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  • Issue with dynamically loading a user control on button click

    - by Kumar
    I have a page in which I am loading a user control dynamically as follows: Default.aspx: <cc1:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </cc1:ToolkitScriptManager> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> Default.aspx.cs: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var ctrl = LoadControl("~/UserCtrl1.ascx"); ctrl.ID = "ucUserCtrl1"; PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(ctrl); } Below is the code for UserCtrl1.ascx <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> <br /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder2" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> I am dynamically loading another user control when the Button1 is clicked UserCtrl1.ascx.cs protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = "UserControl - 1 button clicked!"; var ctrl = LoadControl("~/UserCtrl2.ascx"); ctrl.ID = "ucUserCtrl2"; PlaceHolder2.Controls.Add(ctrl); } Below is the markup for UserCtrl2.ascx <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button2" OnClick="Button2_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> UserCtrl2.ascx.cs protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label2.Text = "UserControl - 2 button clicked!"; } After the page loads when I click the Button1 in UserCtrl1 the click event fires and I am able to see the Label1 text. It also properly loads the UserCtrl2, but when I click the Button2 in UserCtrl2 the click event dosent fire and even worse when I click the Button2 twice the UserCtrl2 control dissappears from the page. How can I fix this?

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  • How to compensate the flipped coordinate system of core graphics for easy drawing?

    - by mystify
    It's really a pain, but always when I draw an UIImage in -drawRect:, it's upside-down. When I flip the coordinates, the image draws correctly, but at the cost of all other CG functions drawing "wrong" (flipped). What's your strategy when you have to draw images and other things? Is there any rule of thumb how to not get stuck in this problem over and over again? Also, one nasty thing when I flip the y-axis is, that my CGRect from the UIImageView frame is wrong. Instead of the origin appearing at 10,10 upper left as expected, it appears at the bottom. But at the same time, all those normal line drawing functions of CGContext take correct coordinates. drawing a line in -drawRect with origin 10,10 upper left, will really start at upper left. But at the same time that's strange, because core graphics actually has a flipped coordinate system with y 0 at the bottom. So it seems like something is really inconsistent there. Drawing with CGContext functions takes coordinates as "expected" (cmon, nobody thinks in coordinates starting from bottom left, that's silly), while drawing any kind of image still works the "wrong" way. Do you use helper methods to draw images? Or is there anything useful that makes image drawing not a pain in the butt?

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  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

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  • Create a variable which is named depending on an ID number?

    - by gray
    Is there any way to create a variable, and add an ID to the end of the actual variable name? I have a variable called 'gauge', used to create a new Gauge object: var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); I want to add an ID to the variable, so something like: var gauge+id = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); It's because I'm creating a number of these objects, and have a specific ID already for each one, which I want to attach to the gauge object if possible? All my code for this function is below, if it gives you a better idea of what i need to do: function go(id, votes) { var val = $('#votes_'+id).text(); var target = document.getElementById('foo_'+id); // your canvas element var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); // create sexy gauge! gauge.maxValue = 100; // set max gauge value gauge.animationSpeed = 20; // set animation speed (32 is default value) var a=votes+0.5; gauge.set(val); // set actual value } My main problem arises on the last line. It says gauge.set(val), and it only sets the last object, ignoring all the other ones...

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  • Mysterious HttpSession and session-config dependency

    - by OneMoreVladimir
    Good day. I'm developing a Java web app with Servlets\JSP using Tomcat 7.0. During request from client I put and object into the session and use forward. After the forward processing the same request the object can be retreived if the secure parameter is false otherwise it is not stored in session. <session-config> <session-timeout>15</session-timeout> <cookie-config> <http-only>true</http-only> <secure>true</secure> </cookie-config> <tracking-mode>COOKIE</tracking-mode> </session-config> I've figured out that "...cookies can be created with the 'secure' flag, which ensures that the browser will never transmit the specified cookie over non-SSL...". I've configured Tomcat to use SSL, but that haven't helped. Changing the tracking mode to SSL haven't helped as well. How do session-config and HttpSession object correlate in this case? What could be the problem?

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  • Capturing wildcards in java generics

    - by Rollerball
    From this orcale java tutorial: The WildcardError example produces a capture error when compiled: import java.util.List; public class WildcardError { void foo(List<?> i) { i.set(0, i.get(0)); } } After this error demonstration, they fix the problem by using a helper method: public class WildcardFixed { void foo(List<?> i) { fooHelper(i); } // Helper method created so that the wildcard can be captured // through type inference. private <T> void fooHelper(List<T> l) { l.set(0, l.get(0)); } } First, they say that the list input parameter (i) is seen as an Object: In this example, the compiler processes the i input parameter as being of type Object. Why then i.get(0) does not return an Object? if it was already passed in as such? Furthermore what is the point of using a <?> when then you have to use an helper method using <T>. Would not be better using directly which can be inferred?

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  • Dynamcally resising an open Accordion

    - by alavers
    I have an Accordion and the height of its content can be dynamically resized. I would like to see the Accordion dynamically respond to the child item's height, but I'm having trouble doing this. <lt:Accordion Name="MyAccordion" SelectionMode="ZeroOrOne" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <lt:AccordionItem Name="MyAccordionItem" Header="MyAccordion" IsSelected="True" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Grow" Click="Grow"/> <Button Content="Shrink" Click="Shrink"/> <TextBox Name="GrowTextBox" Text="GrowTextBox" Height="400" Background="Green" SizeChanged="GrowTextBox_SizeChanged"/> </StackPanel> </lt:AccordionItem> </lt:Accordion> private void Grow(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height += 100; } private void Shrink(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height -= 100; } private void GrowTextBox_SizeChanged(object sender, System.Windows.SizeChangedEventArgs e) { MyAccordion.UpdateLayout(); MyAccordionItem.UpdateLayout(); } Mind you, if I collapse and then re-open the accordion, it takes shape just the way I want, but I'd like this resizing to occur immediately when the child resizes. I feebly attempted to fix this by adding a SizeChanged event handler that calls UpdateLayout() on the Accordion and AccordionItem, but this doesn't have any visual effect. I can't figure out where proper resizing takes place inside the Accordion control. Does anyone have an idea?

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  • In perl, how can I call a method whose name I have in a string?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    I'm trying to write some abstract code for searching through a list of similar objects for the first one whose attributes match specific values. In order to do this, I need to call a bunch of accessor methods and check all their values one by one. I'd like to use an abstraction like this: sub verify_attribute { my ($object, $attribute_method, $wanted_value) = @_; if ( call_method($object, $attribute_method) ~~ $wanted_value ) { return 1; } else { return; } } Then I can loop through a hash whose keys are accessor method names and whose values are the values I'm looking for for those attributes. For example, if that hash is called %wanted, I might use code like this to find the object I want: my $found_object; FINDOBJ: foreach my $obj (@list_of_objects) { foreach my $accessor (keys %wanted) { next FINDOBJ unless verify_attribute($obj, $accessor, $wanted{$accessor}); } # All attrs verified $found_object = $obj; last FINDOBJ; } Of course, the only problem is that call_method does not exsit. Or does it? How can I call a method if I have a string containing its name? Or is there a better solution to this whole problem?

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  • JQuery modal box form validation

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I was using a view to create an object for my specific project, but now I have to adapt this to another requirements, such as the creation of this object must be integrated in the creation of another one. The thing is, that this object must be created before starting to create the other one, and the way of doing it will be poping up a modal dialog box with JQuery with the form to create it. I've got to adapt the creation and it works fine, except for the validation messages. It is made in the controller like : if (not.NotName.Trim().Length == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Name is required"); } if (_notification.checkIfExists(not.NotName, not.NotRecID)) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Notification already exists"); } And before with a normal view it worked fine, but now I'm not able to get the validation messages as I did. How can you get this validation messages thrown by the controller in the Modal Box? Because now when I made a mistake on purpose in the form in order to get the error it doesn't appear. I've seen the error is displayed in the site, because I've seen it on firebug, but it doesn't appear in my model box. How can I retrieve this errors? Do you know any tutorial that could help me with this? Thank you

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  • Is this reference or code in mistake or bug?

    - by mikezang
    I copied some text from NSDate Reference as below, please check Return Value, it is said the format will be in YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS ±HHMM, but I got as below in my app, so the reference is mistake? or code in mistake? Saturday, January 1, 2011 12:00:00 AM Japan Standard Time or 2011?1?1????0?00?00? ????? descriptionWithLocale: Returns a string representation of the receiver using the given locale. - (NSString *)descriptionWithLocale:(id)locale Parameters locale An NSLocale object. If you pass nil, NSDate formats the date in the same way as the description method. On Mac OS X v10.4 and earlier, this parameter was an NSDictionary object. If you pass in an NSDictionary object on Mac OS X v10.5, NSDate uses the default user locale—the same as if you passed in [NSLocale currentLocale]. Return Value A string representation of the receiver, using the given locale, or if the locale argument is nil, in the international format YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS ±HHMM, where ±HHMM represents the time zone offset in hours and minutes from GMT (for example, “2001-03-24 10:45:32 +0600”)

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  • Basic problems (type inference or something else?) in Objective-C/Cocoa.

    - by Matt
    Hi, Apologies for how basic these questions are to some. Just started learning Cocoa, working through Hillegass' book, and am trying to write my first program (a GUI Cocoa app that counts the number of characters in a string). I tried this: NSString *string = [textField stringValue]; NSUInteger *stringLength = [string length]; NSString *countString = (@"There are %u characters",stringLength); [label setStringValue:countString]; But I'm getting errors like: Incompatible pointer conversion initializing 'NSUInteger' (aka 'unsigned long'), expected 'NSUInteger *'[-pedantic] for the first line, and this for the second line: Incompatible pointer types initializing 'NSUInteger *', expected 'NSString *' [-pedantic] I did try this first, but it didn't work either: [label setStringValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"There are %u characters",[[textField stringValue] length]]] On a similar note, I've only written in easy scripting languages before now, and I'm not sure when I should be allocing/initing objects and when I shouldn't. For example, when is it okay to do this: NSString *myString = @"foo"; or int *length = 5; instead of this: NSString *myString = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:"foo"]; And which ones should I be putting into the header files? I did check Apple's documentation, and CocoaDev, and the book I'm working for but without luck. Maybe I'm looking in the wrong places.. Thanks to anyone who takes the time to reply this: it's appreciated, and thanks for being patient with a beginner. We all start somewhere. EDIT Okay, I tried the following again: [label setStringValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"There are %u characters",[[textField stringValue] length]]] And it actually worked this time. Not sure why it didn't the first time, though I think I might have typed %d instead of %u by mistake. However I still don't understand why the code I posted at the top of my original post doesn't work, and I have no idea what the errors mean, and I'd very much like to know because it seems like I'm missing something important there.

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  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

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  • Nhibernate + Gridview + TargetInvocationException

    - by Scott
    For our grid views, we're setting the data sources as a list of results from an Nhibernate query. We're using lazy loading, so the objects are actually proxied... most of the time. In some instances the list will consist of types of Student and Composition_Aop_Proxy_jklasjdkl31231, which implements the same members as the Student class. We've still got the session open, so the lazy loading would resolve fine, if GridView didn't throw an error about the different types in the gridview. Our current workaround is to clone the object, which results in fetching all of the data that can be lazily loaded, even though most of it won't be accessed.. ever. This, however, converts the proxy into an actual object and the grid view is happy. The performance implications kind of scare me as we're getting closer to rolling the code out as is. I've tried evicting the object after a save, which should ensure that everything is a proxy, but this doesn't seem like a good idea either. Does anyone have any suggestions/workarounds?

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  • jQuery validate plugin radio with optional text

    - by timborden
    I'm trying to figure out how to validate a form element with a mix of radio inputs and a text input: <label>Question?</label> <input type="radio" class="mandatory" name="questions[1][]" value="1" />answer 1<br/> <input type="radio" class="mandatory" name="questions[1][]" value="2" />answer 2<br/> <input class="ignore" type="radio" id="questions[1][]" />Other (please specify)<br/> <input class="optional mandatory" type="text" name="questions[1][]" value="" /> I've figured out how to get the form to behave as expected (select and unselect) with the following code: $("input.optional").focus(function () { var this_name = $(this).attr("name"); $("input:radio").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('name') == this_name; }).attr('checked', false); $("input").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('id') == this_name; }).attr('checked', true); }); $(':radio').click(function () { var this_name = $(this).attr("name"); $("input").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('id') == this_name; }).attr('checked', false); $("input.optional").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('name') == this_name; }).val(''); }); I was hoping I could use the class "mandatory" to validate the mix of radio and text inputs: $("form .manditory").each(function () { $(this).rules("add", {required: true}); }); But it's not working as expected. With the radio (id="questions[1][]") selected, and the text input containing content, the form element is still flagged as invalid. Suggestions...maybe a better approach? Thanks in advance. UPDATE Sorry, I should have clarified that I'm using the validate plugin: $("form").validate({ ... });

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  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

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  • Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

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  • Strange behaviour of DataTable with DataGridView

    - by Paul
    Please explain me what is happening. I have created a WinForms .NET application which has DataGridView on a form and should update database when DataGridView inline editing is used. Form has SqlDataAdapter _da with four SqlCommands bound to it. DataGridView is bound directly to DataTable _names. Such a CellValueChanged handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { _da.Update(_names); } does not update database state although _names DataTable is updated. All the rows of _names have RowState == DataRowState.Unchanged Ok, I modified the handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); _da.Update(_names); } this variant really writes modified cell to database, but when I attempt to insert new row into grid, I get an error about an absence of row with index e.RowIndex So, I decided to improve the handler further: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { if (_names.Rows.Count<e.RowIndex) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); } else { DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = dataGridView1["NameText", e.RowIndex].Value; _names.Rows.Add(row); } _da.Update(_names); } Now the really strange things happen when I insert new row to grid: the grid remains what it was until _names.Rows.Add(row); After this line THREE rows are inserted into table - two rows with the same value and one with Null value. The slightly modified code: DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = "--------------" _names.Rows.Add(row); inserts three rows with three different values: one as entered into the grid, the second with "--------------" value and third - with Null value. I really got stuck in guessing what is happening.

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  • WCF data services - Limiting related objects returned based on critera

    - by Mike Morley
    I have an object graph consisting of a base employee object, and a set of related message objects. I am able to return the employee objects based on search criteria on the employee properties (eg team) etc. However, if I expand on the messages, I get the full collection of messages back. I would like to be able to either take the top n messages (i.e. restrict to 10 most recent) or ideally use a date range on the message objects to limit how many are brought back. So far I have not been able to figure out a way of doing this: I get an error if I attempt to filter on properties on the message (&$filter=employee/message/StartDate gives an error "No property 'StartDate' exists in type 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection`1). Attempting to use Top on the message related object doesn't work either. I have also tried using a WebGet extension that takes a string list of employee IDs. That works until the list gets too long, and then fails due to the URL getting too long (it might be possible to setup a paging mechanism on this approach)... Unfortunately the UI control I am using requires the data to be in a fairly specific hierarchical shape, so I can't easily come at this from starting on the message side and working backwards. Outside of making multiple calls does anyone know of a method to accomplish this with wcf data services? Thanks! M.

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  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

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  • I expect to see in the browswer "http://path/some_page.html" but instead it identifies with "http:/

    - by indiehacker
    I am developing with app engine SDK. I have a feeling this is much too basic a question so apologies ahead of time... A simple submit button doesnt work instead of just showing an alert box as expected it continues on afterwards and redirects me to the latest http-request, and I think this is because I dont understand how to tell the browser to recognize the proper URLs. Why does my browser say I am at the most recent http-request http://localhost:8080/putProjectInDB rather than the somepage.html that was actually served to the browser that I am currently looking at? How can I get the browser to recognize and show in its url spot the normal expected http://somepage.html ? Just in case, here are details of the specific problem which you might be able to ignore for answering the question: This hasnt been mattered for me until I just wanted to put into my .html a simple button that changes some stuff of the page without needing the server. The below code after displaying the alert box redirects me to the last server request http://localhost:8080/putProjectInDB instead of just staying in the same html page. in header: function MyFormCommands() { alert('Some Text'); } in body: <form onSubmit="MyFormCommands()" ><input type=submit ></form >

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  • Unreasonable errors in merge sort

    - by Alexxx
    i have the following errors - please help me to find the error: 9 IntelliSense: expected a '}' 70 4 it points on the end of the code - but there are no open { anywhere!! so why?? 8 IntelliSense: expected a ';' 57 1 it points on the { after the void main but why to put ; after the { of the void main?? Error 7 error C1075: end of file found before the left brace '{' at 70 1 points to the beginig of the code - why??? #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void merge(int *a,int p,int q,int r) { int i=p,j=q+1,k=0; int* temp=(int*)calloc(r-p+1, sizeof(int)); while ((i<=q)&& (j<=r)) if(a[i]<a[j]) temp[k++]=a[i++]; else temp[k++]=a[j++]; while(j<=r) // if( i>q ) temp[k++]=a[j++]; while(i<=q) // j>r temp[k++]=a[i++]; for(i=p,k=0;i<=r;i++,k++) // copy temp[] to a[] a[i]=temp[k]; free(temp); } void merge_sort(int *a,int first, int last) { int middle; if(first < last) { middle=(first+last)/2; merge_sort(a,first,middle); merge_sort(a,middle+1,last); merge(a,first,middle,last); { } void main() { int a[] = {9, 7, 2, 3, 5, 4, 1, 8, 6, 10}; int i; merge_sort(a, 0, 9); for (i = 0; i < 10; i++) printf ("%d ", a[i]);

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  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

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  • Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

    - by AJM
    I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

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  • Python: why can't descriptors be instance variables?

    - by Continuation
    Say I define this descriptor: class MyDescriptor(object): def __get__(self, instance, owner): return self._value def __set__(self, instance, value): self._value = value def __delete__(self, instance): del(self._value) And I use it in this: class MyClass1(object): value = MyDescriptor() >>> m1 = MyClass1() >>> m1.value = 1 >>> m2 = MyClass1() >>> m2.value = 2 >>> m1.value 2 So value is a class attribute and is shared by all instances. Now if I define this: class MyClass2(object) value = 1 >>> y1 = MyClass2() >>> y1.value=1 >>> y2 = MyClass2() >>> y2.value=2 >>> y1.value 1 In this case value is an instance attribute and is not shared by the instances. Why is it that when value is a descriptor it can only be a class attribute, but when value is a simple integer it becomes an instance attribute?

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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