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  • how to check null value of Integer type field in ASP.NET MVC view?

    - by Vikas
    Hi, I have integer type field in database which is having property "Not Null". when i create a view & do a validation, if i left that field blank, it will consider it as 0 so i can not compare it with 0 because if someone insert a value 0 then it will be considered as error! one another problem is that i am using Model error as described in the book "ASP.NET MVC 1.0" @ Scott Gu blog. And I am checking the value in partial class of object (created by LINQ-To-SQL). i.e public partial class Person { public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(Name)) yield return new RuleViolation("Name is Required", "Name"); if (Age == 0) yield return new RuleViolation("Age is Required", "Age"); yield break; } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving"); } } There is also problem with range. Like in database if i declared as smallint i.e. short in c#, now if i exceed that range then it gives error as "A Value is reguired". so finally is there any best way for validation in ASP.NET MVC?

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • How can I implement CRUD operations in a base class for an entity framework app?

    - by hminaya
    I'm working a simple EF/MVC app and I'm trying to implement some Repositories to handle my entities. I've set up a BaseObject Class and a IBaseRepository Interface to handle the most basic operations so I don't have to repeat myself each time: public abstract class BaseObject<T> { public XA.Model.Entities.XAEntities db; public BaseObject() { db = new Entities.XAEntities(); } public BaseObject(Entities.XAEntities cont) { db = cont; } public void Delete(T entity) { db.DeleteObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public void Update(T entity) { db.AcceptAllChanges(); db.SaveChanges(); } } public interface IBaseRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); T GetById(int id); IQueryable<T> GetAll(); } But then I find myself having to implement 3 basic methods in every Repository ( Add, GetById & GetAll): public class AgencyRepository : Framework.BaseObject<Agency>, Framework.IBaseRepository<Agency> { public void Add(Agency entity) { db.Companies.AddObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public Agency GetById(int id) { return db.Companies.OfType<Agency>().FirstOrDefault(x => x.Id == id); } public IQueryable<Agency> GetAll() { var agn = from a in db.Companies.OfType<Agency>() select a; return agn; } } How can I get these into my BaseObject Class so I won't run in conflict with DRY.

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  • Using boost asio for pub/sub style tcp in a game loop

    - by unohoo
    I have been reading through the boost asio documentation for a couple of hours now, and while I think the documentation is really great, I am still left a bit confused on how to implement the system that I need. I have to stream info, from a game engine, to a list of computers over tcp. One snag is that, unlike traditional pub/sub, the computer that does the distribution of info is actually the computer that has to connect to the subscribers as well (instead of the subscribers registering with the publisher). This is done via a config file - a list of ip's/ports along with the data that they each require. The subscribers listen, but do not know the ip of the publisher. (As a side note, I'm quite new to network programming, so maybe I'm missing something .. but it's strange that I do not find much information regarding this style of "inverted" client-server model..) I am looking for suggestions for the implementation of such a system using boost asio. Of course I have to integrate the networking into an already existing engine, so with regards to that: What would be a good way to handle messages being sent to multiple computers every frame? Use async_write, call io_service.run and then reset every frame? Would having io_service.run have its own thread be better? Or should I just use threads and use blocking writes?

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  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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  • What would be the best way to dynamically add a set of rows to a table using JQuery?

    - by user312157
    I have a following table using MVC that shows number of items the user has. <table border = "1" id="tblItems"> <% var itemnum = 1; foreach (var item in Model.Items) {%> <tr> <td colspan="2" bgcolor="Silver"><strong>Item#<%=itemnum%></strong></td> <td><%=Html.ActionLink("Delete", "DeleteItem", "Item", new { id = item.ID })%></td> </tr> <tr> <td><strong>Name:</strong></td> <td><%=Html.TextBox("ItemName_" + itemnum, item.Name)%></td> </tr> <tr> <td><strong>Description:</strong></td> <td><%=Html.TextBox("ItemDescription_" + itemnum, item.Description)%></td> </tr> <%itemnum++; } %> </table> I will have a button that will Add New Item that will dynamically add identical structure. Any ideas on what is the best way to do this using JQuery? Thanks for all the suggestions!

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  • Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • Populate asp.net MVC Index page with data from the database

    - by Sunil Ramu
    I have a web application in which I need to fetch data from the database and display in the index page. As you know, asp.net mvc has given options to edit delete etc... I need to populate the page using the conventional DB way and it uses a stored procedure to retrieve results. I dont want to use LINQ. This is my model entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace LogMVCApp.Models { public class Property { public int Id { get; set; } public string LogInId { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Action { get; set; } public string Information { get; set; } public bool Passed{get; set; } public string LogType { get; set; } } } and I need to retrieve data using something like this... var conString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connection"].ToString(); var conn = new SqlConnection(conString); var command = new SqlCommand("LogInsert", conn){CommandType=CommandType.StoredProcedure};

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  • Asp.net mvc retriev images from db and display on Page

    - by Trey Carroll
    //Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<FilmFestWeb.Models.ListVideosViewModel>" <h2>ListVideos</h2> <% foreach(BusinessObjects.Video vid in Model.VideoList){%> <div class="videoBox"> <%= Html.Encode(vid.Name) %> <img src="<% vid.ThumbnailImage; %>" /> </div> <%} %> //ListVideosViewModel public class ListVideosViewModel { public IList<Video> VideoList { get; set; } } //Video public class Video { public long VideoId { get; set; } public long TeamId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Tags { get; set; } public string TeamMembers { get; set; } public string TranscriptFileName { get; set; } public string VideoFileName { get; set; } public int TotalNumRatings { get; set; } public int CumulativeTotalScore { get; set; } public string VideoUri { get; set; } public Image ThumbnailImage { get; set; } } I am getting the "red x" that I usually associate with image file not found. I have verified that my database table shows <binary data> after the stored proc that uploads the image executes. Any insight or advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • The perfect web UI framework (with Microsoft stack?) - architecture question?

    - by Igorek
    I'm looking for suggestions for the following issue, and I realize there is really not going to be a perfect answer to my question: I have a UI built in WinForms.NET (v4.0 framework) with WCF back-end and EF4 model objects, that I am looking to port to the web. UI is not huge and is not super complex and is structured well. But it is not a super simple system either. I am looking to pick a technology stack for the web-frontend that will target desktop & partially mobile platforms, provide a good development platform to build on, and facilitate code reuse across UI and back-end tiers... I would rather avoid: custom coding of UI-centric scripts, because they are hard to debug, non-compiled, usually a maintenance nightmare, almost always start to contain business logic, and duplicate some of the logic that back-end tiers have (especially validation) custom-coding for Desktop Web and Mobile Web UI's separately (although I realize that mobile web UI will likely contain fewer of data-entry screens and more reporting screens) non-.NET technology stacks I would love to: target the reporting capabilities of the system toward mobile web browsers not have to write a single line of script (javascript, jquery, etc.) utilize a good collection of controls that produces an elegant UI use .NET for everything The way I see it right now, I need to re-write this app in Silverlight, utilize a 3rd party UI framework like Telerik, and re-do the reports UI again for mobile platforms separately. However, I'm rather concerned about the shelf-life of Silverlight and the needed to deploy a different architecture to deal with mobile platform. Is there an ASP.NET/MVC/Ajax architecture/framework/library that would allow me to get at the power of .NET and without painful (imho) client-side scripting, while providing a decent user experience Thank you

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  • How can I show print statements in debug mode of OPNET Modeler?

    - by Here now
    I'm writing C++ code in OPNET Modeler. I try to simulate my scenario in debugger mode & I need to trace the function that I wrote it. I need to show print statements which I put it in my code. I used in debugger mode: ***ltr function_name()*** then ***c*** But the result looks like: Type 'help' for Command Summary ODB> ltr enqueue_packet() Added trace #0: trace on label (enqueue_packet()) ODB> c |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 52 sec.); Events (500,002) | | Speed: Average (82,575 events/sec.); Current (82,575 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (6.1 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 55 sec.); Events (1,000,002) | | Speed: Average (69,027 events/sec.); Current (59,298 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (14 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 59 sec.); Events (1,500,002) | | Speed: Average (51,464 events/sec.); Current (34,108 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (29 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Simulation Completed - Collating Results. | | Events: Total (1,591,301); Average Speed (48,803 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (33 sec.); Simulated (2 min. 0 sec.) | | DES Log: 29 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Reading network model. | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| I need to show the print statements in my code. Where it has to be appeared? Is there any step before run the simulation to insure that OPNET debugger using Visual Studio & go through my code??

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  • How to efficiently compare the sign of two floating-point values while handling negative zeros

    - by François Beaune
    Given two floating-point numbers, I'm looking for an efficient way to check if they have the same sign, given that if any of the two values is zero (+0.0 or -0.0), they should be considered to have the same sign. For instance, SameSign(1.0, 2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, -2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, 2.0) should return false SameSign(0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(0.0, -1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, -1.0) should return true A naive but correct implementation of SameSign in C++ would be: bool SameSign(float a, float b) { if (fabs(a) == 0.0f || fabs(b) == 0.0f) return true; return (a >= 0.0f) == (b >= 0.0f); } Assuming the IEEE floating-point model, here's a variant of SameSign that compiles to branchless code (at least with with Visual C++ 2008): bool SameSign(float a, float b) { int ia = binary_cast<int>(a); int ib = binary_cast<int>(b); int az = (ia & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int bz = (ib & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int ab = (ia ^ ib) >= 0; return (az | bz | ab) != 0; } with binary_cast defined as follow: template <typename Target, typename Source> inline Target binary_cast(Source s) { union { Source m_source; Target m_target; } u; u.m_source = s; return u.m_target; } I'm looking for two things: A faster, more efficient implementation of SameSign, using bit tricks, FPU tricks or even SSE intrinsics. An efficient extension of SameSign to three values.

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  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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  • Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

    - by ServAce85
    I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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  • RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

    - by darrint
    I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

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  • What OOP pattern to use when only adding new methods, not data?

    - by Jonathon Reinhart
    Hello eveyone... In my app, I have deal with several different "parameters", which derive from IParameter interface, and also ParamBase abstract base class. I currently have two different parameter types, call them FooParameter and BarParameter, which both derive from ParamBase. Obviously, I can treat them both as IParameters when I need to deal with them generically, or detect their specific type when I need to handle their specific functionality. My question lies in specific FooParameters. I currently have a few specific ones with their own classes which derive from FooParameter, we'll call them FP12, FP13, FP14, etc. These all have certain characteristics, which make me treat them differently in the UI. (Most have names associated with the individual bits, or ranges of bits). Note that these specific, derived FP's have no additional data associated with them, only properties (which refer to the same data in different ways) or methods. Now, I'd like to keep all of these parameters in a Dictionary<String, IParameter> for easy generic access. The problem is, if I want to refer to a specific one with the special GUI functions, I can't write: FP12 fp12 = (FP12)paramList["FP12"] because you can't downcast to a derived type (rightfully so). But in my case, I didn't add any data, so the cast would theoretically work. What type of programming model should I be using instead? Thanks!

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  • nullable bool is being passed to the controller null all the time regardless of the value

    - by user1807954
    I'm trying to pass a nullable bool to my controller. But when I pass the bool value from my view to the controller, it's being passed null all the time regardless of the value it has in my view. Here is my view: @model Cars.Models.Car @using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Home", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "CategoryFormID"})) { <label>Convertible:</label> <input type="checkbox" id="ConvertibleID" name="convertible"/> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="search" id="SubmitID">Search</button> } And my controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(bool? convertible){ var cars = from d in db.Car select d; if (convertible.HasValue) { cars = cars.Where(x => x.Convertible == convertible); } return View("SearchResult", cars); } I also have other fields such as drop down lists and text fields, but they're being passed flawless. Any help would be really appreciated. Update: Thank you for your fast responds. However, I did try giving it a value="True" as you guys suggested. There is only 2 options now: null and true. But my intention is to use nullable bool to have three options: null (when user doesn't touch the checkbox), true(checked) and false(unchecked). I know it sounds not smart and silly, but I'm just trying to figure out how nullable bool is working, and what is the intention of having such a thing in C# (I'm new with C#). I was wondering if it is possible to do so with just checkbox and without the use of dropdownlist or radio buttons.

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  • How to access global variable in a view in Ruby on Rails?

    - by ben
    I have a User model. I have a Session controller, in which I have a global user variable that is assigned as follows: $user = User.authenticate(params[:session][:email], params[:session][:password]) (I've made user global just to try to solve this problem, so if there's a better way please let me know!) I need to use the email of the logged in user as a parameter to send to Flex part of my website. At the moment I'm creating the link as follows: <%= link_to "secondpage", secondpage_path(:email => @session.$user.email) But I'm getting the following error: compile error /Users/benhartney/rails_projects/talk/app/views/layouts/_header.html.erb:12: syntax error, unexpected tGVAR ..._path(:email = @session.$user.email) ).to_s); @output_buffe... There's also a little arrow pointing at $user If I remove the $ from $user, I get this error: undefined method `user' for nil:NilClass If I remove the (:email => @session.user.email) part, everything works fine, so I think all of the code except for this is ok. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks for reading!

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  • SystemStackError in Rails::ActiveSupport::Callbacks

    - by coreyward
    I'm building a Rails app that connects to Dropbox and syncs with a folder to update a personal site. I'm using Rails 3.0.3, Ruby 1.9.2, and the Dropbox gem. Right now I have a DropboxAccounts Controller, and two models: DropboxSession, which wraps calls to the gem with application-specific functionality, and DropboxAccount, which stores the session and settings in the database. After the user authorizes their account with Dropbox they're redirected back over and the DropboxAccount is saved with the authorized session. That all works just fine. My problem is that when I try to call Dropbox::API#create_folder(any path) I end up with a SystemStackError in lib/activesupport/callbacks.rb:421 which refers to the code below. If I remove the call to create the folder, it works. If I call create folder from another request, it works. I doubled the stack size to 16K to no avail. # This is called the first time a callback is called with a particular # key. It creates a new callback method for the key, calculating # which callbacks can be omitted because of per_key conditions. # def __create_keyed_callback(name, kind, object, &blk) #:nodoc: @_keyed_callbacks ||= {} @_keyed_callbacks[name] ||= begin str = send("_#{kind}_callbacks").compile(name, object) class_eval <<-RUBY_EVAL, __FILE__, __LINE__ + 1 def #{name}() #{str} end # THIS IS LINE 421 protected :#{name} RUBY_EVAL true end end I'm not very familiar with Rails yet, and I'm not sure what the intention of the code above is or why it would cause a stack overflow. I'm not using any method_missing/ghost method magic in my code. I suspected it was something with a callback serialize :files but commenting it out did nothing. My DropboxAccount model contains only a call to belongs_to :user, and DropboxSession is just a handful of methods, none of which contain callbacks. Bypassing them and using the Dropbox::Session methods directly doesn't help. I hope someone on StackOverflow can help me with this stack overflow. ;)

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  • MonoRail CheckboxList?

    - by Justin
    I'm trying to use a Checkboxlist in MonoRail to represent a many to many table relationship. There is a Special table, SpecialTag table, and then a SpecialTagging table which is the many to many mapping table between Special and SpecialTag. Here is an excerpt from the Special model class: [HasAndBelongsToMany(typeof(SpecialTag), Table = "SpecialTagging", ColumnKey = "SpecialId", ColumnRef = "SpecialTagId")] public IList<SpecialTag> Tags { get; set; } And then in my add/edit special view: $Form.LabelFor("special.Tags", "Tags")<br/> #set($items = $FormHelper.CreateCheckboxList("special.Tags", $specialTags)) #foreach($specialTag in $items) $items.Item("$specialTag.Id") $Form.LabelFor("$specialTag.Id", $specialTag.Name) #end The checkboxlist renders correctly, but if I select some and then click Save, it doesn't save the special/tag associations to the SpecialTagging table (the entity passed to the Save controller action has an empty Tags list.) One thing I noticed was that the name and value attributes on the checkboxes are funky: <label for="special_Tags">Tags</label><br> <input id="3" name="special.Tags[0]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="3">Buy 1 Get 1 Free</label> <input id="1" name="special.Tags[1]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="1">Free</label> <input id="2" name="special.Tags[2]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="2">Half Price</label> <input id="5" name="special.Tags[3]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="5">Live Music</label> <input id="4" name="special.Tags[4]" value="UCampus.Core.Models.SpecialTag" type="checkbox"> <label for="4">Outdoor Seating</label> Anyone have any ideas? Thanks! Justin

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  • What is a fast way to set debugging code at a given line in a function?

    - by Josh O'Brien
    Preamble: R's trace() is a powerful debugging tool, allowing users to "insert debugging code at chosen places in any function". Unfortunately, using it from the command-line can be fairly laborious. As an artificial example, let's say I want to insert debugging code that will report the between-tick interval calculated by pretty.default(). I'd like to insert the code immediately after the value of delta is calculated, about four lines up from the bottom of the function definition. (Type pretty.default to see where I mean.) To indicate that line, I need to find which step in the code it corresponds to. The answer turns out to be step list(c(12, 3, 3)), which I zero in on by running through the following steps: as.list(body(pretty.default)) as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]])[[3]] I can then insert debugging code like this: trace(what = 'pretty.default', tracer = quote(cat("\nThe value of delta is: ", delta, "\n\n")), at = list(c(12,3,3))) ## Try it a <- pretty(c(1, 7843)) b <- pretty(c(2, 23)) ## Clean up untrace('pretty.default') Questions: So here are my questions: Is there a way to print out a function (or a parsed version of it) with the lines nicely labeled by the steps to which they belong? Alternatively, is there another easier way, from the command line, to quickly set debugging code for a specific line within a function? Addendum: I used the pretty.default() example because it is reasonably tame, but with real/interesting functions, repeatedly using as.list() quickly gets tiresome and distracting. Here's an example: as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(body(# model.frame.default))[[26]])[[3]])[[2]])[[4]])[[3]])[[4]])[[4]])[[4]])[[3]]

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  • Lost Array After Validation Error

    - by Georges Kmeid
    I'm working on a CakePHP project and I have User, Post and Location models among others. User hasMany Location and Post belongsTo User so Location is not directly related to Post. This is my code in the Post controller: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('get')) { $this->loadModel('Location'); $this->set('locations', $this->Location->find('all', array('conditions' => array('user_id' => $this->Auth->user('id'))))); } ... } And this is my code in the posts/add view: <?php $i = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($locations as $location): $location_names[$i] = $location['Location']['name']; $i++; endforeach; echo "<select name=\"location\" onchange=\"select(this.value)\">"; echo "<option value=\"\">Select a saved location</option>"; foreach ($locations as $location): echo "<option value=\"" . $location['Location']['latitude'] . "," . $location['Location']['longitude'] . "\">" . $location_names[$j] . "</option>"; $j++; endforeach; ?> </select> If I enter a wrong value in one of the post inputs that has a validation rule in Post model, it redirects to the current add view, shows what is the validation error, but then the $locations array passed from controller to view disappears and can't use it in view and I get this error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: locations [APP\View\Posts\add.ctp, line 68]

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  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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  • How to store child objects on GAE using JDO from Scala

    - by Gero
    Hi, I'm have a parent-child relation between 2 classes, but the child objects are never stored. I do get an warning: "org.datanucleus.store.appengine.MetaDataValidator checkForIllegalChildField: Unable to validate relation net.vermaas.kivanotify.model.UserCriteria.internalCriteria" but it is unclear to me why this occurs. Already tried several alternatives without luck. The parent class is "UserCriteria" which has a List of "Criteria" as children. The classes are defined as follows (Scala): class UserCriteria(tu: String, crit: Map[String, String]) extends LogHelper { @PrimaryKey @Persistent{val valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY} var id = KeyFactory.createKey("UserCriteria", System.nanoTime) @Persistent var twitterUser = tu @Persistent var internalCriteria: java.util.List[Criteria] = flatten(crit) def flatten(crits: Map[String, String]) : java.util.List[Criteria] = { val list = new java.util.ArrayList[Criteria] for (key <- crits.keySet) { list.add(new Criteria(this, key, crits(key))) } list } def criteria: Map[String, String] = { val crits = mutable.Map.empty[String, String] for (i <- 0 to internalCriteria.size-1) { crits(internalCriteria.get(i).name) = internalCriteria.get(i).value } Map.empty ++ crits } // Stripped the equals, canEquals, hashCode, toString code to keep the code snippet short... } @PersistenceCapable @EmbeddedOnly class Criteria(uc: UserCriteria, nm: String, vl: String) { @Persistent var userCriteria = uc @Persistent var name = nm @Persistent var value = vl override def toString = { "Criteria name: " + name + " value: " + value } } Any ideas why the childs are not stored? Or why I get the error message? Thanks, Gero

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