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  • How to manipulate *huge* amounts of data

    - by Alejandro
    Hi there! I'm having the following problem. I need to store huge amounts of information (~32 GB) and be able to manipulate it as fast as possible. I'm wondering what's the best way to do it (combinations of programming language + OS + whatever you think its important). The structure of the information I'm using is a 4D array (NxNxNxN) of double-precission floats (8 bytes). Right now my solution is to slice the 4D array into 2D arrays and store them in separate files in the HDD of my computer. This is really slow and the manipulation of the data is unbearable, so this is no solution at all! I'm thinking on moving into a Supercomputing facility in my country and store all the information in the RAM, but I'm not sure how to implement an application to take advantage of it (I'm not a professional programmer, so any book/reference will help me a lot). An alternative solution I'm thinking on is to buy a dedicated server with lots of RAM, but I don't know for sure if that will solve the problem. So right now my ignorance doesn't let me choose the best way to proceed. What would you do if you were in this situation? I'm open to any idea. Thanks in advance!

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  • Force a view change from a button when using UITabBarController

    - by user342197
    Hello - When using a UITabBarController, when the user enters some data on View1 and presses a button, I need to perform some calculations and present the results on View2. I have an AppDelegate, View1Controller, View2Controller, and View3Controller (View3 is a basically static view). My AppDelgate declares UITabBarController *rootController; On View1, I have the calculations being performed in an IBAction for buttonPressed; however, I can't seem to force the view to switch to View2 programmatically. I have done a lot of searching for similar problems, and think I should be doing something like "self.rootController.selectedIndex = 1"; however,when I do this from within buttonPressed on my View1Controller, I get an error "request for member rootController in something not in a structure or union". I think I'm missing something basic here... probably need do do something with my AppDelegate, but I'm banging my head against the wall. Can anyone provide some guidance in this situation...like key things I should do in View1Controller header and implementation with reference to my AppDelgate? Thank you!

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  • PHP: Next Available Value in an Array, starting with a non-indexed value

    - by Erik Smith
    I've been stumped on this PHP issue for about a day now. Basically, we have an array of hours formatted in 24-hour format, and an arbitrary value ($hour) (also a 24-hour). The problem is, we need to take $hour, and get the next available value in the array, starting with the value that immediately proceeds $hour. The array might look something like: $goodHours = array('8,9,10,11,12,19,20,21). Then the hour value might be: $hour = 14; So, we need some way to know that 19 is the next best time. Additionally, we might also need to get the second, third, or fourth (etc) available value. The issue seems to be that because 14 isn't a value in the array, there is not index to reference that would let us increment to the next value. To make things simpler, I've taken $goodHours and repeated the values several times just so I don't have to deal with going back to the start (maybe not the best way to do it, but a quick fix). I have a feeling this is something simple I'm missing, but I would be so appreciative if anyone could shed some light. Erik

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  • should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

    - by Sudhi
    I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

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  • How to include all objects of an archive in a shared object?

    - by Didier Trosset
    When compiling our project, we create several archives (static libraries), say liby.a and libz.a that each contains an object file defining a function y_function() and z_function(). Then, these archives are joined in a shared object, say libyz.so, that is one of our main distributable target. g++ -fPIC -c -o y.o y.cpp ar cr liby.a y.o g++ -fPIC -c -o z.o z.cpp ar cr libz.a z.o g++ -shared -L. -ly -lz -o libyz.so When using this shared object into the example program, say x.c, the link fails because of an undefined references to functions y_function() and z_function(). g++ x.o -L. -lyz -o xyz It works however when I link the final executable directly with the archives (static libraries). g++ x.o -L. -ly -lz -o xyz My guess is that the object files contained in the archives are not linked into the shared library because they are not used in it. How to force inclusion? Edit: Inclusion can be forced using --whole-archive ld option. But if results in compilation errors: g++ -shared '-Wl,--whole-archive' -L. -ly -lz -o libyz.so /usr/lib/libc_nonshared.a(elf-init.oS): In function `__libc_csu_init': (.text+0x1d): undefined reference to `__init_array_end' /usr/bin/ld: /usr/lib/libc_nonshared.a(elf-init.oS): relocation R_X86_64_PC32 against undefined hidden symbol `__init_array_end' can not be used when making a shared object /usr/bin/ld: final link failed: Bad value Any idea where this comes from?

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  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

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  • How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

    - by prepbgg
    My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

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  • Image resizing - sometimes very poor quality?!

    - by eWolf
    I'm resizing some images to the screen resolution of the user; if the aspect ratio is wrong, the image should be cut. My code looks like this: protected void ConvertToBitmap(string filename) { var origImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(filename); var widthDivisor = (double)origImg.Width / (double)System.Windows.Forms.Screen.PrimaryScreen.Bounds.Width; var heightDivisor = (double)origImg.Height / (double)System.Windows.Forms.Screen.PrimaryScreen.Bounds.Height; int newWidth, newHeight; if (widthDivisor < heightDivisor) { newWidth = (int)((double)origImg.Width / widthDivisor); newHeight = (int)((double)origImg.Height / widthDivisor); } else { newWidth = (int)((double)origImg.Width / heightDivisor); newHeight = (int)((double)origImg.Height / heightDivisor); } var newImg = origImg.GetThumbnailImage(newWidth, newHeight, null, IntPtr.Zero); newImg.Save(this.GetBitmapPath(filename), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp); } In most cases, this works fine. But for some images, the result has an extremely poor quality. It looks like the would have been resized to something very small (thumbnail size) and enlarged again.. But the resolution of the image is correct. What can I do? Example orig image: Example resized image: Note: I have a WPF application but I use the WinForms function for resizing because it's easier and because I already need a reference to System.Windows.Forms for a tray icon.

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  • SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

    - by Anthony
    Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

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  • how to implement a sparse_vector class

    - by Neil G
    I am implementing a templated sparse_vector class. It's like a vector, but it only stores elements that are different from their default constructed value. So, sparse_vector would store the index-value pairs for all indices whose value is not T(). I am basing my implementation on existing sparse vectors in numeric libraries-- though mine will handle non-numeric types T as well. I looked at boost::numeric::ublas::coordinate_vector and eigen::SparseVector. Both store: size_t* indices_; // a dynamic array T* values_; // a dynamic array int size_; int capacity_; Why don't they simply use vector<pair<size_t, T>> data_; My main question is what are the pros and cons of both systems, and which is ultimately better? The vector of pairs manages size_ and capacity_ for you, and simplifies the accompanying iterator classes; it also has one memory block instead of two, so it incurs half the reallocations, and might have better locality of reference. The other solution might search more quickly since the cache lines fill up with only index data during a search. There might also be some alignment advantages if T is an 8-byte type? It seems to me that vector of pairs is the better solution, yet both containers chose the other solution. Why?

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  • Passing Derived Class Instances as void* to Generic Callbacks in C++

    - by Matthew Iselin
    This is a bit of an involved problem, so I'll do the best I can to explain what's going on. If I miss something, please tell me so I can clarify. We have a callback system where on one side a module or application provides a "Service" and clients can perform actions with this Service (A very rudimentary IPC, basically). For future reference let's say we have some definitions like so: typedef int (*callback)(void*); // This is NOT in our code, but makes explaining easier. installCallback(string serviceName, callback cb); // Really handled by a proper management system sendMessage(string serviceName, void* arg); // arg = value to pass to callback This works fine for basic types such as structs or builtins. We have an MI structure a bit like this: Device <- Disk <- MyDiskProvider class Disk : public virtual Device class MyDiskProvider : public Disk The provider may be anything from a hardware driver to a bit of glue that handles disk images. The point is that classes inherit Disk. We have a "service" which is to be notified of all new Disks in the system, and this is where things unravel: void diskHandler(void *p) { Disk *pDisk = reinterpret_cast<Disk*>(p); // Uh oh! // Remainder is not important } SomeDiskProvider::initialise() { // Probe hardware, whatever... // Tell the disk system we're here! sendMessage("disk-handler", reinterpret_cast<void*>(this)); // Uh oh! } The problem is, SomeDiskProvider inherits Disk, but the callback handler can't receive that type (as the callback function pointer must be generic). Could RTTI and templates help here? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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  • WPF - How to stop an ItemsControl psuedo-grid's columns from dancing/jumping around during layout

    - by Drew Noakes
    Several other questions on SO have come to the same conclusion I have -- using an ItemsControl with a DataTemplate for each item constructed to position items such that they resemble a grid is much simpler (especially to format) than using a ListView. The code resembles: <StackPanel Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <!-- Header --> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="Column Header 1" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="Column Header 2" /> </Grid> <!-- Items --> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Values, Mode=OneWay}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty1}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty2}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> The problem I'm seeing is that whenever I swap the object to which the ItemsSource is bound (it's an ObservableCollection that I replace the reference to, rather than clear and re-add), the entire 'grid' dances about for a few seconds. Presumably it is making a few layout passes to get all the Auto-width columns to match up. This is very distracting for my users and I'd like to get it sorted out. Has anyone else seen this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

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  • Using XPath on String in Android (JAVA)

    - by Rav
    I am looking for some examples of using xpath in Android? Or if anyone can share their experiences. I have been struggeling to make tail or head of this problem :-( I have a string that contains a standard xml file. I believe I need to convert that into an xml document. I have found this code which I think will do the trick: public static Document stringToDom(String xmlSource) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); return builder.parse(new InputSource(new StringReader(xmlSource))); } Next steps Assuming the code above is OK, I need to apply xpath to get values from cat: "/animal/mammal/feline/cat" I look at the dev doc here: http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/xml/xpath/XPath.html and also look online, but I am not sure where to start! I have tried to use the following code: XPathFactory xPathFactory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); // To get an instance of the XPathFactory object itself. XPath xPath = xPathFactory.newXPath(); // Create an instance of XPath from the factory class. String expression = "SomeXPathExpression"; XPathExpression xPathExpression = xPath.compile(expression); // Compile the expression to get a XPathExpression object. Object result = xPathExpression.evaluate(xmlDocument); // Evaluate the expression against the XML Document to get the result. But I get "Cannot be resolved". Eclipse doesn't seem to be able to fix this import. I tried manually entering: javax.xml.xpath.XPath But this did not work. Does anyone know any good source code that I can utilise, for Android platform? 1.5

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  • How do I grab and use a variables coming back through ValueList from an AJAX call?

    - by Mel
    I'm trying the following code to execute a search and it's not working. On the search.cfm page, the only value coming back is the value I input into the search field (even if I click an autosuggest value, it's not coming back; only the letters I actually type myself come back). <cfform class="titleSearchForm" id="searchForm" action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" method="post"> <fieldset> <cfinput type="text" class="titleSearchField" name="TitleName" onChange="form.submit()" autosuggest="cfc:gz.cfcomp.search.AutoSuggestSearch({cfautosuggestvalue})"> <input type="button" class="titleSearchButton" value=" " /> </fieldset> </cfform> Query in CFC: <cfquery name="SearchResult" datasource="myDSN"> SELECT CONCAT(titles.TitleName, ' on ', platforms.PlatformAbbreviation) AS sResult, games.GameID FROM games Inner Join platforms ON games.PlatformID = platforms.PlatformID Inner Join titles ON titles.TitleID = games.TitleID WHERE UCase(titleName) LIKE Ucase('#ARGUMENTS.SearchString#%') ORDER BY titleName ASC; </cfquery> Two things: First of all, I would like to get the GameID back to the page making the AJAX request; I know why it is not coming back: Because I'm only returning sResult var, which does not include the GameID. Is there a way to return the GameID value without displaying it? The second thing: How to I grab a value from the auto-suggest once it is returned? Say I want to grab the GameID, or if I can't do that, the "TitleName" to use that in my query? I tried passing it to the form this way: action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" - but that does not work. How do I reference the autosuggestionvalue varaibles for use? Thanks

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  • Technical choices in unmarshaling hash-consed data

    - by Pascal Cuoq
    There seems to be quite a bit of folklore knowledge floating about in restricted circles about the pitfalls of hash-consing combined with marshaling-unmarshaling of data. I am looking for citable references to these tidbits. For instance, someone once pointed me to library aterm and mentioned that the authors had clearly thought about this and that the representation on disk was bottom-up (children of a node come before the node itself in the data stream). This is indeed the right way to do things when you need to re-share each node (with a possible identical node already in memory). This re-sharing pass needs to be done bottom-up, so the unmarshaling itself might as well be, too, so that it's possible to do everything in a single pass. I am in the process of describing difficulties encountered in our own context, and the solutions we found. I would appreciate any citable reference to the kind of aforementioned folklore knowledge. Some people obviously have encountered the problems before (the aterm library is only one example). But I didn't find anything in writing. Even the little piece of information I have about aterm is hear-say. I am not worried it's not reliable (you can't make this up), but "personal communication" and "look how it's done in the source code" are considered poor form in citations. I have enough references on hash-consing alone. I am only interested in references where it interferes with other aspects of programming, such as marshaling or distribution.

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  • Awkward looking uses of Contract.ValueAtReturn()

    - by devoured elysium
    I am designing a method that will add an element to an internal list. The structure of the class is something along the lines of: class MyCustomerDatabase { private IList<Customer> _customers = new List<Customer>(); public int NumberOfCustomers { get { return _customers; } } public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { _customers.Add(customer); } } Now, I was thinking of adding a Contract.Ensures() about the size of the _customers growing by 1 with this call. The problem is that I end up with some weird looking code: public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); _customers.Add(customer); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; } The main problem is that properties are in fact methods, so you can't just reference them direcly when using Contract.ValueAtReturn() as its only parameter accepts variables as out. The situation gets even odder if I want to achieve the same but this time with a method that should return a value: public int MyReturningMethod() { ... return abc(); //abc will add by one the number of customers in list } //gets converted to public int MyReturningMethod() { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); int returnValue = abc(); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; return returnValue; } This seems pretty clumsy :( Code Contracts should aim to get things clearer and this seems right the opposite. Am I doing something wrong? Thanks

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  • pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

    - by jeffn825
    I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • ViewModel Views relation/link/syncroniztion

    - by mehran
    Third try to describing problem: Try 1: Sunchronizing view model and view Try2: WPF ViewModel not active presenter Try3: I have some class for view models: public class Node : INotifyPropertyChanged { Guid NodeId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Connection: INotifyPropertyChanged { public Node StartNode { get; set; } public Node EndNode { get; set; } } public class SettingsPackModel { public List<Node> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<Connection> Connections { get; private set; } } I also have some templates to displays these models: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Node}">…</DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Connection}"> <my:ConnectionElment StartNodeElment="???" EndNodeElment="???"> </my:ConnectionElment> <DataTemplate> But the problem is that DataTemplate for Connection need reference ot two element of type UIElement , how can I pass these two, how can I fill ??? in above expression?

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • Exporting Maven properties from Ant code

    - by Gili
    I've embedded the following code within my POM: <plugin name="test"> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <pathconvert targetos="unix" property="project.build.directory.portable"> <path location="${project.build.directory}"/> </pathconvert> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I then reference ${project.build.directory.portable} from the run project action but it comes back as null. Executing <echo> within the Ant block shows the correct value. What am I doing wrong?

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  • i want to convert my aspx.cs to dll

    - by jay rathod
    i have a default.aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="btn" runat="server" Text="clicke here" OnClick="btn_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lbl"></asp:Label> </div> </div> </form> </body> </html> and default.aspx.cs : public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string test; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { test = txt.Text; lbl.Text = test; } } now i want to make the dll of my default.aspx.cs file and remove it from the website and give the reference of it. so how can i do this??

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