Search Results

Search found 12952 results on 519 pages for 'model'.

Page 459/519 | < Previous Page | 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466  | Next Page >

• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

  Read the article

• 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

  - by Panindra

  i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

  Read the article

• How To Update EF 4 Entity In ASP.NET MVC 3?

  - by Jason Evans

  Hi there. I have 2 projects - a class library containing an EDM Entity Framework model and a seperate ASP.NET MVC project. I'm having problems with how your suppose to edit and save changes to an entity using MVC. In my controller I have: public class UserController : Controller { public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var rep = new UserRepository(); var user = rep.GetById(id); return View(user); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(User user) { var rep = new UserRepository(); rep.Update(user); return View(user); } } My UserRepository has an Update method like this: public void Update(User user) { using (var context = new PDS_FMPEntities()) { context.Users.Attach(testUser); context.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(testUser, EntityState.Modified); context.SaveChanges(); } } Now, when I click 'Save' on the edit user page, the parameter user only contains two values populated: Id, and FirstName. I take it that is due to the fact that I'm only displaying those two properties in the view. My question is this, if I'm updating the user's firstname, and then want to save it, what am I suppose to do about the other User properties which were not shown on the view, since they now contain 0 or NULL values in the user object? I've been reading a lot about using stub entities, but I'm getting nowhere fast, in that none of the examples I've seen actually work. i.e. I keep getting EntityKey related exceptions. Can someone point me to a good tutorial/example of how to update EF 4 entities using a repository class, called by an MVC front-end? Cheers. Jas.

  Read the article

• QTCreator 3.1 design tab not working

  - by user3112140

  I’m currently using QtCreator 3.1 and qt-everywhere-opensource-src-5.2.1 on Ubuntu 12.04 My project is correctly working, i.e., i can build it and run without any trouble. But i’ve got some problems with the design tab inside Qtcreator. First, on all qml file (even with example projects), i have an error message “Using Qt Quick code model instead of Qt Quick2 (M324) (4:1)” and i can’t use the design editor. Second, on qml files with other import than QtQuick 2.2 (for me QtQml.Models 2.1 and QtQuick.Controls 1.1), the import is underlined in red with the error message “QML module not found”. I’ve tried to edit the .pro file by adding QML2_IMPORT_PATH=/home/user/qt-everywhere-opensource-src-5.2.1/qtquickcontrols/qml/QtQuick/Controls/ (also tried with QML_IMPORT_PATH), it doesn’t work. Then, I tried to add it to my path in a terminal using “export QML_IMPORT_PATH=/home/user/qt-everywhere-opensource-src-5.2.1/qtquickcontrols/qml/QtQuick/Controls/” and this time, in the error message, i can see the added path in the error message, but it still doesn’t work. Anyone has an idea to help me ? Thx !

  Read the article

• .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

  - by mathee

  Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

  Read the article

• Codeigniter - change url at method call

  - by NemoPS

  I was wondering if the following can be done in codeigniter. Let's assume I have a file, called Post.php, used to manage posts in an admin interface. It has several methods, such as index (lists all posts), add, update, delete... Now, I access the add method, so that the url becomes /posts/add And I add some data. I click "save" to add the new post. It calls the same method with an if statement like "if "this-input-post('addnew')"" is passed, call the model, add it to the database Here follows the problem: If everything worked fine, it goes to the index with the list of all posts, and displays a confirmation BUT No the url would still be posts/add, since I called the function like $this-index() after verifying data was added. I cannot redirect it to "posts/" since in that case no confirmation message would be shown! So my question is: can i call a method from anther one in the same class, and have the url set to that method (/posts/index instead of /posts/add)? It's kinda confusing, but i hope i gave you enough info to spot the problem Cheers!

  Read the article

• MVC and jQuery data retrieval.

  - by user337542

  Hello, I am using mvc and jQuery and I am trying to display someone's profile with some additional institutions that the person belongs to. I am new to this but I've done something like this in ProfileControler: public ActionResult Institutions(int id) { var inst = fr.getInstitutions(id); return Json(inst); } getInstitutions(id) returns Institution objects(with Name, City, Post Code etc.) Then in a certain View I am trying to get the data with jQuery and display them as follows: $(document).ready(function () { $.post("/Profile/Institutions", { id: <%= Model.Profile.userProfileID %> }, function (data) { $.each(data, function () { var new_div = $("<div>"); var new_label = $("<label>"); new_label.html(this.City); var new_input_b = $("<input>"); new_input_b.attr("type", "button"); new_div.append(new_label); new_div.append(new_input_b); $("#institutions").append(new_div); }); }); }); $("#institutions") is a div where i want to display all of the results. .post works correct for sure because certain institutions are retrieved from database, and passed to the view as Json result. But then I am affraid it wont itterate with .each. Any help, coments or pointing in some direction would be much appriciated

  Read the article

• How can I use rows in a lookup table as columns in a MySQL query?

  - by TomH

  I'm trying to build a MySQL query that uses the rows in a lookup table as the columns in my result set. LookupTable id | AnalysisString 1 | color 2 | size 3 | weight 4 | speed ScoreTable id | lookupID | score | customerID 1 | 1 | A | 1 2 | 2 | C | 1 3 | 4 | B | 1 4 | 2 | A | 2 5 | 3 | A | 2 6 | 1 | A | 3 7 | 2 | F | 3 I'd like a query that would use the relevant lookupTable rows as columns in a query so that I can get a result like this: customerID | color | size | weight | speed 1 A C D 2 A A 3 A F The kicker of the problem is that there may be additional rows added to the LookupTable and the query should be dynamic and not have the Lookup IDs hardcoded. That is, this will work: SELECT st.customerID, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=1 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS color, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=2 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS size, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=3 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS weight, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=4 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS speed FROM ScoreTable st GROUP BY st.customerID Until there is a fifth row added to the LookupTable . . . Perhaps I'm breaking the whole relational model and will have to resolve this in the backend PHP code? Thanks for pointers/guidance. tom

  Read the article

• XSD, restrictions and code generation

  - by bob

  Hello, I'm working on some code generation for an existing project and I want to start from a xsd. So I can use tools as Xsd2Code / xsd.exe to generate the code and also the use the xsd to validate the xml. That part works without any problems. I also want to translate some of the restrictions to DataAnnotations (enrich Xsd2Code). For example xs:minInclusive / xs:maxInclusive I can translate to a RangeAttribute. But what to do with custom validation attributes that we created? Can I add custom facets / restrictions? And how? Or is there another solution / best practice. I would like to collect everything in a single (xsd) file so that one file contains the structure of the class (model) including the validation (attributes) that has to be added. <xs:element name="CertainValue"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:double"> <xs:minInclusive value="1" /> <xs:maxInclusive value="100" /> <xs_custom:customRule attribute="value" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element>

  Read the article

• Zend Framework/PHPUnit: How to Stub/Mock an object method that connects to a database?

  - by Andrew

  In my Zend Framework project, I have a form that I am testing. In my form, a multi-select element gets its options from a model, which gets the data from the database. public function init() { $this->addElement('select', 'Region_ID', array('multiOptions' => $this->getRegions())); } protected function getRegions() { $mapper = new Model_RegionMapper(); return $mapper->getFormSelectData(); //this method will try to connect to a database (or get another object that will connect to the database) } I tried copying the example in the PHPUnit documentation, but it doesn't seem to be working. public function setUp() { $stub = $this->getMock('Model_RegionMapper'); $stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('getFormSelectData') ->will($this->returnValue(array('testdata'))); } public function testFoo() { //this will fail $form = new My_Form(); } The test fails because it is trying to find a table in the database that doesn't exist. But I don't want it to connect to the database at all. How do I correctly stub/mock this method so that it doesn't call the database?

  Read the article

• Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

  - by arrages

  In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

  Read the article

• Automapping Collections

  - by vaibhav

  I am using Automapper for mapping my domain model and DTO. When I map Mapper.Map<SiteDTO, SiteEntity> it works fine. But when I use collections of the same entities, it doesn't map. Mapper.Map<Collection<SiteEntity>, Collection<SiteDTO>>(siteEntityCollection); AS per Automapper Wiki, it says the lists implementing ICollection would be mapped, I am using Collection that implements ICollection, but automapper doesn't map it. Am I doing something wrong. public class SiteEntity //SiteDTO has exactly the same properties, so I am not posting it here. { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public byte Status { get; set; } public int ModifiedBy { get; set; } public DateTime ModifiedDate{ get; set; } public long TimeStamp{ get; set; } public string Description{ get; set; } public string Notes{ get; set; } public ObservableCollection<AreaEntity> Areas{ get; set; } }

  Read the article

• Help with active record relations

  - by Christian Fazzini

  class CreateActivities < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :activities do |t| t.references :user t.references :media t.integer :artist_id t.string :type t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :activities end end class Fan < Activity belongs_to :user, :counter_cache => true end class Activity < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :media belongs_to :artist, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'artist_id' end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :activities has_many :fans end I tried changing my activity model too, without any success: class Activity < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :activities, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'user_id' has_many :activities, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'artist_id' end One thing to note. Activity is an STI. Fan inherits from Activity. In console, I do: # Create a fan object. User is a fan of himself fan = Fan.new => #<Fan id: nil, user_id: nil, media_id: nil, artist_id: nil, type: "Fan", comment: nil, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> # Assign a user object fan.user = User.first => #<User id: 1, genre_id: 1, country_id: 1, .... # Assign an artist object fan.artist_id = User.first.id => 1 # Save the fan object fan.save! => true Activity.last => #<Fan id: 13, user_id: 1, media_id: nil, artist_id: 1, type: "Fan", comment: nil, created_at: "2010-12-30 08:41:25", updated_at: "2010-12-30 08:41:25"> Activity.last.user => #<User id: 1, genre_id: 1, country_id: 1, ..... But... Activity.last.artist => nil Why is Activity.last.artist returning nil?

  Read the article

• Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

  Read the article

• What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

  - by slk

  I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Data layer refactoring

  - by Joey

  I've taken control of some entity framework code and am looking to refactor it. Before I do, I'd like to check my thoughts are correct and I'm not missing the entity-framework way of doing things. Example 1 - Subquery vs Join Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs. Apart from the code below being hard to read, is it also inefficient? from a in dataContext.As where ((from b in dataContext.Bs where b.Text.StartsWith(searchText) select b.AId).Distinct()).Contains(a.Id) select a Would it be better, for example, to use the join and do something like this? from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Text.StartsWith(searchText)) select a Example 2 - Explicit Joins vs Navigation Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs and a one-to-many between Bs and Cs. from a in dataContext.As join b in dataContext.Bs on b.AId equals a.Id join c in dataContext.Cs on c.BId equals b.Id where c.SomeValue equals searchValue select a Is there a good reason to use explicit joins rather than navigating through the data model? For example: from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Cs.Any(c => c.SomeValue == searchValue) select a

  Read the article

• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

  Read the article

• What can I do to get Mozilla Firefox to preload the eventual image result?

  - by Dalal

  I am attempting to preload images using JavaScript. I have declared an array as follows with image links from different places: var imageArray = new Array(); imageArray[0] = new Image(); imageArray[1] = new Image(); imageArray[2] = new Image(); imageArray[3] = new Image(); imageArray[0].src = "http://www.bollywoodhott.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/12/arjun-rampal.jpg"; imageArray[1].src = "http://labelleetleblog.files.wordpress.com/2009/06/josie-maran.jpg"; imageArray[2].src = "http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_22EXDJCJp3s/SxbIcZHTHTI/AAAAAAAAIXc/fkaDiOKjd-I/s400/black-male-model.jpg"; imageArray[3].src = "http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg"; The image fade and transformation effects that I am doing using this array work properly for the first 3 images, but for the last one, imageArray[3], the actual image data of the image does not get preloaded and it completely ruins the effect, since the actual image data loads AFTERWARDS, only at the time it needs to be displayed, it seems. This happens because the last link http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg is not a direct link to the image. If you go to that link, your browser will redirect you to the ACTUAL location. Now, my image preloading code in Chrome works perfectly well, and the effects look great. Because it seems that Chrome preloads the actual data - the EVENTUAL image that is to be shown. This means that in Chrome if I preloaded an image that will redirect to 'stop stealing my bandwidth', then the image that gets preloaded is 'stop stealing my bandwidth'. How can I modify my code to get Firefox to behave the same way?

  Read the article

• Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

  - by colinodell

  I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Inserting default "admin" user into database during Rails App startup

  - by gbc

  I'm building my first real rails application for a little in-house task. Most of the application tasks require authentication/authorization. The first time the app starts up (or starts with a wiped db), I'd like the process to be: User logs into the admin panel using "admin" & "admin" for authentication info. User navigates to admin credentials editing page and changes name and password to something safer so that "admin" & "admin" is no longer a valid login. To achieve this result, I'd like to stuff a default username & password combination into the database on if the application starts up and detects that there are no user credentials in the 'users' table. For example: if User.count == 0 User.create(:name => "admin", :password => "admin") end However, I'm unsure where to place that code. I tried adding an initializer script in the config/initializers, but the error I received appeared to indicate that the model classes weren't yet loaded into the application. So I'm curious to know at what point I can hook into the application startup cycle and insert data into the database through ActiveRecord before requests are dispatched.

  Read the article

• ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

  - by Tedd Hansen

  I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

  Read the article

• How do I secure a .NET Web Service for use by an iPhone application?

  - by David A Gibson

  Hello, The title says it all, I have a Web Service written in .NET that provides data for an iPhone application. It will also allow the application make a "reservation." Currently it's all internal to the corporate network but obviously when the iPhone application is published I will need ensure the Web Service is available externally. How would I go about securing the Web Service? There are two aspects I'm looking into: Authentication for accessing the web service Protection for the data being transferred I'm no so bothered about the data being passed back and forth as it will be viewable in the application anyway (which will be free). The key issue for me is preventing users from accessing the Web Service and making reservations themselves. At the moment I am considering encrypting any strings in the XML data passed back and forth so only the client can effectively use the web service sidestepping the need for authentication and providing protection for the data. This is the only model I have seen but I think the overheads on the iPhone and even for the web service make for a poor user experience. Any solutions at all would be most welcome? Thanks

  Read the article

• context.Scale() with non-aspect ratio preserving parameters screws effective lineWith

  - by rrenaud

  I am trying to apply some natural transformations whereby the x axis is remapped to some very small domain, like from 0 to 1, whereas y is remapped to some small, but substantially larger domain, like 0 to 30. This way, drawing code can be nice and clean and only care about the model space. However, if I apply a scale, then lines are also scaled, which means that horizontal lines become extremely fat relative to vertical ones. Here is some sample code. When natural_height is much less than natural_height, the picture doesn't look as intended. I want the picture to look like this, which is what happens with a scale that preserves aspect ratio. rftgstats.c om/canvas_good.png However, with a non-aspect ratio preserving scale, the results look like this. rftgstats.c om/canvas_bad.png <html><head><title>Busted example</title></head> <body> <canvas id=example height=300 width=300> <script> var canvas = document.getElementById('example'); var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); var natural_width = 10; var natural_height = 50; ctx.scale(canvas.width / natural_width, canvas.height / natural_height); var numLines = 20; ctx.beginPath(); for (var i = 0; i < numLines; ++i) { ctx.moveTo(natural_width / 2, natural_height / 2); var angle = 2 * Math.PI * i / numLines; // yay for screen size independent draw calls. ctx.lineTo(natural_width / 2 + natural_width * Math.cos(angle), natural_height / 2 + natural_height * Math.sin(angle)); } ctx.stroke(); ctx.closePath(); </script> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

  - by Gidogeek

  Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

  Read the article

• Listen to Response on HTML Form embedded in GWT View?

  - by confile

  I have a HTML like the following: <div> <form> <input type="text" /> <button class="sendForm" value="Send form" /> </form> </div> <script> // post the form with Jquery post // register a callback that handles the response </script> I use this type of form a lot with a JavaScript/JQuery overlay that displays the form. That could be handled for example with plugins like FancyBox. I also want to use this form embedded into a GWT view. Lets assume that the for cannot be created on client side because it has some server based markup language inside to set up some model data. If I want to use this form in GWT I have to do the following. Tell GWT the form request url and use a RequestBuilder to query the html content of this form. Then I can insert it into a div generated by GWT. So far so good. Problem: When the user hits the send button the response is handled my the JQuery callback that is inside the script under the form. Is there a way to access this callback from within GWT? Is there a way to overwrite the JQuery send action? Since, the code is HTML and comes from the server I cannot place ui-binder UiFields inside to get access to these DOM elements. I need to get the response if the submitted form accessible to GWT. Is there a way how I can achieve this with JSNI?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466  | Next Page >