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  • environment change in rake task

    - by Mellon
    I am developing Rails v2.3 app with MySQL database and mysql2 gem. I faced a weird situation which is about changing the environment in rake task. (all my setting and configurations for environment and database are correct, no problem for that.) Here is my simple story : I have a rake task like following: namespace :db do task :do_something => :environment do #1. run under 'development' environment my_helper.run_under_development_env #2. change to 'custom' environment RAILS_ENV='custom' Rake::Task['db:create'] Rake::Task['db:migrate'] #3. change back to 'development' environment RAILS_ENV='development' #4. But it still run in 'customer' environment, why? my_helper.run_under_development_env end end The rake task is quite simple, what it does is: 1. Firstly, run a method from my_helper under "development" environment 2. Then, change to "custom" environment and run db:create and db:migrate until now, everything is fine, the environment did change to "custom" 3. Then, change it back again to "development" environment 4. run helper method again under "development" environment But, though I have changed the environment back to "development" in step 3, the last method still run in "custom" environment, why? and how to get rid of it? --- P.S. --- I have also checked a post with the similar situation here, and tried to use the solution there like (in step 2): ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection('custom') Rake::Task['db:create'] Rake::Task['db:migrate'] to change the database connection instead of changing environment but, the db:create and db:migrate will still run under "development" database, though the linked post said it should run for "custom" database... weird

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  • click event launched only once problem

    - by user281180
    I have a form in which I have many checkboxes. I need to post the data to the controller upon any checkbox checked or unchecked, i.e a click on a checbox must post to the controller, and there is no submit button. What will be the bet method in this case? I have though of Ajax.BeginForm and have the codes below. The problem im having is that the checkbox click event is being detected only once and after that the click event isnt being launched. Why is that so? How can I correct that? <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Edit", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "tests"})) {%> <div id="tests"> <%Html.RenderPartial("Details", Model); %> </div> <input type="submit" value="Save" style="Viibility:hidden" id="myForm"/> <%} %> $(function() { $('input:checkbox').click(function() { $('#myForm').click(); }); });

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • CorePlot linker errors after upgrading iOS SDK

    - by JustinXXVII
    This seems like it's happened before but somehow ended up working itself out. It's happened again and I can't seem to get this fixed. I use the CorePlot Cocoa Touch framework. Everything was fine until I upgraded to the new 4.3 beta. Now my project won't compile, and is giving me linker errors for unknown symbols having to do with CorePlot. I've become a pro at adding the framework to my project, and I've checked and rechecked the instructions trying to do it again. Is there a button I can click or anything to just make this work again? I've used these instructions to try to re-add the framework, to no avail EDIT: By the way, this compiles just fine for simulator and runs graphs no problem. Compiling for the device gives me the linker errors, as follows: "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPPlotRange", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPXYGraph", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPTextStyle", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPLineStyle", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPScatterPlot", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPAxisLabel", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPPlotSymbol", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPColor", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPFill", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_CPDecimalFromFloat", referenced from: -[GraphStatsWindow setNewGraph] in GraphStatsWindow.o -[iPadGraphView viewDidLoad] in iPadGraphView.o -[GraphTrendView setNewGraph] in GraphTrendView.o "_kCPPlainWhiteTheme", referenced from: -[GraphStatsWindow setNewGraph] in GraphStatsWindow.o -[iPadGraphView viewDidLoad] in iPadGraphView.o -[GraphTrendView setNewGraph] in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPTheme", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture armv7

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  • Quality assurance in small developer teams

    - by Kim L
    Ideally, in a project you will developers, testers, QA manager(s) etc which all make their contribution to the quality of the code. But what if you don't have that kind of resources? If you just have, for example, three developers and don't have the resources to hire a full time QA manager, how do you assure that the code quality meets set standards? What kind of things do you pay attention to in quality assurance? Quality isn't just about the code doing what it is supposed to do (code is properly tested with automatic tests). Quality is also about the code being clean (readable, maintainable, well structured, documented, etc). I'm looking forward to hear what kind of processes you have applied to your team to assure that the quality meets the set standards. We've applied a process where we rotate the QA role between the developers. Each developer is responsible for QA one week at a time. Each changeset is revised and checked that existing tests pass, required new tests have been written, that the code is clean and, of course, that the project builds.

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  • How to share data between SSRS Security and Data Processing extension?

    - by user2904681
    I've spent a lot of time trying to solve the issue pointed in title and have no found a solution yet. I use MS SSRS 2012 with custom Security (based on Form Authentication and ClaimsPrincipal) and Data Processing extensions. In Data extension level I need to apply filter programmatically based on one of the claim which I have access in Security extension level only. Here is the problem: I do know how to pass the claim from Security to Data Processing extension code... What I've tried: IAuthenticationExtension.LogonUser(string userName, string password, string authority) { ... ClaimsPrincipal claimsPrincipal = CreateClaimsPrincipal(...); Thread.CurrentPrincipal = claimsPrincipal; HttpContext.Current.User = claimsPrincipal; ... }; But it doesn't work. It seems SSRS overrides it within either GenericPrincipal or FormsIdentity internally. The possible workaround I'm thinking about (but haven't checked it yet): 1. Create HttpModule which will create HttpContext with all required information (minus: will be invoke getting claims each time - huge operation) 2. Write to custom SQL table to store logged users information which is required for Data extension and then read it 3. try somehow to append to cookies due to LogOn and then read each time on IAuthenticationExtension.GetUserInfo and fill HttpContext None of them seems to be a good solution. I would be grateful for any help/advise/comments.

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • How does browser know when to prompt user to save password?

    - by Eric
    This is related to the question I asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2382329/how-can-i-get-browser-to-prompt-to-save-password This is the problem: I CAN'T get my browser to prompt me to save the password for the site I'm developing. (I'm talking about the bar that appears sometimes when you submit a form on Firefox, that says "Remember the password for yoursite.com? Yes / Not now / Never") This is super frustrating because this feature of Firefox (and most other modern browsers, which I hope work in a similar fashion) seems to be a mystery. It's like a magic trick the browser does, where it looks at your code, or what you submit, or something, and if it "looks" like a login form with a username (or email address) field and a password field, it offers to save. Except in this case, where it's not offering my users that option after they use my login form, and it's making me nuts. :-) (I checked my Firefox settings-- I have NOT told the browser "never" for this site. It should be prompting.) My question: exactly what the heuristics are that Firefox (or any other modern browser) uses to know when it should prompt the user to save? This shouldn't be too difficult to answer, since it's right there in the Mozilla source (I don't know where to look or else I'd try to dig it out myself). You'd think there would be a blog post or some other similar developer note from the Mozilla developers about this but I can't find that either. (* Note that if your answer to me has anything to do with cookies, encryption or anything else that is about how I'm storing the user's passwords in the database, you've probably misread my question. :-)

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error: '(function name)' is undefined

    - by Velika2
    Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'txtGivenName_OnFocus' is undefined After adding what I thought was unrelated javascript code to a web page, I am suddenly getting errors that suggest that the browser cannot locate a javascript function that, to me, appears plain as day in design mode. I'm thinking that this is a load sequence order problem of some sort. Originally, my script was at the bottom of the page. I did this with the intent of helping my site's SEO ranking. When I moved the function to the top of the web page, the error went away. Now it is back. I have a feeling someone is going to suggest a jQuery solution to execute some code only when the page is fully loaded. I'm I ignorant of jQuery. IfjQuery is given in the answer, please explain what I need to do (references, placement of script files) for VS 2010 RTM. I am trying to set the focus to the first textbox on the webpage and preselect all of the text in the textbox More info: If I disable this Validator, the problem goes away: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Required" ClientValidationFunction="txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate" Display="Dynamic" Enabled="False"></asp:CustomValidator> function txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate(source, args) { var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%=optOccupationRetired.ClientID %>"); if (optOccupationRetired.checked) { args.IsValid = true; } else { var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%=txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientID %>"); args.IsValid = ValidatorTrim(txtSpecifyOccupation.value) != ""; } }

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  • MVC.NET custom validator is not working

    - by IvanMushketyk
    I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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  • Telerik vs. Infragistics for Silverlight

    - by JeffN825
    Yes, this is certainly a duplicate question, but I wanted to get some fresh takes. My impression is that Telerik is a much more complete suite, but I'm really really turned off by the responsiveness of their controls. It just seems "clunky" in terms of responsiveness (I have a very fast computer and video card). Scrolling in a grid and transitions chunk, even in their latest demos where they claim to have good performance. I do like that their WPF suite matches their SL one in terms of API. Infragistics has fewer controls and less theming possibilities, but their controls are very responsive. Scrolling in a grid is fluid, as are their combo menus and all the other controls. I checked out ComponentOne and their controls seem analogous to Telerik's in terms of the points mentioned above but are a little less "pretty". Any thoughts from other users of these suites? Basically, what I'm looking for is a suite that will be highly performant and responsive, relatively customizable from a theming standpoint, and have enough functionality to develop a LOB SL application without having to use multiple suites to satisfy the majority of common requirements.

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  • Why doesn't my Unity DependencyResolver work on shared hosting but works locally?

    - by frennky
    I'm trying to deploy ASP.NET MVC 3 application wich uses Unity as a IoC container. Application works fine on local server, but when deployed it throws an exception: No parameterless constructor defined for this object. And this is thrown for a controller that should get some repository injected by my Unity DependencyResolver. I've installed Unity with NuGet so it should be referenced directly, and I've checked that it gets copied to bin folder. Edit: Here's the stack trace: [MissingMethodException: No parameterless constructor defined for this object.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +98 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +241 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +69 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerActivator.Create(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +67 [InvalidOperationException: An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'nBlog.Controllers.HomeController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerActivator.Create(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +182 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +80 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +74 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +196 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClass6.<BeginProcessRequest>b__2() +49 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClassb`1.<ProcessInApplicationTrust>b__a() +13 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.<GetCallInAppTrustThunk>b__0(Action f) +7 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.ProcessInApplicationTrust(Action action) +22 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.ProcessInApplicationTrust(Func`1 func) +124 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +98 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +50 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, Object extraData) +16 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8841400 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +18 Anyone have an idea what might be the problem?

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  • what's an effective way to build a csproj file in C#?

    - by jcollum
    I'd like to avoid a command line for this. I've been using the MSBuild API ( Microsoft.Build.Framework and Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine) with code that looks like this: this.buildEngine = new Engine(); BuildPropertyGroup props = new BuildPropertyGroup(); props.SetProperty("Configuration", "Debug"); this.buildEngine.RegisterLogger(this.logger); Project proj = new Project(this.buildEngine); proj.LoadXml(this.projectFileAndPath, ProjectLoadSettings.None); this.buildEngine.BuildProject(proj, "Build"); However I've run into enough problems that I can't find answers for that I'm really wondering if I'm doing this right. First, I can't find the output (there's no bin directory in any of the places where I figured the dll's would end up). Second, I tried building a project that I had made in VS2008 and the line proj.LoadXml( fails for invalid xml encoding. But of course the xml file is valid, since VS2008 can build it (I checked). At this point I'm beginning to wonder if I've picked up some code that's way out of date or a methodology that's been superseded by something else. Opinions?

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  • Problem while executing test case in VS2008 test project

    - by sukumar
    Hi all I have the situation as follows I have develpoed one test project in visual studio 2008 to test my target project. I was getting the following exception when i ran test case in my PC System.IO.FileNotFoundException: The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) at System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoadFrom(String assemblyFile, Evidence securityEvidence, Byte[] hashValue, AssemblyHashAlgorithm hashAlgorithm, Boolean forIntrospection, StackCrawlMark& stackMark) at System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom(String assemblyFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestTypes.Unit.UnitTestExecuter.GetType(UnitTestElement unitTest, String type) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestTypes.Unit.UnitTestExecuter.ResolveMethods(). but the same project runs successfully in my colleague PC. as per my Understanding System.IO.FileNotFoundException will occur in case of missing out the dlls. i checked up with dependency walker to trace out the missed dll.dependency walke traced out the following dlls 1)MFC90D.dll 2)mSvcr90d.dll 3)msvcp90d.dll i copied this dlls to C:\windows\system32 from Microsoft visual studio 9.0 dir and again i ran the dependency walker.this time dependency walker is able to open the given testproject dll with 0 errors .even then the same exception comes up when i ran the test. i got fed up with this. can any one tell why it is behaving as PC dependent.is there any thing that i still missing? any suggestion can be helpfull Thakns in Advance Sukumar i

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  • VS2008 DataSet Wizard doesn't match tables for updating

    - by James H
    Hi all, first question ever on this site. I've been having a real stubborn problem using Visual Studio 2008 and I'm hoping someone has figured this out before. I have 2 libraries and 1 project that use strongly typed datasets (MSSQL backend) that I generated using the "Configure DataSet with Wizard" option on in Data Sources. I've had them working just fine for awhile and I've written a lot of code in the non-designer file for the row classes. I've also specified a lot of custom queries using the dataset designer. This is all work I can't afford to loose. I've recently made some changes to re-organize my libraries which included changing the names of the libraries themselves. I also changed the connection string to point to a different database which is a development copy (same exact schema). Problem is now when I open up "Configure DataSet with Wizard" to pickup a new column I've added to one of the tables it no longer matches the tables correctly in the wizard. The wizard displays all of the tables in the database and none of them have check boxes next to them (ie: are not part of this dataset). Below those it shows all of the tables again but with red Xs and these are checked. Basically meaning that Visual Studio sees all of the tables it currently has in the DataSet and sees all of the tables in the database, but believes they are no longer the same and thus do not match! I've had this same thing happen quite awhile back and I think I just re-built the xsd from scratch and manually copied the code over and then had to redefine all of the custom queries I built in the dataset designer. That's not a good solution. I'm looking for 2 answers: 1. What causes this to happen and how to prevent it. 2. How do I fix this so that the wizard once again believes the tables in its xsd are the same tables that are in the database (yes, they have the exact same names still). Thanks.

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  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

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  • MapKit custom annotations being added to map, but are not visible on the map

    - by culov
    I learned a lot from the screencast at http://icodeblog.com/2009/12/21/introduction-to-mapkit-in-iphone-os-3-0/ , and ive been trying to incorporate the way he creates a custom annotation into my iphone app. He is hardcoding annotations and adding them individually to the map, whereas i want to add them from my data source. So i have an array of objects with a lat and a lng (ive checked that the values are within range and ought to be appearing on the map) that i iterate through and do [mapView addAnnotation:truck] once this process is completed, i check the number of annotations on the map with [[mapView annotations] count] and its equal to the number it ought to be, so all the annotations are getting added onto the mapView, but for some reason I cant see any annotations in the simulator. I've compared my code with his in all the pertinent places many times, but nothing seems to stand out as being incorrect. Ive also reviewed my code for the last several hours trying to find a point where I do something wrong, but nothing is coming to mind. The images are named just as they are assigned in the custom AnnotationView, the loadAnnotation function is done properly, etc... i dont know what it could be. so i suppose if i could have the answer to one question it would be, what are possible causes for a mapView to contain several annotations, but to not show any on the map? Thanks

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  • Office Automation: What does destroy my encoding?

    - by Filburt
    I'm facing a problem with a Word Mail Merge Automation controlled by our CRM system. The setup Base for the Mail Merge is a Word .dot template which fires a macro on Document.New. Inside this macro I create a .Net component registered for COM. Set myCOMObject = CreateObject("MyCOMObject") The component pulls some data from a database and hands string values which are assigned to Word DocumentVariables. Set someClass = myCOMObject.GetSomeClass(123) ActiveDocument.Variables("docaddress") = someClass.GetSenderAddress(456) All string values returned from the component are encoded in UTF-8 (codepage 1200). What happens The problem arises when the CRM system calls Word to perform the Mail Merge: The string values from the component are turned into UTF-8 encoded strings. All the static text inside the template and the data pulled for the Mail Merge stay nicely encoded in UTF-16 - example the umlaut ü inside my DocumentVariables is turned into c3 b0 while it stays fc for the rest of the document (checked file in hex editor). If I'm creating a document from a template with the same macro functionallity but without performing a Mail Merge all strings are fine; i.e. are encoded in UTF-16. What changed According to the CRM software vendor the encoding of the Mail Merge data export was changed to UTF-16 with the new version we're currently testing. I found out that MS states that you'll expirience issues when the document and the Mail Merge data file encoding don't match. What I tried Since I'm assuming to merge with UTF-16 encoded data I added the following lines to my macro: ActiveDocument.TextEncoding = msoEncodingWestern ActiveDocument.SaveEncoding = msoEncodingUnicodeLittleEndian This is what the Mail Merge data document specifies in its document properties.

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  • Bootstrapper (setup.exe) says ".NET 3.5 not found" but launching .msi directly installs application

    - by Marek
    Our installer generates a bootstrapper (setup.exe) and a MSI file - a pretty common scenario. One of the production machines reports a strange problem during install: If the user launches the bootstrapper (setup.exe), it reports that .NET 3.5 is not installed. This happens with account under administator group. No matter if they launch it as administrator or not, same behavior. the application installs fine when application.msi or OurInstallLauncher.exe (see below for explanation) is started directly no matter if run as administrator is applied. We have checked that .NET is installed on the machine (both 64bit and 32bit "versions" = under both C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64 and C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework there is a folder named v3.5. This happens on a 64 bit Windows 7. I can not reproduce it on my development 64 bit Windows 7. On Windows XP and Vista, it has worked without any problem for a long time so far. Part of our build script that declares the GenerateBootStrapper task (nothing special): <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Windows.Installer.3.1"> <ProductName>Microsoft Windows Installer 3.1</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5"> <ProductName>Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> </ItemGroup> <GenerateBootstrapper ApplicationFile=".\Files\OurInstallLauncher.exe" ApplicationName="App name" Culture="en" ComponentsLocation ="HomeSite" CopyComponents="True" Validate="True" BootstrapperItems="@(BootstrapperFile)" OutputPath="$(OutSubDir)" Path="$(SdkBootstrapperPath)" /> Note: OurInstallLauncher.exe is language selector that applies a transform to the msi based on user selection. This is not relevant to the question at all because the installer never gets as far as launching this exe! It displays that .NET 3.5 is missing right after starting setup.exe. Has anyone seen this behavior before?

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  • My Rails app is returning HTTP 500 for all its URLs, but nothing shows up in the log file. How can I

    - by mipadi
    I have a Rails app that is running on a production server with Apache and Phusion Passenger. The app works fine locally when using Mongrel, but whenever I try to load a URL on the production server, it returns HTTP 500. I know the server is working properly, because I can get the static elements of the application (e.g., JavaScript files, stylesheets, images) just fine. I've also checked the Passenger status and it is loading the app (it must be, since the app's 500 Internal Server Error page is returned, not just the default Apache one). Also, when I load the app via script/console production and do something like app.get("/"), 500 is also returned. The problem is that there is nothing in the log files to indicate the problem. production.log is empty. The Apache error logs show no problems with Apache, either. I'm stumped as to what's going on and I'm not sure how to diagnose the problem. I know I may have been a bit vague, but can anyone give a suggestion on what the problem may be? Or at least a way I can go about diagnosing it?

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  • Cocoa App with Python extension which use Scipy -> ImportError: No module named scipy

    - by Snej
    Hi: I have installed Scipy (via macports) for Python on my Mac and it runs fine when running Python scripts. But now I'm using Scipy (via PyObjc) for calculations embedded in a Cocoa App frontend. The following error occurs: ImportError: No module named scipy I am using the "Python.framework" in XCode. Does anybody know why Scipy module is not found? I even added it manually to the module search path via sys.path.append("/opt/local/var/macports/software/py26-scipy/0.7.1_0+gcc43/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/") EDIT: I found the problem myself. The path should be without "/scipy" at the end. But now I got an architecture problem: ImportError: dlopen(/opt/local/var/macports/software/py26-scipy/0.7.1_0+gcc43/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/fftpack/_fftpack.so, 2): no suitable image found. Did find: /opt/local/var/macports/software/py26-scipy/0.7.1_0+gcc43/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/fftpack/_fftpack.so: mach-o, but wrong architecture EDIT 2: I checked the architectures: Yes, sure it is an architecture problem. But when I run: file /opt/local/var/macports/software/py26-scipy/0.7.1_0+gcc43/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/fftpack/_fftpack.so I get a result Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64. And the Mac OS 10.6 PYTHON is: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures /usr/bin/python (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit executable x86_64 /usr/bin/python (for architecture i386): Mach-O executable i386 /usr/bin/python (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O executable ppc I build the XCode project as x86_64.

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  • if (i == 2) or if (2 == i) ?

    - by Maroloccio
    I usually use if (i == 2) in preference to if (2 == i) On occasion, I would switch things around when writing xUnit-type tests from scratch so as to follow the assertion convention of "expected" preceding "actual". When adding to existing unit tests, I always follow the style I find. No matter what, I always try to keep things consistent. Today I checked out some code with a lot of "if (2 == i)" and started wondering: which style is more "popular" nowadays? is popularity language-dependent? The latter probably because I am aware of why the "if (2 == i)" became common in the first place (C heritage) and because I see some languages go as far as disallowing assignments within conditions (e.g. Python). I thought about downloading some sources: apt-get source linux-source eclipse openoffice.org expanding them and performing a quick grep: grep --color --include=*.java --include=*.c -ERI \ "if[[:space:]]*\([[:space:]]*[[:digit:]]+[[:space:]]==" . or creating a quick "poll": http://goo.gl/mod/ciMF after a bit of searching and asking around, I am still not sure. So I am asking you: which way to go?

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  • Flex special characters not embedding

    - by Hanpan
    Hi, I am using the following code to embed Arial into my application: [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_BOLD:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Italic.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular',fontStyle="italic", unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_ITALIC:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold Italic.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold',fontStyle="italic", unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_ITALIC_BOLD:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Unicode.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_UNICODE:Class; It's working fine for foreign characters, but no special characters (copyright, trademark, euro sign etc) are working. Can anyone help? I've checked my unicode ranges, they should work fine!

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  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

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  • Listing directories in Linux from C

    - by nunos
    I am trying to simulate linux command ls using linux api from c. Looking at the code it does make sense, but when I run it I get "stat error: No such file or directory". I have checked that opendir is working ok. I think the problem is in stat, which is returning -1 even though I think it should return 0. What am I missing? Thanks for your help. #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> #include <dirent.h> #include <sys/stat.h> #include <errno.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { DIR *dirp; struct dirent *direntp; struct stat stat_buf; char *str; if (argc != 2) { fprintf( stderr, "Usage: %s dir_name\n", argv[0]); exit(1); } if ((dirp = opendir( argv[1])) == NULL) { perror(argv[1]); exit(2); } while ((direntp = readdir( dirp)) != NULL) { if (stat(direntp->d_name, &stat_buf)==-1) { perror("stat ERROR"); exit(3); } if (S_ISREG(stat_buf.st_mode)) str = "regular"; else if (S_ISDIR(stat_buf.st_mode)) str = "directory"; else str = "other"; printf("%-25s - %s\n", direntp->d_name, str); } closedir(dirp); exit(0); }

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