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  • Performance Difference between HttpContext user and Thread user

    - by atrueresistance
    I am wondering what the difference between HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower and Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower. Both methods grab the username in my asp.net 3.5 web service. I decided to figure out if there was any difference in performance using a little program. Running from full Stop to Start Debugging in every run. Dim st As DateTime = DateAndTime.Now Try 'user = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower user = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower Dim dif As TimeSpan = Now.Subtract(st) Dim break As String = "nothing" Catch ex As Exception user = "Undefined" End Try I set a breakpoint on break to read the value of dif. The results were the same for both methods. dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long Using a longer duration, loop 5,000 times results in these figures. Thread Method run 1 dif.Milliseconds 125 Integer dif.Ticks 1250000 Long run 2 dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long run 3 dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long HttpContext Method run 1 dif.Milliseconds 15 Integer dif.Ticks 156250 Long run 2 dif.Milliseconds 156 Integer dif.Ticks 1562500 Long run 3 dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long So I guess what is more prefered, or more compliant with webservice standards? If there is some type of a performance advantage, I can't really tell. Which one scales to larger environments easier?

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  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • MVC design question for forms

    - by kenny99
    Hi, I'm developing an app which has a large amount of related form data to be handled. I'm using a MVC structure and all of the related data is represented in my models, along with the handling of data validation from form submissions. I'm looking for some advice on a good way to approach laying out my controllers - basically I will have a huge form which will be broken down into manageable categories (similar to a credit card app) where the user progresses through each stage/category filling out the answers. All of these form categories are related to the main relation/object, but not to each other. Does it make more sense to have each subform/category as a method in the main controller class (which will make that one controller fairly massive), or would it be better to break each category into a subclass of the main controller? It may be just for neatness that the second approach is better, but I'm struggling to see much of a difference between either creating a new method for each category (which communicates with the model and outputs errors/success) or creating a new controller to handle the same functionality. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

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  • Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

    - by Visage
    So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • Why should I bother with unit testing if I can just use integration tests?

    - by CodeGrue
    Ok, I know I am going out on a limb making a statement like that, so my question is for everyone to convince me I am wrong. Take this scenario: I have method A, which calls method B, and they are in different layers. So I unit test B, which delivers null as a result. So I test that null is returned, and the unit test passes. Nice. Then I unit test A, which expects an empty string to be returned from B. So I mock the layer B is in, an empty string is return, the test passes. Nice again. (Assume I don't realize the relationship of A and B, or that maybe two differente people are building these methods) My concern is that we don't find the real problem until we test A and B togther, i.e. Integration Testing. Since an integration test provides coverage over the unit test area, it seems like a waste of effort to build all these unit tests that really don't tell us anything (or very much) meaningful. Why am I wrong?

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  • Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

    - by davemackey
    I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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  • Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

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  • C# WebClient OpenRead url

    - by Octopus-Paul
    So i have this program that fetch a page using a short link (I used Google url shortener) to build my example i used the code from Using WebClient in C# is there a way to get the URL of a site after being redirected? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Net; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { MyWebClient client = new MyWebClient(); client.OpenRead("http://tinyurl.com/345yj7x"); Uri uri = client.ResponseUri; Console.WriteLine(uri.AbsoluteUri); Console.Read(); } } class MyWebClient : WebClient { Uri _responseUri; public Uri ResponseUri { get { return _responseUri; } } protected override WebResponse GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) { WebResponse response = base.GetWebResponse(request); _responseUri = response.ResponseUri; return response; } } } I do not understant a thing: when i do client.OpenRead("http://tinyurl.com/345yj7x"); this downloads the page that the url points to? If this method downloads the page, I need something to get me only the url, so if there a method to get only some headers, or only the url please let me know.

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  • Is there a disassembler + debugger for java (ala OllyDbg / SoftICE for assembler)?

    - by Ran Biron
    Is there a utility similar to OllyDbg / SoftICE for java? I.e. execute class (from jar / with class path) and, without source code, show the disassembly of the intermediate code with ability to step through / step over / search for references / edit specific intermediate code in memory / apply edit to file... If not, is it even possible to write something like this (assuming we're willing to live without hotspot for the debug duration)? Edit: I'm not talking about JAD or JD or Cavaj. These are fine decompilers, but I don't want a decompiler for several reasons, most notable is that their output is incorrect (at best, sometimes just plain wrong). I'm not looking for a magical "compiled bytes to java code" - I want to see the actual bytes that are about to be executed. Also, I'd like the ability to change those bytes (just like in an assembly debugger) and, hopefully, write the changed part back to the class file. Edit2: I know javap exists - but it does only one way (and without any sort of analysis). Example (code taken from the vmspec documentation): From java code, we use "javac" to compile this: void setIt(int value) { i = value; } int getIt() { return i; } to a java .class file. Using javap -c I can get this output: Method void setIt(int) 0 aload_0 1 iload_1 2 putfield #4 5 return Method int getIt() 0 aload_0 1 getfield #4 4 ireturn This is OK for the disassembly part (not really good without analysis - "field #4 is Example.i"), but I can't find the two other "tools": A debugger that goes over the instructions themselves (with stack, memory dumps, etc), allowing me to examine the actual code and environment. A way to reverse the process - edit the disassembled code and recreate the .class file (with the edited code).

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  • Objective C, Linking Error with extern variable..

    - by LCYSoft
    I have a very simple java code like this. I don't have any idea how to do this in Objective C. Especially, the static part which calls the getLocalAddress() method and assign it into the static string variable. I know how to set a static variable and a static method in Objective but I dont know how to implement that static { } part in java. Thanks in advance... public class Address { public static String localIpAddress; static { localIpAddress = getLocalIpAddress(); } public Address() { } static String getLocalIpAddress() { //do something to get local ip address } } I added this in my .h file #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> extern NSString *localIpAddress; @class WifiAddrss; @interface Address : NSObject { } @end And my .m file looks like #import "Address.h" #import "WifiAddress.h" @implementation Address +(void)initialize{ if(self == [Address class]){ localIpAddress = [self getLocalIpAddress]; } } +(NSString *)getLocalIpAddress{ return address here } -(id)init{ self = [super init]; if (self == nil){ NSLog(@"init error"); } return self; } @end And Now I am getting a linking error and it complains about "extern NSString *localIpAddress" part. If I change the extern to static, it works fine. But what I wanted to do is that I want make the scope of "localIpAddress" variable as grobal. Since if I put "static" in front of a variable in Objective-C then the variable is only visible in the class. But this time, I want to make that as a grobal variable. So my question is how to make "localIpAddress" variable as a grobal variable which is initialized once when the first time Address class is created.. Thanks in advance...

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  • Wanted: How to reliably, consistently select an MKMapView annotation

    - by jdandrea
    After calling MKMapView's setCenterCoordinate:animated: method (without animation), I'd like to call selectAnnotation:animated: (with animation) so that the annotation pops out from the newly-centered pushpin. For now, I simply watch for mapViewDidFinishLoadingMap: and then select the annotation. However, this is problematic. For instance, this method isn't called when there's no need to load additional map data. In those cases, my annotation isn't selected. :( Very well. I could call this immediately after setting the center coordinate instead. Ahh, but in that case it's possible that there is map data to load (but it hasn't finished loading yet). I'd risk calling it too soon, with the animation becoming spotty at best. Thus, if I understand correctly, it's not a matter of knowing if my coordinate is visible, since it's possible to stray almost a screenful of distance and have to load new map data. Rather, it's a matter of knowing if new map data needs to be loaded, and then acting accordingly. Any ideas on how to accomplish this, or how to otherwise (reliably) select an annotation after re-centering the map view on the coordinate where that annotation lives? Clues appreciated - thanks!

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  • Issue with javascript array object

    - by ezhil
    I have the below JSON response. I am using $.getJSON method to loads JSON data and using callback function to do some manipulation by checking whether it is array as below. { "r": [{ "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }] } I am passing the json responses on both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input" as parameter as below. var tablesResult = loadFromJson1(resultstest.r[0].Clg); loadFromJson1 = function (input) { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson1: Inside array function"); var collection = new CompeCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { collection.add(loadFromJson1(modelData)); }); return collection; } return new CompeModel({ compeRates: loadFromJson2(input), compName: input.Name }); }; loadFromJson2 = function (input) // here is the problem, the 'input' is not an array object so it is not going to IF condition of the isArray method. { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson2: Inside array function"); //alert is not coming here though it is an array var rcollect = new rateCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { rcollect.add(modelData); }); return rcollect; } }; The above code i am passing json responses for both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input". isArray is getting true on only loadFromJson1 function and giving alert inside the if condition but not coming in loadFromJson2 function though i am passing the same parameter. can anyone tell me why loadFromJson2 function is not getting the alert inside if condition though i pass array object?

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  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

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  • How can I remove an "ALMOST" Duplicate using LINQ? ( OR SQL? )

    - by Atomiton
    This should be and easy one for the LINQ gurus out there. I'm doing a complex Query using UNIONS and CONTAINSTABLE in my database to return ranked results to my application. I'm getting duplicates in my returned data. This is expected. I'm using CONTAINSTABLE and CONTAINS to get all the results I need. CONTAINSTABLE is ranked by SQL and CONTAINS (which is run only on the Keywords field ) is hard-code-ranked by me. ( Sorry if that doesn't make sense ) Anyway, because the tuples aren't identical ( their rank is different ) a duplicate is returned. I figure the best way to deal with this is use LINQ. I know I'll be using the Distinct() extension method, but do I have to implement the IEqualityComparer interface? I'm a little fuzzy on how to do this. For argument's sake, say my resultset is structured like this class: class Content { ContentID int //KEY Rank int Description String } If I have a List<Content> how would I write the Distinct() method to exclude Rank? Ideally I'd like to keep the Content's highest Rank. SO, if one Content's RAnk is 112 and the other is 76. I'd like to keep the 112 rank. Hopefully I've given enough information.

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  • Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

    - by d.
    Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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  • Supressing GUI?

    - by Legend
    I am trying to run a plugin designed for Vuze using Java. For this I am using a command like this: /home/x/jre1.6.0_14/bin/java -Dazureus.config.path=/home/x/plugin_directory -Dfile.encoding=ANSI_X3.4-1968 -classpath /home/x/P/lib/swtgraphics2d.jar:/home/x/P/lib/Azureus2.jar:/home/x/P/lib/swt.jar org.gudy.azureus2.ui.swt.Main The problem with this is that the launch is failing with an error: changeLocale: *Default Language* != English (United States). Searching without country.. changeLocale: Searching for language English in *any* country.. changeLocale: no message properties for Locale 'English (United States)' (en_US), using 'English (default)' Invoking main failed java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at com.aelitis.azureus.launcher.MainExecutor$1.run(MainExecutor.java:37) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: org.eclipse.swt.SWTError: No more handles [gtk_init_check() failed] at org.eclipse.swt.SWT.error(SWT.java:3910) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.createDisplay(Display.java:863) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.create(Display.java:851) at org.eclipse.swt.graphics.Device.<init>(Device.java:152) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.<init>(Display.java:479) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.<init>(Display.java:470) at org.gudy.azureus2.ui.swt.mainwindow.SWTThread.<init>(SWTThread.java:84) at org.gudy.azureus2.ui.swt.mainwindow.SWTThread.createInstance(SWTThread.java:59) at org.gudy.azureus2.ui.swt.mainwindow.Initializer.<init>(Initializer.java:110) at org.gudy.azureus2.ui.swt.Main.<init>(Main.java:88) at org.gudy.azureus2.ui.swt.Main.main(Main.java:255) ... 6 more Exception in thread "MainRunner" java.lang.SecurityException: VM exit operation prohibited at org.gudy.azureus2.core3.security.impl.SESecurityManagerImpl$2.checkExit(SESecurityManagerImpl.java:274) at java.lang.Runtime.exit(Unknown Source) at java.lang.System.exit(Unknown Source) at com.aelitis.azureus.launcher.MainExecutor$1.run(MainExecutor.java:42) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) I am sure that this is happening because I am running the program on a terminal. Is there a way to supress the GUI or let the program think that the GUI was spawned successfully? Any suggestions?

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  • Expression Tree with Property Inheritance causes an argument exception

    - by Adam Driscoll
    Following this post: link text I'm trying to create an expression tree that references the property of a property. My code looks like this: public interface IFoo { void X {get;set;} } public interface IBar : IFoo { void Y {get;set;} } public interface IFooBarContainer { IBar Bar {get;set;} } public class Filterer { //Where T = "IFooBarContainer" public IQueryable<T> Filter<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection) { var argument = Expression.Parameter(typeof (T), "item"); //... //where propertyName = "IBar.X"; PropertyOfProperty(argument, propertyName); } private static MemberExpression PropertyOfProperty(Expression expr, string propertyName) { return propertyName.Split('.').Aggregate<string, MemberExpression>(null, (current, property) => Expression.Property(current ?? expr, property)); } } I receive the exception: System.ArgumentException: Instance property 'X' is not defined for type 'IBar' ReSharper turned the code in the link above into the condensed statement in my example. Both forms of the method returned the same error. If I reference IBar.Y the method does not fail.

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  • UITabBarControllerDelegate compare value of viewController

    - by T9
    I have a tabBar with 4 tabs on it, and I want to perform some action when a specific tab is selected, so I have uncommented the UITabBarControllerDelegate in the xxAppDelegate.m I also wanted to see the value that was being sent logged in the console - in order to test my "if" statement. However this is where I got stumped. // Optional UITabBarControllerDelegate method - (void)tabBarController:(UITabBarController *)tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController { NSLog(@"%@", viewController); } The console dutifully logged any selected controller that had been selected, but in this particular format: <MyViewController: 0x3b12950> Now, I wasn't expecting the square brackets or the colon or the Hex. So my question is how do I format my IF statement? This is what I thought would work but I get an error mentioned further down. // Optional UITabBarControllerDelegate method - (void)tabBarController:(UITabBarController *)tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController { NSLog(@"%@", viewController); if (viewController == MyViewController) { //do something nice here … }; } ... The error is "Expected expression before 'MyViewController'" Anyone know how I should be doing this?

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  • searching for a programming platform with hot code swap

    - by Andreas
    I'm currently brainstorming over the idea how to upgrade a program while it is running. (Not while debugging, a "production" system.) But one thing that is required for it, is to actually submit the changed source code or compiled byte code into the running process. Pseudo Code var method = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("Method1"); var content = //get it from a database (bytecode or source code) SELECT content FROM methods WHERE id=? AND version=? method.SetContent(content); At first, I want to achieve the system to work without the complexity of object-orientation. That leads to the following requirements: change source code or byte code of function drop functions add new functions change the signature of a function With .NET (and others) I could inject a class via an IoC and could thus change the source code. But the loading would be cumbersome, because everything has to be in an Assembly or created via Emit. Maybe with Java this would be easier? The whole ClassLoader is replacable, I think. With JavaScript I could achieve many of the goals. Simply eval a new function (MyMethod_V25) and assign it to MyClass.prototype.MyMethod. I think one can also drop functions somehow with "del" Which general-purpose platform can handle such things?

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  • IComparable not included when serializing in WCF

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I have a list i'm filling at server side. It's a list of "User", which implements IComparable. Now when WCF is serializing the data, i guess it's not including the CompareTo method. This is my Object class : [DataContract] public class User : IComparable { private string e164, cn, h323; private int id; private DateTime lastActive; [DataMember] public DateTime LastActive { get { return lastActive; } set { laatstActief = value; } } [DataMember] public int Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; } } [DataMember] public string H323 { get { return h323; } set { h323 = value; } } [DataMember] public string Cn { get { return cn; } set { cn = value; } } [DataMember] public string E164 { get { return e164; } set { e164 = value; } } public User() { } public User(string e164, string cn, string h323, DateTime lastActive) { this.E164 = e164; this.Cn = cn; this.H323 = h323; this.LastActive= lastActive; } [DataMember] public string ToStringExtra { get { if (h323 != "/" && h323 != "") return h323 + " (" + e164 + ")"; return e164; } set { ;} } public override string ToString() { if (Cn.Equals("Trunk Line") || Cn.Equals("")) if (h323.Equals("")) return E164; else return h323; return Cn; } public int CompareTo(object obj) { User user = (User)obj; return user.LastActive.CompareTo(this.LastActive); } } Is it possible to get the CompareTo method to reach the client? Putting [DataMember] isn't the solution as i tried it ( i know...). Thanks in advance.

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  • LINQ query code for complex merging of data.

    - by Stacey
    I've posted this before, but I worded it poorly. I'm trying again with a more well thought out structure. Re-writing this a bit to make it more clear. I have the following code and I am trying to figure out the shorter linq expression to do it 'inline'. Please examine the "Run()" method near the bottom. I am attempting to understand how to join two dictionaries together based on a matching identifier in one of the objects - so that I can use the query in this sort of syntax. var selected = from a in items.List() // etc. etc. select a; This is my class structure. The Run() method is what I am trying to simplify. I basically need to do this conversion inline in a couple of places, and I wanted to simplify it a great deal so that I can define it more 'cleanly'. class TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } } class TModels : List<TModel> { } class TValue { } class TStorage { public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> Items { get; set; } } class TArranged { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> Items { get; set; } } static class Repository { static public TItem Single<TItem, TCollection>(Predicate<TItem> expression) { return default(TItem); // access logic. } } class Sample { public void Run() { TStorage tStorage = new TStorage(); // access tStorage logic here. Dictionary<TModel, TValue> d = new Dictionary<TModel, TValue>(); foreach (KeyValuePair<Guid, TValue> kv in tStorage.Items) { d.Add(Repository.Single<TModel, TModels>(m => m.Id == kv.Key),kv.Value); } } }

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  • plupload with webpy.

    - by markus
    Hi, i have a problem. I want to upload a file with plupload with the HML5 runtime. This is my html/js code : jQuery(function(){ jQuery("#uploader").pluploadQueue({ // General settings runtimes : 'html5', name : 'file', url : 'http://server.name/addContent', max_file_size : '${maxSize}$_("GB")', }); jQuery('#form_upload_file').submit(function(e) { var uploader = jQuery('#uploader').pluploadQueue(); // Validate number of uploaded files if (uploader.total.uploaded == 0) { // Files in queue upload them first if (uploader.files.length > 0) { // When all files are uploaded submit form uploader.bind('UploadProgress', function() { if (uploader.total.uploaded == uploader.files.length) jQuery('#form_upload_file').submit(); }); uploader.start(); } else alert('You must at least upload one file.'); e.preventDefault(); } }); }); <form id="form_upload_file" action="#" method="POST"> <div id="uploader"></div> <input type="hidden" name="token" value="token" /> <input type="hidden" name="idUser" value="$idUser" /> </form> So, when i click in the button to upload(the submit() method is not called), it does an OPTIONS HTTP request to my server so i don't know what i must do to save the file? this is my webpy code : def OPTIONS(self): web.header('Content-type', 'text/plain: charset=utf-8') web.header('Cache-Control', 'no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate') web.header('Cache-Control', 'post-check=0, pre-check=0', False) web.header('Pragma', 'no-cache') def POST(self): input = web.input(_unicode=False, file={})#on récupère les input self.copy(input.file.file) etc. any idea ? thanks.

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