: <script> $("#mod").change(function() { var matches=str.match(/(EE|[EJU]).*(D)/i); $.ajax({ type="post", url="process.php", data="matches", cache=false, async=false, success= function(res){ $('#rslt').replaceWith("<div id='value'><h6>Tuner range is" + res + " .</h6></div>"); return this; } }); return false; }); </script> i want this code can show the result normally..where is my fault?

    Read the article

  • How to pass PHP array parameter to Javascript Function???

    - by Son of Man
    index.php <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript.js"> </script> <?php $movies = array("Bloodsport", "Kickboxer", "Cyborg", "Timecop", "Universal Soldier", "In Hell", "The Quest"); ?> <input type="submit" value="Test Javascript" onclick="showMovies(<?php echo $movies; ?>);" /> javascript.js function showMovies(movies) { alert(movies.length); return false; } I am new to programming so Im having hard time fixing this one which is obviously simple for you guys. When I hit the submit button it says the that the array size is 1 which I think should be 7. How could this be??? Pls tell me what to do... Thanks in Advance...

    Read the article

  • How can I kill a Perl system call after a timeout?

    - by Fergal
    I've got a Perl script I'm using for running a file processing tool which is started using backticks. The problem is that occasionally the tool hangs and It needs to be killed in order for the rest of the files to be processed. Whats the best way best way to apply a timeout after which the parent script will kill the hung process? At the moment I'm using: foreach $file (@FILES) { $runResult = `mytool $file >> $file.log`; } But when mytool hangs after n seconds I'd like to be able to kill it and continue to the next file.

    Read the article

  • notice in Jquery Autocomplete

    - by Katherine
    what is the problem if i got this notice saying: Notice: Undefined index: 8 in C:\xampp\htdocs\projects\wesm\intranet\plugins\survey_manager\index.php on line 80 i'm using the jquery autocomplete.. here is some of my code for javascript in which the error occurred: <script type='text/javascript'> var intranetUsers = ["<?php echo $content[0].' ", "'; $num = 1; while($num != $getInranetUserCount['num']){ echo $content[$num].'" , "'; $num = $num + 1; } echo $content[$getInranetUserCount['num']]; ?>"]; </script> I've already use that code in some module and it works I don't know why it doesn't work this time.

    Read the article

  • What causes this error..please run "exec sp_register_custom_scripting 'CUSTOM_SCRIPT', your_script???

    - by larryr
    Configuration SQL 2005 (Server A) replicates to SQL 2008(Server B) which replicates to SQL 2008(Server C). I recently added a column (to Server A) to a replicated table via script & the DDL change replicated to Server B with out a problem. When the DDL change replicated to Server C, I received the error below. 'DDL replication failed to refresh custom procedures, please run "exec sp_register_custom_scripting 'CUSTOM_SCRIPT', your_script, 'EDI from xx', 'table_name_here' "and try again (Source: MSSQLServer, Error number: 21814)' These subscriptions (on Server B to Server C) were created via a script below. **exec sp_addsubscription @publication = N'EDI to XLOCX', @subscriber = N'RXLOCXS-SQLA', @destination_db = N'EDI', @subscription_type = N'Push', @sync_type = N'replication support only', @article = N'all', @update_mode = N'read only', @subscriber_type = 0 exec sp_addpushsubscription_agent @publication = N'EDI to XLOCX (Merge)', @subscriber = N'RXLOCXS-SQLA', @subscriber_db = N'EDI', @job_login = N'ROUSES.COM\RXLOCXSQLREPL', @job_password = N'XPASSWORDX', @subscriber_security_mode = 1, @frequency_type = 4, @frequency_interval = 1, @frequency_relative_interval = 1, @frequency_recurrence_factor = 1, @frequency_subday = 8, @frequency_subday_interval = 1, @active_start_time_of_day =3300, @active_end_time_of_day = 235959, @active_start_date = 20070923, @active_end_date = 99991231, @enabled_for_syncmgr = N'False', @dts_package_location = N'Distributor'** GO So the million dollar question is, why do I get the error 'exec sp_register_custom_scripting 'CUSTOM_SCRIPT', your_script' when I add a column to a table in the EDI to XLOCX publication??? AHIA, LarryR...

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459  | Next Page >