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  • What happened to the .NET version definition with v4.0?

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I'm building a C# class library, and using the beta 2 of Visual Web Developer/Visual C# 2010. I'm trying to save information about what version of .NET the library was built under. In the past, I was able to use this: // What version of .net was it built under? #if NET_1_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.0"; #elif NET_1_1 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.1"; #elif NET_2_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 2.0"; #elif NET_3_5 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 3.5"; #else public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET version unknown"; #endif So I figured I could just add: #elif NET_4_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 4.0"; Now, in Project-Properties, my target Framework is ".NET Framework 4". If I check: Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().ImageRuntimeVersion I can see my runtime version is v4.0.21006 (so I know I have .NET 4.0 installed on my CPU). I naturally expect to see that my NETFrameworkVersion variable holds ".NET 4.0". It does not. It holds ".NET version unknown". So my question is, why is NET_4_0 not defined? Did the naming convention change? Is there some simple other way to determine .NET framework build version in versions 3.5?

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  • Why is my PHP string being converted to 1?

    - by animuson
    Ok, so here's the quick rundown. I have a function to generate the page numbers. This: <?php die($ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true)); ?> will output Single Page like expected. But this: <?php $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ?> <?= $page_numbers ?> will output a simple 1 to the page. Why is it getting converted to a 1? I would expect it to store the 'Single Page' string to the page_numbers variable and then output it (like an echo) exactly the same. EDIT: Running a var_dump($page_numbers) returns int(1)... Here is the entire function in context: <?php // other functions... function show_list() { global $ani; $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ob_start(); ?> <!-- content:start --> <?php $archive_result = $ani->e->db->build(array("select" => "*", "from" => "animuson_archive", "orderby" => "0-time", "limit" => 15)); while ($archive = $ani->e->db->fetch($archive_result)) { ?> <h2><a href="/archive/article/<?= $archive['aid'] ?>/<?= $archive['title_nice'] ?>"><?= $archive['title'] ?></a></h2> <!-- breaker --> <?php } ?> <?= var_dump($page_numbers) ?> <!-- content:stop --> <?php $ani->e->tmpl->process("box", ob_get_clean()); } // other functions... ?>

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  • Common lisp, CFFI, and instantiating c structs

    - by andrew
    Hi, I've been on google for about, oh, 3 hours looking for a solution to this "problem." I'm trying to figure out how to instantiate a C structure in lisp using CFFI. I have a struct in c: struct cpVect{cpFloat x,y;} Simple right? I have auto-generated CFFI bindings (swig, I think) to this struct: (cffi:defcstruct #.(chipmunk-lispify "cpVect" 'classname) (#.(chipmunk-lispify "x" 'slotname) :double) (#.(chipmunk-lispify "y" 'slotname) :double)) This generates a struct "VECT" with slots :X and :Y, which foreign-slot-names confirms (please note that I neither generated the bindings or programmed the C library (chipmunk physics), but the actual functions are being called from lisp just fine). I've searched far and wide, and maybe I've seen it 100 times and glossed over it, but I cannot figure out how to create a instance of cpVect in lisp to use in other functions. Note the function: cpShape *cpPolyShapeNew(cpBody *body, int numVerts, cpVect *verts, cpVect offset) Takes not only a cpVect, but also a pointer to a set of cpVects, which brings me to my second question: how do I create a pointer to a set of structs? I've been to http://common-lisp.net/project/cffi/manual/html_node/defcstruct.html and tried the code, but get "Error: Unbound variable: PTR" (I'm in Clozure CL), not to mention that looks to only return a pointer, not an instance. I'm new to lisp, been going pretty strong so far, but this is the first real problem I've hit that I can't figure out. Thanks!

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  • Why does C++ not allow multiple types in one auto statement?

    - by Walter
    The 2011 C++ standard introduced the new keyword auto, which can be used for defining variables instead of a type, i.e. auto p=make_pair(1,2.5); // pair<int,double> auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c); // decltype(std::begin(c)) In the second line, i and end are of the same type, referred to as auto. The standard does not allow auto i=std::begin(container), e=std::end(container), x=*i; when x would be of different type. My question: why does the standard not allow this last line? It could be allowed by interpreting auto not as representing some to-be-decuded type, but as indicating that the type of any variable declared auto shall be deduced from its assigned value. Is there any good reason for the C++11 standard to not follow this approach? There is actually a use case for this, namely in the initialisation statement of for loops: for(auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c), x=*i; i!=end; ++i, x+=*i) { ... } when the scope of the variables i, end, and x is limited to the for loop. AFAIK, this cannot be achieved in C++ unless those variables have a common type. Is this correct? (ugly tricks of putting all types inside a struct excluded) There may also be use cases in some variadic template applications.

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  • python packaging causes importerror

    - by Absolute0
    I am getting an annoying import error when I try to import a variable in an init.py file. I have attached the files involved and my directory structure: #/home/me/app/app/__init__.py from flaskext.sqlalchemy import SQLAlchemy db = SQLAlchemy(app) #/home/me/app/app/models/__init__.py from datetime import datetime from app import db #shell [me@archlinux app]$ pwd /home/me/app [me@archlinux app]$ ./manage.py /home/me/app/app/__init__.pyc Traceback (most recent call last): File "./manage.py", line 7, in <module> from app import app File "/home/me/app/app/__init__.py", line 3, in <module> from app.views.post import post File "/home/me/app/app/views/post.py", line 4, in <module> from app.models import Post File "/home/me/app/app/models/__init__.py", line 5, in <module> from app import db ImportError: cannot import name db [me@archlinux app]$ tree . +-- apikey.txt +-- manage.py +-- app ¦   +-- forms ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   +-- __init__.pyc ¦   +-- models ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.pyc ¦   +-- static ¦   ¦   +-- css ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- style.css ¦   ¦   +-- images ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- favicon.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- logo.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- text_logo.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_down_active.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_down_inactive.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_up_active.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_up_inactive.png ¦   ¦   +-- js ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- index.js ¦   ¦   +-- sitemap.xml ¦   +-- templates ¦   ¦   +-- 404.html ¦   ¦   +-- 500.html ¦   ¦   +-- about.html ¦   ¦   +-- base.html ¦   ¦   +-- feedback ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- feedback_form.html ¦   ¦   +-- form.html ¦   ¦   +-- posts ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- comment.html ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- post.html ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- posts.html ¦   ¦   +-- spam.html ¦   ¦   +-- terms.html ¦   ¦   +-- users ¦   ¦   +-- login_form.html ¦   ¦   +-- sign_up_form.html ¦   +-- util ¦   ¦   +-- forms.py ¦   ¦   +-- honeypot.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   ¦   +-- json_http.py ¦   ¦   +-- models.py ¦   ¦   +-- spam.py ¦   +-- views ¦   +-- feedback.py ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   +-- __init__.pyc ¦   +-- post.py ¦   +-- post.pyc ¦   +-- user.py +-- settings.py +-- settings.pyc +-- TiddlyWiki.html 13 directories, 49 files What might be the problem?

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  • Action Mailer: How do I render dynamic data in an email body that is stored in the database?

    - by Brandon Toone
    I have Action Mailer setup to render an email using the body attribute of my Email model (in the database). I want to be able to use erb in the body but I can't figure out how to get it to render in the sent email message. I'm able to get the body as a string with this code # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # pulls the email body and passes a string to the template views/user_mailer/customer_email.text.html.erb body :msg => email.body end I came across this article http://rails-nutshell.labs.oreilly.com/ch05.html which says I can use render but I'm only able to get render :text to work and not render :inline # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # body :msg => email.body body :msg => (render :text => "Thanks for your order") # renders text and passes as a variable to the template # body :msg => (render :inline => "We shipped <%= Time.now %>") # throws a NoMethodError end

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  • Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

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  • PHP Redirection with Post Parameters

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have a webpage. This webpage redirects the user to another webpage, more or less the following way: <form method="post" action="anotherpage.php" id="myform"> <?php foreach($_GET as $key => $value){ echo "<input type='hidden' name='{$key}' value='{$value}' />"; } ?> </form> <script> document.getElementById('myform').submit(); </script> Well, you see, what I do is transferring the GET params into POST params. Do not tell me it is bad, I know that myself, and it is not exactly what I really do, what is important is that I collect data from an array and try submitting it to another page via POST. But if the user has JavaScript turned off, it won't work. What I need to know: Is there a way to transfer POST parameters by means of PHP so the redirection can be done the PHP way (header('Location: anotherpage.php');), too? It is very important for me to pass the params via POST. I cannot use the $_SESSION variable because the webpage is on another domain, thus, the $_SESSION variables differ. Anyway, I simply need a way to transfer POST variables with PHP ^^ Thanks in advance!

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  • Does Perl auto-vivify variables used as references in subroutine calls?

    - by FM
    I've declared 2010 to be the year of higher-order programming, so I'm learning Haskell. The introduction has a slick quick-sort demo, and I thought, "Hey, that's easy to do in Perl". It turned to be easier than I expected. Note that I don't have to worry about whether my partitions ($less and $more) are defined. Normally you can't use an undefined value as an array reference. use strict; use warnings; use List::MoreUtils qw(part); my @data = (5,6,7,4,2,9,10,9,5,1); my @sorted = qsort(@data); print "@sorted\n"; sub qsort { return unless @_; my $pivot = shift @_; my ($less, $more) = part { $_ < $pivot ? 0 : 1 } @_; # Works, even though $less and $more are sometimes undefined. return qsort(@$less), $pivot, qsort(@$more); } As best I can tell, Perl will auto-vivify a variable that you try to use as a reference -- but only if you are passing it to a subroutine. For example, my call to foo() works, but not the attempted print. use Data::Dumper qw(Dumper); sub foo { print "Running foo(@_)\n" } my ($x); print Dumper($x); # Fatal: Can't use an undefined value as an ARRAY reference. # print @$x, "\n"; # But this works. foo(@$x); # Auto-vivification: $x is now []. print Dumper($x); My questions: Am I understanding this behavior correctly? What is the explanation or reasoning behind why Perl does this? Is this behavior explained anywhere in the docs?

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  • How to customize data points on a Flex graph?

    - by Jess
    I have an area graph and I'm looking to have the data points to be shown. I have a CircleItemRenderer, but this shows all of the datapoints in the default stroke and fill. 1) How do I customize the display of my CircleItemRenderer? (instead of it having an orange fill, how can I change the color? 2) How can I decide to show the node for specific data points but not for others? For example, in my .XML file that imports the data for the graph, I may have a variable show_data_point which is true or false. Here's the current code I have: <mx:AreaSeries yField="numbers" form="segment" displayName="area graph" areaStroke = "{darkblue}" areaFill="{blue}" > <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:CircleItemRenderer/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:AreaSeries> </mx:series> Thanks a lot for your help!

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  • Why does one of these statements compile in Scala but not the other?

    - by Jeff
    (Note: I'm using Scala 2.7.7 here, not 2.8). I'm doing something pretty simple -- creating a map based on the values in a simple, 2-column CSV file -- and I've completed it easily enough, but I'm perplexed at why my first attempt didn't compile. Here's the code: // Returns Iterator[String] private def getLines = Source.fromFile(csvFilePath).getLines // This doesn't compile: def mapping: Map[String,String] = { Map(getLines map { line: String => val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() }.toList:_*) } // This DOES compile def mapping: Map[String,String] = { def strPair(line: String): (String,String) = { val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() } Map(getLines.map( strPair(_) ).toList:_*) } The compiler error is CsvReader.scala:16: error: value toList is not a member of (St ring) = (java.lang.String, java.lang.String) [scalac] possible cause: maybe a semicolon is missing before `value toList'? [scalac] }.toList:_*) [scalac] ^ [scalac] one error found So what gives? They seem like they should be equivalent to me, apart from the explicit function definition (vs. anonymous in the nonworking example) and () vs. {}. If I replace the curly braces with parentheses in the nonworking example, the error is "';' expected, but 'val' found." But if I remove the local variable definition and split the string twice AND use parens instead of curly braces, it compiles. Can someone explain this difference to me, preferably with a link to Scala docs explaining the difference between parens and curly braces when used to surround method arguments?

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  • clojure: ExceptionInInitializerError in Namespace.<init> loading from a non-default classpath

    - by Charles Duffy
    In attempting to load an AOT-compiled class from a non-default classpath, I receive the following exception: Traceback (innermost last): File "test.jy", line 10, in ? at clojure.lang.Namespace.<init>(Namespace.java:34) at clojure.lang.Namespace.findOrCreate(Namespace.java:176) at clojure.lang.Var.internPrivate(Var.java:149) at aot_demo.JavaClass.<clinit>(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:247) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError: java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError I'm able to reproduce this with the following trivial project.clj: (defproject aot-demo "0.1.0-SNAPSHOT" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.3.0"]] :aot [aot-demo.core]) ...and src/aot_demo/core.clj defined as follows: (ns aot-demo.core (:gen-class :name aot_demo.JavaClass :methods [#^{:static true} [lower [java.lang.String] java.lang.String]])) (defn -lower [str] (.toLower str)) The following Jython script is then sufficient to trigger the bug: #!/usr/bin/jython import java.lang.Class import java.net.URLClassLoader import java.net.URL import os cl = java.net.URLClassLoader( [java.net.URL('file://%s/target/aot-demo-0.1.0-SNAPSHOT-standalone.jar' % (os.getcwd()))]) java.lang.Class.forName('aot_demo.JavaClass', True, cl) However, the exception does not occur if the test script is started with the uberjar already in the CLASSPATH variable. What's going on here? I'm trying to write a plugin for the BaseX database in Clojure; the above accurately represents how their plugin-loading mechanism works for the purpose of providing a SSCE for this problem.

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  • SQL Distinct keyword in assignment statement

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that works: DECLARE @ProductID int SET @ProductID = '1234' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 a.ProductID FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE b.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID It returns a list of 12 product numbers, all unique. I need to store these results in a variable, comma separated, because that's what 3rd party stored procedure needs. So I have this: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Now, none of these are distinct, but it is returning 12 rows. Now I add the 'distinct' back in, like in the first query: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Only one product is returned in the comma separated list! Does 'distinct' not work in assignment statements? What did I do wrong? Or is there a way to get around this? Thanks in advance!

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  • Scrollbars in ScrollView not showing after custom child view changes size

    - by Ted Hopp
    I have a ScrollView containing a client that is a vertical LinearLayout. The client, in turn, contains custom views that change height dynamically as a background thread does some work. The problem I'm having is that the ScrollView's vertical scroll bar is not updating correctly in Android 1.5. The most common problem occurs when the initial total height of the client is less than the viewport and grows. Initially there is no scroll bar, and it does not show up when the client grows until I actually scroll the window with a touch gesture or other UI action. After that, the scroll bar shows up. However, the thumb does not update as the height continues to change from the background thread. If I scroll the view again through the UI, the thumb immediately corrects itself. My code for updating the height from the background thread is: post(mLayoutRequestor); postInvalidate(); (mLayoutRequestor is a Runnable that just calls requestLayout().) This is done after I've recorded the new height in a variable mHeight. My onMeasure() method calls setMeasuredDimension with a height computed like this: private int measureHeight(int measureSpec) { int result; int specMode = MeasureSpec.getMode(measureSpec); int specSize = MeasureSpec.getSize(measureSpec); if (specMode == MeasureSpec.EXACTLY) { result = specSize; } else { result = mHeight; if (specMode == MeasureSpec.AT_MOST && result > specSize) result = specSize; } return result; } Am I supposed to be calling something else besides requestLayout() to get the scroll bar to update correctly?

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  • Scheme: what are the benefits of letrec?

    - by Ixmatus
    While reading "The Seasoned Schemer" I've begun to learn about letrec. I understand what it does (can be duplicated with a Y-Combinator) but the book is using it in lieu of recurring on the already defined function operating on arguments that remain static. An example of an old function using the defined function recurring on itself (nothing special): (define (substitute new old lat) (cond ((null? l) '()) ((eq? (car l) old) (cons new (substitute new old (cdr l)))) (else (cons (car l) (substitute new old (cdr l)))))) Now for an example of that same function but using letrec: (define (substitute new old lat) (letrec ((replace (lambda (l) (cond ((null? l) '()) ((eq? (car l) old) (cons new (replace (cdr l)))) (else (cons (car l) (replace (cdr l)))))))) (replace lat))) Aside from being slightly longer and more difficult to read I don't know why they are rewriting functions in the book to use letrec. Is there a speed enhancement when recurring over a static variable this way because you don't keep passing it?? Is this standard practice for functions with arguments that remain static but one argument that is reduced (such as recurring down the elements of a list)? Some input from more experienced Schemers/LISPers would help!

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  • MySQL Normalization stored procedure performance

    - by srkiNZ84
    Hi, I've written a stored procedure in MySQL to take values currently in a table and to "Normalize" them. This means that for each value passed to the stored procedure, it checks whether the value is already in the table. If it is, then it stores the id of that row in a variable. If the value is not in the table, it stores the newly inserted value's id. The stored procedure then takes the id's and inserts them into a table which is equivalent to the original de-normailized table, but this table is fully normalized and consists of mainly foreign keys. My problem with this design is that the stored procedure takes approximately 10ms or so to return, which is too long when you're trying to work through some 10million records. My suspicion is that the performance is to do with the way in which I'm doing the inserts. i.e. INSERT INTO TableA (first_value) VALUES (argument_from_sp) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE id=LAST_INSERT_ID(id); SET @TableAId = LAST_INSERT_ID(); The "ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE" is a bit of a hack, due to the fact that on a duplicate key I don't want to update anything but rather just return the id value of the row. If you miss this step though, the LAST_INSERT_ID() function returns the wrong value when you're trying to run the "SET ..." statement. Does anyone know of a better way to do this in MySQL? Thank you

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  • Bind button visibility to the expresion (C#)

    - by drasto
    I have a delete button in each row of GridView (component ASP.NET). I want some of the delete buttons to be invisible. The visibility of the delete button should depend on the data that are back the row. GridView is backed by EntityDataSource. GridView displays entities called Category, one instance in each row. Entity Category has (besides others) also a field of type EntityCollection. Name of that field is Items. Basically I want to allow user to delete a row only if the Items field of backing Category entity is an empty collection. I cannot make up the binding of Visible property. I have no experience with bindings and Google does not really help. This is how the button looks right now: <asp:Button ID="DeleteButton" runat="server" CommandName="Delete" Text="Delete" Visible=??? ></asp:Button> I don't know what should replace ???. The button schold be visible only when this expression evaluates to true: ((SimpleEShop.Model.Category) dataItem).Items.LongCount() <= 0 where dataItem variable contains data of current row in the table. What is the binding that I need ?

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  • How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

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  • When do instance variables get initialized and values assigned?

    - by AKh
    When doees the instance variable get initialized? Is it after the constructor block is done or before it? Consider this example: public abstract class Parent { public Parent(){ System.out.println("Parent Constructor"); init(); } public void init(){ System.out.println("parent Init()"); } } public class Child extends Parent { private Integer attribute1; private Integer attribute2 = null; public Child(){ super(); System.out.println("Child Constructor"); } public void init(){ System.out.println("Child init()"); super.init(); attribute1 = new Integer(100); attribute2 = new Integer(200); } public void print(){ System.out.println("attribute 1 : " +attribute1); System.out.println("attribute 2 : " +attribute2); } } public class Tester { public static void main(String[] args) { Parent c = new Child(); ((Child)c).print(); } } OUTPUT: Parent Constructor Child init() parent Init() Child Constructor attribute 1 : 100 attribute 2 : null When the memory for the atribute 1 & 2 are allocated in the heap ? Curious to know why is attribute 2 is NULL ? Are there any design flaws?

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  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

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  • jquery ajax post and response evaluation

    - by Rami
    Hello people, i am relatively new to javascript and jquery in particular, so please bear with me, i am trying to loop through multiple s and then serialize() the data with jquery and post it using ajax to my page, this's happening alright, and the data is posted, and my php script echos 1 and everything is taken care off, but for some strange reason, the following code is not working, specially the "success" variable, it's not increasing at all! would you please help me? $('.submitB').click(function(){ var success = 0; var times = 0; var alertText; $('.input').each(function(){ times++; var serializedForms = $(this).serialize(); $.post('<?=$this->config->site_url()?>crud/additem/forms', serializedForms ,function(data){ if (data) { success++; } }); }); if (times) { alertText = "?? ????? " + success + " ???? ?? ??? " + times + " ?????."; alert(alertText); } }) the Arabic text just says "success + Entries from + times + were entered successfully".. thank you in advance.

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  • UITableViewCell imageView images loading small even when they are the correct size!

    - by Alex Barlow
    Im having an issue whilst loading images into a UITableViewCell after an asynchronous download and placement into an UIImage variable.. The images appear smaller than they actually are! But when scrolled down and scrolled back up to the image, or the whole table is reloaded, they appear at the correct size... Here is a code excerpt... - (void)reviewImageDidLoad:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ThumbDownloader *thumbDownloader = [imageDownloadsInProgress objectForKey:indexPath]; if (thumbDownloader != nil) { UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:thumbDownloader.indexPathInTableView]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 0.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; cell.imageView.image = thumbDownloader.review.thumb; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 1.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Here is an image of the app just after calling this method.. http://www.flickr.com/photos/arbarlow/5288563627/ After calling tableView reloadData or scrolling around the appear correctly, go the the next flickr image, to see the normal result, but im sure you can guess that.. Does anyone have an ideas as to make the images appear correctly? im absolutely stumped?! Regards, Alex iPhone noob

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  • NetBeans parameter fill after code completion

    - by byte
    This is a particularly annoying problem I'm having, and I can't be the only one to have issue with it. In NetBeans, when you type part of a method, then hit CTRL-SPACE, it displays the code-completion popup, whereupon you can hit tab to finish out the word. This is great, and pretty much how all IDE's operate. Example: Thread.sl < CTRL-SPACE Thread.sleep Yay! Problem is that in this context, once you type in a paren, it auto-fills the parameters for the method with their default names, and inserts a closing paren (regardless of whether you have disabled the option to automatically close them on the preferences page for code completion). This behavior is NOT present if you had manually typed out the full name. How is this helpful to anyone? You've got to type over it your actual variable that you will be passing, and NetBeans gives you no option to prevent the closing paren on code-completion. Does anyone have a way to solve this issue, without having to dive into the netbeans source and build it just for this minor of an issue?

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  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

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  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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