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• ASP MVC - Routing Required?

  - by evo_9

  I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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• Building Stored Procedure to group data into ranges with roughly equal results in each bucket

  - by Len

  I am trying to build one procedure to take a large amount of data and create 5 range buckets to display the data. the buckets ranges will have to be set according to the results. Here is my existing SP GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] Script Date: 03/28/2010 19:50:45 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] @idMenu int AS declare @myMin decimal(19,2), @myMax decimal(19,2), @myDif decimal(19,2), @range1 decimal(19,2), @range2 decimal(19,2), @range3 decimal(19,2), @range4 decimal(19,2), @range5 decimal(19,2), @range6 decimal(19,2) SELECT @myMin=Min(modelpropvalue), @myMax=Max(modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues where modelPropUnitDescriptionID=@idMenu set @myDif=(@myMax-@myMin)/5 set @range1=@myMin set @range2=@myMin+@myDif set @range3=@range2+@myDif set @range4=@range3+@myDif set @range5=@range4+@myDif set @range6=@range5+@myDif select @myMin,@myMax,@myDif,@range1,@range2,@range3,@range4,@range5,@range6 select t.range as myRange, count(*) as myCount from ( select case when modelpropvalue between @range1 and @range2 then 'range1' when modelpropvalue between @range2 and @range3 then 'range2' when modelpropvalue between @range3 and @range4 then 'range3' when modelpropvalue between @range4 and @range5 then 'range4' when modelpropvalue between @range5 and @range6 then 'range5' end as range from xmodelpropertyvalues where modelpropunitDescriptionID=@idmenu) t group by t.range order by t.range This calculates the min and max value from my table, works out the difference between the two and creates 5 buckets. The problem is that if there are a small amount of very high (or very low) values then the buckets will appear very distorted - as in these results... range1 2806 range2 296 range3 75 range5 1 Basically I want to rebuild the SP so it creates buckets with equal amounts of results in each. I have played around with some of the following approaches without quite nailing it... SELECT modelpropvalue, NTILE(5) OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues - this creates a new column with either 1,2,3,4 or 5 in it ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range1 and @range2 ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range2 and @range3 or maybe i could allocate every record a row number then divide into ranges from this?

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• css style remains after click

  - by rod

  Hi All, I have a simple test page with a single styled button. I'm using a:hover when you hover over the button. However, when you click the button the a:hover style remains until I click on something else. How would I fix this and why is this happening? Thanks, rod. <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm(new AjaxOptions { })) { %> <div id="detailActions"> <a href="#">Delete User</a> </div> <% } %> </asp:Content> My CSS: #detailActions { margin-bottom: 7px; padding: 3px 0px 5px 0px; } #detailActions { padding: 1px 7px 1px 7px; margin: 0px 5px 0px 0px; border: solid 1px gray; background-color: #ADD8E6; cursor: pointer; width: auto !important; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none; color: #003366; font-size: 1.2em; } #detailActions a:hover, #detailActions a:active, #detailActions a:focus { color: White; background-color: #00008B; }

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• PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass:

  - by 4D

  I've got an array coming back from a Flash app created in Flash Builder 4. I have a service setup that queries and brings data back from the DB successfully, however the Update script is generating the Undefined Property errors. I'm still learning both PHP and Flash Builder, and don't fully understand what the $this- commands do. If anyone can suggest where this script is going wrong, it is basically just generated by Flash Builder and is not something I've developed myself, I would appreciate it? Also if someone can explain $this- to me that would be awesome too? I've seen them before, but then I've seen scripts doing the same thing that do not use them, so is this an old way of doing things? Really appreciate any input anyone can give. public function updateItem($item) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // Update an existing record in the database and return the item // Sample code \' $this->connect(); $sql = "UPDATE tbltrust SET inst_code = '$item->inst_code', trust_name = '$item->trust_name', trust_code = '$item->trust_code' WHERE trust_key = '$item->trust_key'"; mysqli_query($this->connection, $sql) or die('Query failed: ' . mysqli_error($this->connection)); mysqli_close($this->connection); }

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• Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

  - by Preston

  I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

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• Why is there a time lag when trying to change the text on a button in IE using JQuery?

  - by Deane

  I have some Ajax that runs on a button click. Sometimes it takes a few seconds to return, so I wanted a visual clue to the user that the browser was doing something. So, I have this: $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); As you can see, it changes the text on the button, and disables it. When the Ajax call comes back (it's synchronous, remember), the button changes back. In Firefox, this works great. In IE, it's...odd. It doesn't run the code in order. It doesn't change the text of the button and launches right into the Ajax call. The browser blocks with the Submit active and saying "Submit." Right after the Ajax comes back, the button quickly flashes "Working..." then back to Submit." So, for some reason, IE isn't changing the text of the button until after the Ajax call, even though the code for it is before the Ajax call. It's acting like this: //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); Again, this works perfectly in Firefox. But in IE, there's some kind of...lag?

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• JavaME - LWUIT images eat up all the memory

  - by Marko

  Hi, I'm writing a MIDlet using LWUIT and images seem to eat up incredible amounts of memory. All the images I use are PNGs and are packed inside the JAR file. I load them using the standard Image.createImage(URL) method. The application has a number of forms and each has a couple of labels an buttons, however I am fairly certain that only the active form is kept in memory (I know it isn't very trustworthy, but Runtime.freeMemory() seems to confirm this). The application has worked well in 240x320 resolution, but moving it to 480x640 and using appropriately larger images for UI started causing out of memory errors to show up. What the application does, among other things, is download remote images. The application seems to work fine until it gets to this point. After downloading a couple of PNGs and returning to the main menu, the out of memory error is encountered. Naturally, I looked into the amount of memory the main menu uses and it was pretty shocking. It's just two labels with images and four buttons. Each button has three images used for style.setIcon, setPressedIcon and setRolloverIcon. Images range in size from 15 to 25KB but removing two of the three images used for every button (so 8 images in total), Runtime.freeMemory() showed a stunning 1MB decrease in memory usage. The way I see it, I either have a whole lot of memory leaks (which I don't think I do, but memory leaks aren't exactly known to be easily tracked down), I am doing something terribly wrong with image handling or there's really no problem involved and I just need to scale down. If anyone has any insight to offer, I would greatly appreciate it.

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• iphone coredata fetch-request sorting

  - by satyam

  I'm using core data and fetching the results successfully. I've few questions regarding core data 1. When I add a record, will it be added at the end or at the start of entity. 2. I'm using following code to fetch the data. Array is being populated with all the records. But they are not in the same order as I entered records into entity. why? on what basis default sorting is used? NSFetchRequest* allLatest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allLatest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Latest" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]]; NSError* error = nil; NSArray* records = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allLatest error:&error]; [allLatest release]; 3. The way that I enter the records, 1,2,3,4......... after some time, I want to delete the records that I entered first(i mean oldest data). Something like delete oldest two records. How to do it?

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• How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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• How to model a mutually exclusive relationship in sql server

  - by littlechris

  Hi, I have to add functionality to an existing application and I've run into a data situation that I'm not sure how to model. I am being restricted to the creation of new tables and code. If I need to alter the existing structure I think my client may reject the proposal..although if its the only way to get it right this is what I will have to do. I have an Item table that can me link to any number of tables, and these tables may increase over time. The Item can only me linked to one other table, but the record in the other table may have many items linked to it. Examples of the tables/entities being linked to are "Person", "Vehicle", "Building", "Office". These are all separate tables. Example of Items are "Pen", "Stapler", "Cushion", "Tyre", "A4 Paper", "Plastic Bag", "Poster", "Decoration" For instance a "Poster" may be allocated to a "Person" or "Office" or "Building". In the future if they add a "Conference Room" table it may also be added to that. My intital thoughts are: Item { ID, Name } LinkedItem { ItemID, LinkedToTableName, LinkedToID } The LinkedToTableName field will then allow me to identify the correct table to link to in my code. I'm not overly happy with this solution, but I can't quite think of anything else. Please help! :) Thanks!

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• Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

  - by David Griffiths

  I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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• SQL Query Math Gymnastics

  - by keruilin

  I have two tables of concern here: users and race_weeks. User has many race_weeks, and race_week belongs to User. Therefore, user_id is a fk in the race_weeks table. I need to perform some challenging math on fields in the race_weeks table in order to return users with the most all-time points. Here are the fields that we need to manipulate in the race_weeks table. races_won (int) races_lost (int) races_tied (int) points_won (int, pos or neg) recordable_type(varchar, Robots can race, but we're only concerned about type 'User') Just so that you fully understand the business logic at work here, over the course of a week a user can participate in many races. The race_week record represents the summary results of the user's races for that week. A user is considered active for the week if races_won, races_lost, or races_tied is greater than 0. Otherwise the user is inactive. So here's what we need to do in our query in order to return users with the most points won (actually net_points_won): Calculate each user's net_points_won (not a field in the DB). To calculate net_points, you take (1000 * count_of_active_weeks) - sum(points__won). (Why 1000? Just imagine that every week the user is spotted a 1000 points to compete and enter races. We want to factor-out what we spot the user because the user could enter only one race for the week for 100 points, and be sitting on 900, which we would skew who actually EARNED the most points.) This one is a little convoluted, so let me know if I can clarify further.

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• autologin component doesn't work on remote server

  - by user606521

  I am using autologin component from http://milesj.me/code/cakephp/auto-login (v 3.5.1). It works on my localhost WAMP server but fails on remote server. I am using this settings in beforeFilter() callback: $this->AutoLogin->settings = array( // Model settings 'model' => 'User', 'username' => 'username', 'password' => 'password', // Controller settings 'plugin' => '', 'controller' => 'users', // Cookie settings 'cookieName' => 'rememberMe', 'expires' => '+1 month', // Process logic 'active' => true, 'redirect' => true, 'requirePrompt' => true ); On remote server it simply doesn't autolog users after the browser was closed. I can't figure out what may cause the problem. -------------------- edit I figured out what is causing the problem but I don't know how to fix this. First of all cookie is set like this: $this->Cookie->write('key',array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) ); Then it's readed like this: $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('key'); On my WAMP server $cookie is array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) and on remote server returned $cookie is string(159) "{\"username\":\"YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t\",\"password\":\"YWxlazc3ODEy\",\"hash\":\"aa15bffff9ca12cdcgfgb351d8bfg2f370bf458\",\"time\":1339923926}" and it should be: array( 'username' => "YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t", 'password' => "YWxlazc3ODEy", ...) Why the retuned cookie is string not array?

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• How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

  - by shane

  I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

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• Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

  - by Shimrod

  Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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• Browser window popups - risks and special features

  - by Sandeepan Nath

  1. What exactly is the security risk with popups? The new browsers provide settings to block window popups (on blocking, sites with active popups display a message to user). What exactly is the security risk with popups? If allowing popups can execute something dangerous, then the main window can too. Is it not the case. I think I don't know about some special powers of window popups. 2. Any special features of popup windows? Take for example the HDFC bank netbanking site. The entire netbanking session happens in a new window popup and a user neither manually edit the URL or paste the URL in the main browser window. it does not work. Is a popup window needed for this feature? Does it improve security? (Asking because everything that is there in this site revolves around security - so they must have done that for a reason too). Why otherwise they would implement the entire netbanking on a popup window? 3. Is it possible to override browser's popup blocking settings Lastly, the HDFC site succcessfully displays popup window even when in the browser settings popups are blocked. So, how do they do it? Is that a browser hack? To see this - go to http://hdfcbank.com/ Under the "Login to your account" section select "HDFC Bank NetBanking" and click the "Login" button. You can verify that even if popups are blocked/popup blocker is enabled in the browser settings, this site is able to display popups. The answers to this question say that it is not possible to display popup windows if it has been blocked in browser settings. Solved Concluded with Pointy's solution and comments under that. Here is a fiddle demonstrating the same.

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• Optimize a MySQL count each duplicate Query

  - by Onema

  I have the following query That gets the city name, city id, the region name, and a count of duplicate names for that record: SELECT Country_CA.City AS currentCity, Country_CA.CityID, globe_region.region_name, ( SELECT count(Country_CA.City) FROM Country_CA WHERE City LIKE currentCity ) as counter FROM Country_CA LEFT JOIN globe_region ON globe_region.region_id = Country_CA.RegionID AND globe_region.country_code = Country_CA.CountryCode ORDER BY City This example is for Canada, and the cities will be displayed on a dropdown list. There are a few towns in Canada, and in other countries, that have the same names. Therefore I want to know if there is more than one town with the same name region name will be appended to the town name. Region names are found in the globe_region table. Country_CA and globe_region look similar to this (I have changed a few things for visualization purposes) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Country_CA` ( `City` varchar(75) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `RegionID` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CountryCode` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CityID` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`City`,`RegionID`), KEY `CityID` (`CityID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; AND CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `globe_region` ( `country_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_name` varchar(50) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`country_code`,`region_code`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; The query on the top does exactly what I want it to do, but It takes way too long to generate a list for 5000 records. I would like to know if there is a way to optimize the sub-query in order to obtain the same results faster. the results should look like this City CityID region_name counter sheraton 2349269 British Columbia 1 sherbrooke 2349270 Quebec 2 sherbrooke 2349271 Nova Scotia 2 shere 2349273 British Columbia 1 sherridon 2349274 Manitoba 1

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• what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

  - by Michael Mao

  This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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• Possible to capture all events in a web browser?

  - by David

  I am working on a pet project and am at the research stage. Quick summary I am trying to intercept all form submits, onclick, and every single keydown. My library of choice is either jquery, or jquery + prototypejs. I figure I can batch up the events into a queue/stack and send it back to the server in time interval batches to keep performance relatively stable. Concerns Form submits and change's would be relatively simple.. Something like $("form :inputs").bind("change", function() { ... record event... }); But how to ensure I get precedence over the applications handlers as I have a habit of putting return false on a lot of my form handlers when there is a validation issue. As I understand it, that effectively stops the event in its tracks. My project For my smaller remote clients I will put their products onto a VPS or run it in my home data center. Currently I use a basic authentication system, given a username/password they see the website and then hopefully send me somewhat sane notes on what is broken or should be tweaked. As a better solution, I've written a simple proxy web server that does the above but allows me to have one DNS entry and then depending on credentials it makes an internal request relaying headers and re-writing URLS as needed. Every single html/text or application/* request is compressed and shoved into a sqlite table so I can partially replay what they've done. Now I am shifting to the frontend and would like to capture clicks, keydown's, and submits on everything on the page.

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• PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

  - by John

  Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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• Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

  - by Daniel Magliola

  I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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• Image appearing in the wrong place.

  - by Luke

  I have a list that I want to precede on each line with a small image. The CSS: .left div.arrow{background-image: url(../images/design/box.png); float:left; height:15px; width:15px; margin-right:2px;} .left a.list:link, a:visited, a:active {color:black; font-size:0.8em; text-decoration:none; display:block; float:left;} The HTML: <div class="panel">My quick links</div> <div class="arrow"></div> <a href="/messages.php?p=new" class="list">Send a new message</a> <br /> <div class="arrow"></div> <a href="/settings.php#password" class="list">Change my password</a> <br /> <div class="arrow"></div> <a href="/settings.php#picture" class="list">Upload a new site image</a> <br /> As you can see, each image should go before the writing. On the first line, the text "Send a new message" has the preceeding image. However, each line afterwards has the image at the end. So "Send a new message" has an image at the start and finish. It is like the images are staying at the end of the previous line. Any ideas?

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• What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

  - by SnAzBaZ

  I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

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• using a 64-bit compiler in microsoft visual c++

  - by Ben

  this question is essentially identical to an earlier question i had that didn't receive any answers. hopefully someone can help me out this time. i am trying to compile a vc++ project as 64 bit using visual c++ express 2010. i know that the 64 bit compiler does not come with the default installation of vc++ express so i installed windows sdk for windows 7 as specified here (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9yb4317s.aspx) which includes the 64 bit compiler as i understand. however, there is still no 64 bit option in the configuration manager for vc++. after some searching i found and completed this tutorial (http://jenshuebel.wordpress.com/2009/02/12/visual-c-2008-express-edition-and-64-bit-targets/) as well as the various links at the bottom of this page. despite all my efforts, i still cannot get the 64 bit compiler to show in vc++ (i.e. the 64 bit compiler won't show under "active solutions platform" in the configuration manager). if anyone has any experience/tips with getting this to work i would really appreciate it. fyi - i am running windows 7(x64).

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• Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

  - by Ved

  Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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