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  • Why do touches only get detected ABOVE my CCBitmapFontAtlas and not ON it? (cocos2d)

    - by RexOnRoids
    I am detecting touches for CCBitmapFontAtlas (just text labels) as shown in the code below. But it seems that touches are only detected slightly ABOVE the CCBitmapFontAtlases? Did something get screwed when converting between coordinate systems? (*Note objects label1, label2, etc are CCBitmapFontAtlas) - (void)ccTouchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for( UITouch *touch in touches ) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:[touch view]]; location = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL:location]; self.myGraphManager.isSliding = NO; CGRect rectLabel1 = CGRectMake(label1.position.x, label1.position.y, label1.contentSize.width, label1.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel2 = CGRectMake(label2.position.x, label2.position.y, label2.contentSize.width, label2.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel3 = CGRectMake(label3.position.x, label3.position.y, label3.contentSize.width, label3.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel4 = CGRectMake(label4.position.x, label4.position.y, label4.contentSize.width, label4.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel5 = CGRectMake(label5.position.x, label5.position.y, label5.contentSize.width, label5.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel6 = CGRectMake(label6.position.x, label6.position.y, label6.contentSize.width, label6.contentSize.height); if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel1, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 1 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel2, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 2 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel3, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 3 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel4, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 4 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel5, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 5 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel6, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 6 Touched"); } } }

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  • Ways to support manually executed tests? (that can be used on a Mac)

    - by Rinzwind
    Are there any tools that can be used on a Mac to support manually executed tests? I have a number of tests that I'm executing manually and which I'm currently documenting using merely a plain text file. "Tools" can be interpreted rather loosely here, anything that's a step up from the plain text file would be useful: a template for some suitable application, supporting AppleScript scripts, a web-based system, a full-blown application ... Some things that would be great to have better support for (see also the example below): Checking off each step while you're manually executing the test. Showing the next step(s) in a small window that is always kept in front of all other windows. Automatically updating the 'last tested' and 'using svn revision' info. Keeping a record of all previous testing rounds (not just the last one). ... Any suggestions for any such "tools" that can be used on a Mac? An example (faked) entry from the plain text file to give you a better idea of what I'm looking for: - Check that exported web pages render properly in Safari. Last tested: 2010-03-24 Using SVN revision: 1000 Steps: - Open a new document. - Add some items to the document. - Export the document to a web page "Test.html" in a new folder "Export Test" on the Desktop. - Open the web page in Safari, script: tell application "Finder" open file "Test.html" of folder "Export Test" of desktop end tell Expected results: - The web page should appear properly with all items shown. Clean up steps: - Remove the folder "Export Test" from the Desktop. ( Note: for those unaware, the snippet of AppleScript in the above can be executed from most text editing applications through the Services menu by selecting the snippet and using: the application menu Services Script Editor Run as AppleScript. This is quite useful to automate some steps for tests that are difficult to automate as a whole. )

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  • issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

    - by ambertch
    I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

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  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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  • C++ Vector of vectors is messing with me

    - by xbonez
    If I put this code in a .cpp file and run it, it runs just fine: #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; typedef vector<int> row; typedef vector<row> myMatrix; void main() { //cout << endl << "test" << endl; myMatrix mat(2,2); mat[0][1] = 2; cout << endl << mat[0][1] << endl; } But, if I make a .h and a .cpp file with the .h file like this, it gives me boatloads of errors. #ifndef _grid_ #define _grid_ #include<iostream> #include<vector> #include<string> using namespace std; typedef vector<int> row; typedef vector<row> myMatrix; class grid { public: grid(); ~grid(); int getElement(unsigned int ri, unsigned int ci); bool setElement(unsigned int ri, unsigned int ci, unsigned int value); private: myMatrix sudoku_(9,9); }; #endif These are some of the errors I get: warning C4091: 'typedef ' : ignored on left of 'int' when no variable is declared error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int

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  • Unknown reason for code executing the way it does in python

    - by Jasper
    Hi I am a beginner programmer, using python on Mac. I created a function as a part of a game which receives the player's input for the main character's name. The code is: import time def newGameStep2(): print ' ****************************************** ' print '\nStep2\t\t\t\tCharacter Name' print '\nChoose a name for your character. This cannot\n be changed during the game. Note that there\n are limitations upon the name.' print '\nLimitations:\n\tYou cannot use:\n\tCommander\n\tLieutenant\n\tMajor\n\t\tas these are reserved.\n All unusual capitalisations will be removed.\n There is a two-word-limit on names.' newStep2Choice = raw_input('>>>') newStep2Choice = newStep2Choice.lower() if 'commander' in newStep2Choice or 'lieutenant' in newStep2Choice or 'major' in newStep2Choice: print 'You cannot use the terms \'commander\', \'lieutenant\' or \'major\' in the name. They are reserved.\n' print time.sleep(2) newGameStep2() else: newStep2Choice = newStep2Choice.split(' ') newStep2Choice = [newStep2Choice[0].capitalize(), newStep2Choice[1].capitalize()] newStep2Choice = ' ' .join(newStep2Choice) return newStep2Choice myVar = newGameStep2() print myVar When I was testing, I inputted 'major a', and when it asked me to input another name, i inputted 'a b'. However, when it returned the output of the function, it returns 'major a'. I went through this with a debugger, yet I still can't seem to find where the problem occurred. Thanks for any help, Jasper

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  • How do I select column(s) by their "numeric" position in a table?

    - by DulcimerDude
    I am trying to select columns by their "x" position in the table. DBI my $example = $hookup->prepare(qq{SELECT This,That,Condition,"I also want COLUMN-10" FROM tbl LIMIT ? ?}); ###column_number=10 ordinal_position?? $example->execute('2','10') or die "Did not execute"; Is this possible or do I need to run another single select to just that column? One problem I encountered was with a col named "Condition". For some reason, when I tried to select Condition the execute would die. I never attempted but, What if the column name was SELECT? Another note is the table is 75 cols wide and I only need 50 of them. The Col names are pretty verbose so, I would like to just call them by their "position". This would also allow the col names to be changed in the future without having to change the select statement. I am quite the newbie so please explain any answers down to my level. Thanks for any assistance..

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  • Is there a better way to do updates in LinqToSQL?

    - by Vaccano
    I have a list (that comes to my middleware app from the client) that I need to put in my database. Some items in the list may already be in the db (just need an update). Others are new inserts. This turns out to be much harder than I thought I would be. Here is my code to do that. I am hoping there is a better way: public void InsertClients(List<Client> clients) { var comparer = new LambdaComparer<Client>((x, y) => x.Id == y.Id); // Get a listing of all the ones we will be updating var alreadyInDB = ctx.Clients .Where(client => clients.Contains(client, comparer)); // Update the changes for those already in the db foreach (Client clientDB in alreadyInDB) { var clientDBClosure = clientDB; Client clientParam = clients.Find(x => x.Id == clientDBClosure.Id); clientDB.ArrivalTime = clientParam.ArrivalTime; clientDB.ClientId = clientParam.ClientId; clientDB.ClientName = clientParam.ClientName; clientDB.ClientEventTime = clientParam.ClientEventTime; clientDB.EmployeeCount = clientParam.EmployeeCount; clientDB.ManagerId = clientParam.ManagerId; } // Get a list of all clients that are not in my the database. var notInDB = clients.Where(x => alreadyInDB.Contains(x, comparer) == false); ctx.Clients.InsertAllOnSubmit(notInDB); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } This seems like a lot of work to do a simple update. But maybe I am just spoiled. Anyway, if there is a easier way to do this please let me know. Note: If you are curious the code to the LambdaComparer is here: http://gist.github.com/335780#file_lambda_comparer.cs

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  • One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

    - by Joe
    I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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  • How to set background color of tableView

    - by Praveen
    Hi Folks, I have tried all the way but could not succeed to set backgroundColor of TableView. setting tableView.backgroundColor and/or cell.backgroundColor to clearColor didn't work when the parent view controller was UIViewContoller. My nib file structure is FileOwner View UITableView (Note: i set the TableView to groupedTable section) First attempt, I created the UIView in the code viewDidLoad UIView *view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 160, 300)] autorelease; [view setBackgroundColor:UIColor blueColor]; // color it just to see if it is created at the right place [self.tableView sendSubViewToBack:view]; It works but it hides the content of cell. I am able to see the content of header but not cell content. (But when i change the co-ordinate of view(0,150,160,300) then i am able to see the cell's content but then it loose the backgroundColor of tableview. Second attempt, I created the imageView View ImageView UITableView and set the self.tableView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; but did not work. I googled but did not the peaceful answer.

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  • Managing server instance identity on EC2

    - by kikibobo
    I recently brought up a cluster on EC2, and I felt like I had to invent a lot of things. I'm wondering what kinds of tools, patterns, ideas are out there for how to deal with this. Some context: I had 3 different kinds of servers, so first I created AMIs for each of them. The first AMI had zookeeper, so step one in deploying the system was to get the zookeeper server running. My script then made a note of the mapping between EC2's completely arbitrary and unpredictable hostnames, and the zookeeper server. Then as I brought up new instances of the other 2 kinds of servers, the first thing I would do is ssh to the new server, and add the zookeeper server to its /etc/hosts file. Then as the server software on each instance starts up, it can find zookeeper. Obviously this is a problem that lots of people have to solve, and it probably works a little bit differently in different clouds. Are there products that address this concept? I was pretty surprised that EC2 didn't provide some kind of way to tie your own name to its name. Thanks for any ideas.

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  • Mercurial: Class library that will exist for both .NET 3.5 and 4.0?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a rather big class library written in .NET 3.5 that I'd like to upgrade to make available for .NET 4.0 as well. In that process, I will rip out a lot of old junk, and rewrite some code to better take advantage of the new classes and support in .NET 4.0 (like TPL.) The class libraries will thus diverge, but still be similar enough that some bug-fixes can be done to both in the same manner. How should I best organize this class library in Mercurial? I'm using Kiln (fogbugz) if that matters. I'm thinking: Named branches in one repository, can then transplant any bugfixes from one to the other Unnamed branches in one repository, can also transplant, but I think this will look messy Separate repositories, will have to reimplement the bugfixes (or use a non-mercurial-integraded compare tool to help me) What would you do? (any other alternatives that I haven't though of is welcome as well.) Note that the class libraries will diverge pretty heavily in areas, I have some remnants of old collection-type code that does something similar to Linq that I will remove, and some code that uses it that I will rewrite to use the Linq-methods instead. As such, just copying the project files and using #if NET40..#endif sections is not going to work out. Also, the 3.5 version of the class library will not be getting many new features, mostly just critical bug-fixes, so keeping both versions equally "alive" isn't really necessary. Thus, separate copies of all the files are good enough.

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  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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  • Class lookup structure array in C++

    - by wyatt
    I'm trying to create a structure array which links input strings to classes as follows: struct {string command; CommandPath cPath;} cPathLookup[] = { {"set an alarm", AlarmCommandPath}, {"send an email", EmailCommandPath}, {"", NULL} }; which will be used as follows: CommandPath *cPath = NULL; string input; getline(cin, input); for(int i = 0; cPathLookup[i] != ""; i++) { if(cPathLookup[i].command == input) cPath = new cPathLookup[i].cPath; } Obviously, this code is meaningless, but I think my intention is apparent - depending on input, I'd like cPath to be initialized as either a new AlarmCommandPath or a new EmailCommandPath. I could handle it with a function returning an instance depending on input, but a whole sequence of ifs just seems inelegant. I should also note that, in case it's not apparent and important, that AlarmCommandPath and EmailCommandPath are derived from CommandPath, and CommandPath is an abstract class. Thanks for any help you can offer. EDIT: I just noticed that, in spite of CommandPath being abstract, I have a declaration: CommandPath *cPath = NULL; in working code. Why does that compile?

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  • how to create an object using self?

    - by Nick
    I thought I understood the use of self while referring to anything in the current class. After encountering this warning and subsequent run failure, I have googled many variants of "define self" or "usage of self" and gotten nowhere. This problem is how to create an object without the warning, and understand why. #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Foo : NSObject { Foo *obj; } -(void)beta; @end #import "Foo.h" @implementation Foo -(void)beta{ obj = [self new]; // 'Foo' may not respond to '-new' } @end Note, if I substitute Foo for self, there's no problem. I thought the class name and self were equivalent, but obviously the compiler doesn't think so. Perhaps an explanation of what's wrong here will not only solve my problem but also enlighten my understanding of the usage of self. Are there any tutorials about proper usage of self? I couldn't find anything beyond something like "self is the receiver of the message," which I didn't help me at all.

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  • Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

    - by SCO
    I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

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  • casting char[][] to char** causes segfault?

    - by Earlz
    Ok my C is a bit rusty but I figured I'd make my next(small) project in C so I could polish back up on it and less than 20 lines in I already have a seg fault. This is my complete code: #define ROWS 4 #define COLS 4 char main_map[ROWS][COLS+1]={ "a.bb", "a.c.", "adc.", ".dc."}; void print_map(char** map){ int i; for(i=0;i<ROWS;i++){ puts(map[i]); //segfault here } } int main(){ print_map(main_map); //if I comment out this line it will work. puts(main_map[3]); return 0; } I am completely confused as to how this is causing a segfault. What is happening when casting from [][] to **!? That is the only warning I get. rushhour.c:23:3: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘print_map’ from incompatible pointer type rushhour.c:13:7: note: expected ‘char **’ but argument is of type ‘char (*)[5]’ Are [][] and ** really not compatible pointer types? They seem like they are just syntax to me.

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  • need help with C++ using maps to keep track of words in a INPUT file

    - by eNetik
    Let say i have a text file with today is today but tomorrow is today tomorrow then using maps how can i keep track of the words that are repeated? and on which line it repeats? so far i have each string in the file read in as a temp and it is stored in the following way: map<string,int> storage; int count = 1 // for the first line of the file if(infile.is_open()){ while( !infile.eof() ){ getline(in, line); istringstream my_string(line); while(my_string.good()){ string temp; my_string >> temp; storage[temp] = count } count++;// so that every string read in the next line will be recorded as that line. } } map<string,int>::iterator m; for(int m = storage.begin(); m!= storage.end(); m++){ out<<m->first<<": "<<"line "<<m->second<<endl; } right now the output is just but: line 1 is: line 2 today: line 2 tomorrow: line 2 But instead.. it should print out(no repeating strings): today : line 1 occurred 2 times, line 2 occurred 1 time. is: line 1 occurred 1 time, line 2 occurred 1 time. but: line 1 occurred 1 time. tomorrow: line 2 occurred 2 times. Note: the order of the string does not matter. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • Determining presence of prototype with correct return type

    - by R..
    Here's a random problem in C black magic I just came up with: Write a function that returns 1 if malloc has been prototyped to return a pointer type and 0 if malloc has a return type of int (either implicitly or due to wrong prototype), without invoking any implementation-defined or undefined behavior. I believe it's solvable, but I haven't worked out the solution. Note that calling the function cannot be necessary and in fact is not possible since calling a function with the incorrect prototype is undefined behavior. I have some ideas for ingredients but I think it makes for a better puzzle (and possibly more diverse ideas) if I leave them out for now. I don't need the solution for any immediate use, but it could be handy in configure scripts and such. Update: A better example of the usefulness (with strdup instead of malloc): #undef strdup #define strdup(x) (strdup_has_proto ? strdup((x)) : my_strdup((x))) i.e. being able to implement X_has_proto as an expression at the source level could be a portable way to use functions which a system might or might not have, and fall back on a local replacement, without needing any separate configure step.

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  • android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE not available on all devices?

    - by Matt McMinn
    I've got a receiver set up in my android application to catch android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE intents. On my Evo, it works fine - when a notification is cleared from the notification bar, I catch that event and can run some code. I tried running this on a Samsung Moment though, and it is never caught. So now I'm trying to figure out why, and I can't seem to find anything on Google about this intent action - and I set this code up a few months ago, so I don't remember where I even found this action, it doesn't seem to be in the API. The evo is running 2.2, and the moment is running 2.1-update1, so I'm guessing that it's undocumented, and only available in 2.2. Is there any other way to catch an event that a notification has been cleared? Note that I'm not trying to cancel a notification that I put up, or trying to cancel another app's notification, just catch an event when a notification has been cleared. Here's my receiver in AndroidManafest.xml: <receiver android:name=".NotificationClearedReciever"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE" /> </intent-filter> </receiver>

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  • How to calculate how many lines (or records) can fit in the given page size

    - by devcoder
    My problem is to calculate the data (string) that can fit into the given page size (in inches). I have an application which creates plain vanilla HTML report without using any reporting controls. Now I have to provide paging support in this report. the report is dynamic in nature i.e. columns are decided at run time. Depending upon the page width, I want to wrap columns in multiple lines. For example, if the page width is 8", i want to fit only first 'n' columns in first line and rest columns can be displayed in second line (or more lines if required). For this I need to calculate how much data can fit in a 8" wide line. Similarly, I want to calculate the height of data that can fit into the given height of page. To summarize, how can I calculate how much data can fit into the given page size in inches. Note: The calculation should also consider the font as it is decided at run time.

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  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

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  • jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

    - by AaronS
    I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

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