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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • [Wordpress] How do you remove a Category-style (hierarchical) taxonomy metabox

    - by Manny Fleurmond
    I was wondering if someone can help me with this. I'm currently following Shibashake's tutorial about creating custom meta-boxes that include taxonomy selection here: http://shibashake.com/wordpress-theme/wordpress-custom-taxonomy-input-panels . They show how to remove the standard metabox Wordpress automatically creates for taxonomies using the remove_meta_box function. Only problem is that the function for some reason doesn't seem to work on taxonomies that work as categories ie ones where the hierarchical option is set to true. I know I have the function working because the ones set up as tags disappear easily enough. I can't if it just isn't possible or if there is something special I need to add in one of the parameters to make it work. Example: $args = array( 'hierarchical' => false, 'label' =>'People', 'query_var' => true, 'rewrite' => true ); register_taxonomy('people', 'post',$args); remove_meta_box('tagsdiv-people','post','side'); That works fine. If I set hierarchical to 'true, however, the meta box stays put. Can anyone shed some light?

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  • Better way to summarize data about stop times?

    - by Vimvq1987
    This question is close to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2947963/find-the-period-of-over-speed Here's my table: Longtitude Latitude Velocity Time 102 401 40 2010-06-01 10:22:34.000 103 403 50 2010-06-01 10:40:00.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 105 406 35 2010-06-01 11:15:30.000 106 403 60 2010-06-01 11:20:00.000 108 404 70 2010-06-01 11:30:05.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 105 407 40 2010-06-01 11:50:00.000 104 406 30 2010-06-01 12:00:00.000 101 409 50 2010-06-01 12:05:30.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:05:30.000 I want to summarize times when vehicle had stopped (velocity = 0), include: it had stopped since "when" to "when" in how much minutes, how many times it stopped and how much time it stopped. I wrote this query to do it: select longtitude, latitude, MIN(time), MAX(time), DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as Timespan from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as minute into #temp3 from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select COUNT(*) as [number]from #temp select SUM(minute) as [totaltime] from #temp3 drop table #temp This query return: longtitude latitude (No column name) (No column name) Timespan 104 405 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 10 109 405 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 5 number 2 totaltime 15 You can see, it works fine, but I really don't like the #temp table. Is there anyway to query this without use a temp table? Thank you.

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  • parse error in php code

    - by user225269
    I just started php and I want to know how to make this parse error work. This is the error: Parse error: parse error in E:\wamp\www\PHP\create.php on line 22 And here is my code, by the way I'm making a database manipulating system. And I use wampserver and dreamweaver. <?php include 'E:\wamp\www\PHP\connection.php'; $IDNUMBER = $_POST['ID']; $LNAME = $_POST['Lname']; $FNAME = $_POST['Fname']; $MNAME = $_POST['Mname']; $GRADEYR = $_POST['GradeYr']; $ADDRESS = $_POST['Address']; if(!$_POST['submit']) { echo "please fill out the form"; header('Location: E:\wamp\www\PHP\main.php'); } else { mysql_query = "INSERT INTO students (`IDNUMBER`,`LNAME` ,`FNAME` ,`MNAME` ,`GRADEYR` ,`ADDRESS`) VALUES (NULL, '$IDNUMBER', '$LNAME', '$FNAME', '$MNAME', '$GRADEYR', '$ADDRESS')") or die(mysql_error()); echo "User has been added!"; header('E:\wamp\www\PHP\main.php'); } ?> Please help, I'm just a beginner in php.

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  • Question about the evolution of interaction paradigm between web server program and content provider program?

    - by smwikipedia
    Hi experts, In my opinion, web server is responsible to deliver content to client. If it is static content like pictures and static html document, web server just deliver them as bitstream directly. If it is some dynamic content that is generated during processing client's request, the web server will not generate the conetnt itself but call some external proram to genearte the content. AFAIK, this kind of dynamice content generation technologies include the following: CGI ISAPI ... And from here, I noticed that: ...In IIS 7, modules replace ISAPI filters... Is there any others? Could anyone help me complete the above list and elabrate on or show some links to their evolution? I think it would be very helpful to understand application such as IIS, TomCat, and Apache. I once wrote a small CGI program, and though it serves as a content generator, it is still nothing but a normal standalone program. I call it normal because the CGI program has a main() entry point. But with the recenetly technology like ASP.NET, I am not writing complete program, but only some class library. Why does such radical change happens? Many thanks.

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • Autodiscovery for inclusion tags

    - by Ludwik Trammer
    The title may be a little confusing, but I don't know how else to call it. I would like to create a Django project with a large set of applications you could arbitrary turn on or off using INSTALLED_APPS option in settings.py (you would obviously also need to edit urls.py and run syncdb). After being turned on an app should be able to automatically: Register it's content in site-wide search. Luckily django-haystack has this built-in, so it's not a problem. Register cron jobs. django-cron does exactly that. Not a problem. Register a widget that should be displayed on the homepage. The homepage should include a list of boxes with widgets form different applications. I thought about inclusion tags, because you can put them anywhere on a page and they control both content and presentation. The problem is I don't know how to automatically get a list of inclusion tags provided by my applications, and display them one by one on a homepage. I need a way to register them somehow, and then display all registered tags.

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  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

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  • How to prevent PHP variables from being arrays?

    - by MJB
    I think that (the title) is the problem I am having. I set up a MySQL connection, I read an XML file, and then I insert those values into a table by looping through the elements. The problem is, instead of inserting only 1 record, sometimes I insert 2 or 3 or 4. It seems to depend on the previous values I have read. I think I am reinitializing the variables, but I guess I am missing something -- hopefully something simple. Here is my code. I originally had about 20 columns, but I shortened the included version to make it easier to read. $ctr = 0; $sql = "insert into csd (id,type,nickname,hostname,username,password) ". "values (?,?,?,?,?,?)"; $cur = $db->prepare($sql); for ($ctr = 0; $ctr < $expected_count; $ctr++) { list ( $lbl, $type, $nickname, $hostname, $username, $password) = ""; $bind_vars = array(); $lbl = "csd_{$ctr}"; $type = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->type; $nickname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->nickname; $hostname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->hostname; $username = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->username; $password = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->password; $bind_vars = array($id,$type,$nickname,$hostname,$username,$password); $res = $db->execute($cur, $bind_vars); # this is a separate function which works, but which only # does SELECTS and cannot be the problem. I include it because I # want to count the total rows. printf ("%d CSDs on that ITEM now.\n", CountCSDs($id_to_sync)); } P.S. I also tagged this SimpleXML because that is how I am reading the file, though that code is not included above. It looks like this: $Ref = simplexml_load_file($file);

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  • Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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  • zend session exception on zend_session::start with forms

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi I'm having issues with trying to use Zend_Form_SubForm and sessions. My controller is in essance acting a wizard showing different subforms depending on the stage of the wizard. Using the example I am planning on storing the forms in a session namespace. My controller looks like this. include 'mylib/Form/addTaskWizardForm.php'; class AddtaskController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ private $config = null; private $log = null; private $subFormSession = null; /** * This function is called and initialises the global variables to this object * which is the configuration details and the logger to write to the log file. */ public function init(){ $this->config = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('config'); $this->log = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('log'); //set layout $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('no-sidemenus'); //we need to get the subforms and $wizardForms = new addTaskWizardForm(); $this->subFormSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('addTaskWizardForms'); if(!isset($this->subFormSession->subforms)){ $this->subFormSession->subforms = $wizardForms; } } /** * The Landing page controller for the site. */ public function indexAction(){ $form = $this->subFormSession->subforms->getSubForm('start'); $this->view->form = $form; } However this is causing the application session to crash out with Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() Any idea why this is having issues with the Zend Session?? thanks.

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  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

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  • Font Awesome Not Working In Chrome

    - by Connor Black
    So I'm trying to prototype a marketing page and I'm using bootstrap and the new font awesome file. The problem is when I try to use an icon all that gets rendered on the page in a big square. Here's how I include the files in the head: <head> <title> </title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap-responsive.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/font-awesome.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/app.css"> <!--[if IE 7]> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/font-awesome-ie7.min.css"> <![endif]--> </head> And here's an example of me trying to use an icon: <i class="icon-camera-retro"></i> But all that gets rendered in a big square. Does anyone know what could be going on?

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  • divert asp.net child controls

    - by Eric
    Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

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  • How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

    - by Hoàng Long
    Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

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  • C++ destructor called on array index - why

    - by tge
    The following code (from Apache Tuscany SDO C++) occasionally (actually very rarely) causes subsequent crashes and I don't understand what's going on. The following statement is in DataObjectImpl.cpp (see stack below): PropertyImpl* DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl(unsigned int index) { ... 904 PropertyList props = getType().getProperties(); 905 if (index < props.size()) 906 { 907 return (PropertyImpl*)&props[index]; ... causes the following stack (all omitted frames above and below look plausible): Note: #11 libtuscany_sdo.dll!std::vector<>::~vector<> [c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\vector:559] Note: #12 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::PropertyList::~PropertyList [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\propertylist.cpp:60] Note: #13 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:907] Note: #14 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getSDOValue [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:3845] The actual question is - why is the destructor of PropertyList called?? As stated, the stack looks OK otherwise, also the vector destructor, as PropertyList has a member std::vector<PropertyImplPtr plist; and the array index operator of PropertyList just calls the array index of the plist member. And, even more puzzling (to me), why this happens only occasionally ... Many thx!!

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  • Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

    - by user169867
    I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

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  • Newbie question: When to use extern "C" { //code } ?

    - by Russel
    Hello, Maybe I'm not understanding the differences between C and C++, but when and why do we need to use: extern "C" { ? Apparently its a "linkage convention"? I read about it briefly and noticed that all the .h header files included with MSVS surround their code with it. What type of code exactly is "C code" and NOT "C++ code"? I thought C++ included all C code? I'm guessing that this is not the case and that C++ is different and that standard features/functions exist in one or the other but not both (ie: printf is C and cout is C++), but that C++ is backwards compatible though the extern "C" declaration. Is this correct? My next question depends on the answer to the first, but I'll ask it here anyway: Since MSVS header files that are written in C are surrounded by extern "C" { ... }, when would you ever need to use this yourself in your own code? If your code is C code and you are trying to compile it in a C++ compiler, shouldn't it work without problem because all the standard h files you include will already have the extern "C" thing in them with the C++ compiler? Do you have to use this when compiling in C++ but linking to alteady built C libraries or something? Please help clarify this for me... Thanks! --Keith

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  • VS 2008 C++ build output?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

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  • why i^=j^=i^=j isn't equal to *i^=*j^=*i^=*j

    - by klvoek
    In c , when there is variables (assume both as int) i less than j , we can use the equation i^=j^=i^=j to exchange the value of the two variables. For example, let int i = 3, j = 5; after computed i^=j^=i^=j, I got i = 5, j = 3 . What is so amazing to me. But, if i use two int pointers to re-do this , with *i^=*j^=*i^=*j , use the example above what i got will be i = 0 and j = 3. Then, describe it simply: In C 1 int i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this i = 5, j=3 2 int i = 3, j= 5; int *pi = &i, *pj = &j; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj; // after this, $pi = 0, *pj = 5 In JavaScript var i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this, i = 0, j= 3 the result in JavaScript makes this more interesting to me my sample code , on ubuntu server 11.0 & gcc #include <stdio.h> int main(){ int i=7, j=9; int *pi=&i, *pj=&j; i^=j^=i^=j; printf("i=%d j=%d\n", i, j); i=7, j==9; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj printf("i=%d j=%d\n", *pi, *pj); } however, i had spent hours to test and find out why, but nothing means. So, please help me. Or, just only i made some mistake???

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  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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  • select failing with C program but not shell

    - by Gary
    So I have a parent and child process, and the parent can read output from the child and send to the input of the child. So far, everything has been working fine with shell scripts, testing commands which input and output data. I just tested with a simple C program and couldn't get it to work. Here's the C program: #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { char stuff[80]; printf("Enter some stuff:\n"); scanf("%s", stuff); return 0; } The problem with with the C program is that my select fails to read from the child fd and hence the program cannot finish. Here's the bit that does the select.. //wait till child is ready fd_set set; struct timeval timeout; FD_ZERO( &set ); // initialize fd set FD_SET( PARENT_READ, &set ); // add child in to set timeout.tv_sec = 3; timeout.tv_usec = 0; int r = select(FD_SETSIZE, &set, NULL, NULL, &timeout); if( r < 1 ) { // we didn't get any input exit(1); } Does anyone have any idea why this would happen with the C program and not a shell one? Thanks!

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  • Initializing PHP class property declarations with simple expressions yields syntax error

    - by user171929
    According to the PHP docs, one can initialize properties in classes with the following restriction: "This declaration may include an initialization, but this initialization must be a constant value--that is, it must be able to be evaluated at compile time and must not depend on run-time information in order to be evaluated." I'm trying to initialize an array and having some issues. While this works fine: public $var = array( 1 => 4, 2 => 5, ); This creates a syntax error: public $var = array( 1 => 4, 2 => (4+1), ); Even this isn't accepted: public $var = 4+1; which suggests it's not a limitation of the array() language construct. Now, the last time I checked, "4+1" equated to a constant value that not only should be accepted, but should in fact be optimized away. In any case, it's certainly able to be evaluated at compile-time. So what's going on here? Is the limitation really along the lines of "cannot be any calculated expression at all", versus any expression "able to be evaluated at compile time"? The use of "evaluated" in the doc's language suggests that simple calculations are permitted, but alas.... If this is a bug in PHP, does anyone have a bug ID? I tried to find one but didn't have any luck.

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  • ajax login problem

    - by rdanee
    $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

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  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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