Search Results

Search found 13697 results on 548 pages for 'linking errors'.

Page 462/548 | < Previous Page | 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469  | Next Page >

  • [java] Returning the element number of the longest string in an array

    - by JohnRoberts
    Hoookay, so. I'm trying to get the longestS method to take the user-inputted array of strings, then return the element number of the longest string in that array. I got it to the point where I was able to return the number of chars in the longest string, but I don't believe that will work for what I need. My problem is that I keep getting incompatible type errors when trying to figure this out. I don't understand the whole data type thing with strings yet. It's confusing me how I go about return a number of the array yet the array is of strings. The main method is fine, I got stuck on the ???? part. { public static void main(String [] args) { Scanner inp = new Scanner( System.in ); String [] responseArr= new String[4]; for (int i=0; i<4; i++) { System.out.println("Enter string "+(i+1)); responseArr[i] = inp.nextLine(); } int highest=longestS(responseArr); } public static int longestS(String[] values) { int largest=0 for( int i = 1; i < values.length; i++ ) { if ( ????? ) } return largest; } }

    Read the article

  • Findbugs and comparing

    - by Rob Goodwin
    I recently started using the findbugs static analysis tool in a java build I was doing. The first report came back with loads of High Priority warnings. Being the obsessive type of person, I was ready to go knock them all out. However, I must be missing something. I get most of the warnings when comparing things. Such as the following code: public void setSpacesPerLevel(int value) { if( value >= 0) { ... produces a high priority warning at the if statement that reads. File: Indenter.java, Line: 60, Type: BIT_AND_ZZ, Priority: High, Category: CORRECTNESS Check to see if ((...) & 0) == 0 in sample.Indenter.setSpacesPerLevel(int) I am comparing an int to an int, seems like a common thing. I get quite a few of that type of error with similar simple comparisons. I have alot of other high priority warnings on what appears to be simple code blocks. Am I missing something here? I realize that static analysis can produce false positives, but the errors I am seeing seem too trivial of a case to be a false positive. This one has me scratching my head as well. for(int spaces = 0;spaces < spacesPerLevel;spaces++){... Which gives the following findbugs warning: File: Indenter.java, Line: 160, Type: IL_INFINITE_LOOP, Priority: High, Category: CORRECTNESS There is an apparent infinite loop in sample.Indenter.indent() This loop doesn't seem to have a way to terminate (other than by perhaps throwing an exception). Any ideas? So basically I have a handful of files and 50-60 high priority warnings similar to the ones above. I am using findbugs 1.3.9 and calling it from the findbugs ant task

    Read the article

  • Why is search functionality not working on this page?

    - by DaveDev
    we deliver micro-site content for our client. Our content is injected into a wrapper that is supplied by another developer. To deliver our content we host the wrapper as well as the content. The user can access this at http://fundcentre.newireland.ie/ (try a search for 'bloxham') For the other content that is not ours, the other developer hosts a similar (though slightly different) wrapper and delivers the content. the user accesses this here: http://www.newireland.ie/ (try a search for 'bloxham') The wrapper contains a search box, which does not work for us but it works for the other developer. I took a look at the network traffic with FireBug but it appears that when I do the search from the wrapper that we're hosting, I'm getting a "407 Proxy Access Denied" error. My guess is their proxy has a problem with the fact that the search is being conducted from a page hosted outside the scope of their proxy. It was also suggested that there were javascript errors on the page that were preventing the search from executing but I can't see any. Also, I don't think I'd get as far as the proxy error if that was the case. I don't really understand this stuff too well though, so could somebody with a bit more experience please take a look and maybe shed some light on this for me? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • UnauthorizedAccessException when running desktop application from shared folder

    - by Atara
    I created a desktop application using VS 2008. When I run it locally, all works well. I shared my output folder (WITHOUT allowing network users to change my files) and ran my exe from another Vista computer on our intranet. When running the shared exe, I receive "System.UnauthorizedAccessException" when trying to read a file. How can I give permission to allow reading the file? Should I change the code? Should I grant permission to the application\folder on the Vista computer? how? Notes: I do not use ClickOnce. the application should be distributed using xcopy. My application target framework is ".Net Framework 2.0" On the Vista computer, "controlPanel | UninstallOrChangePrograms" it says it has "Microsoft .Net Framework 3.5 SP1" I also tried to map the folder drive, but got the same errors, only now the fileName is "T:\my.ocx" ' ---------------------------------------------------------------------- ' my code: Dim src As String = mcGlobals.cmcFiles.mcGetFileNameOcx() Dim ioStream As New System.IO.FileStream(src, IO.FileMode.Open) ' ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Public Shared Function mcGetFileNameOcx() As String ' ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Dim dirName As String = Application.StartupPath & "\" Dim sFiles() As String = System.IO.Directory.GetFiles(dirName, "*.ocx") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To UBound(sFiles) Debug.WriteLine(System.IO.Path.GetFullPath(sFiles(i))) ' if found any - return the first: Return System.IO.Path.GetFullPath(sFiles(i)) Next Return "" End Function ' ---------------------------------------------------------------------- ' The Exception I receive: System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\computerName\sharedFolderName\my.ocx' is denied. at System.IO._Error(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(...) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(...) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode) ' ----------------------------------------------------------------------

    Read the article

  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

    Read the article

  • Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

    - by Rich Andrews
    Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • How To Call Javascript In Ajax Response? IE: Close a form div upon success...

    - by B.Gordon
    I have a form that when you submit it, it sends the data for validation to another php script via ajax. Validation errors are echo'd back in a div in my form. A success message also is returned if validation passes. The problem is that the form is still displayed after submit and successful validation. I want to hid the div after success. So, I wrote this simple CSS method which works fine when called from the page the form is displayed on. The problem is that I cannot seem to call the hide script via returned code. I can return html like echo "<p>Thanks, your form passed validation and is being sent</p>"; So I assumed I could simply echo another line after that echo "window.onload=displayDiv()"; inside script tags (which I cannot get to display here)... and that it would hide the form div. It does not work. I am assuming that the problem is that the javascript is being returned incorrectly and not being interpreted by the browser... How can I invoke my 'hide' script on the page via returned data from my validation script? I can echo back text but the script call is ineffective. Thanks! This is the script on the page with the form... I can call it to show/hide with something like onclick="displayDiv()" while on the form but I don't want the user to invoke this... it has be called as the result of a successful validation when I write the results back to the div... function displayDiv() { var divstyle = new String(); divstyle = document.getElementById("myForm").style.display; if(divstyle.toLowerCase()=="block" || divstyle == "") { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "none"; } else { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "block"; } } PS: I am using the mootools.js library for the form validation if this matters for the syntax..

    Read the article

  • Multithreaded Delegates/Events

    - by Matt
    I am trying to disable parts of the UI in a .NET app based on polling done on a background thread. The background thread checks to see if the global database connection the app uses is still open and operable. What I need to do, and would prefer to do it without polling on the UI thread, is to add an event handler that can be raised by the background thread if the connection status changes. That way, any form can have a handler that will disable those parts of the UI that require the connection to function. Attempting to use a straight event declaration in the class that holds the thread sub, and raising the event in the background thread causing cross-thread execution errors regarding accessing UI controls from other threads. Obviously, there is a correct way to do this, but we have limited experience with events (single threaded apps mainly), and almost none with delegates. I've read through documentation and examples for delegates, and it seems to be closer to what we need, but I'm not sure how to make it work in this instance. The app is written mainly in VB.NET, but an example or help in C# is fine too.

    Read the article

  • Glassfish 3: How do I get and use a developers build so I can navigate a stack trace including Glas

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I am migrating a JSF 1.1 application to JEE 6 Web profile, and doing it in steps. I am in the process of moving from JSP with JSF 1.1 to Facelets under JSF 1.2 using the jsf-facelets.jar for JSF 1.2, and received an "interesting" stack trace when trying to lookup a key in a Map using a "{Bean.foo.map.key}" where the stacktrace complained about "key" not being a valid integer. (After code introspection I am workarounding it using a number as the key). That bug is not what this question is about. In such a situation it is essential to be able to navigate the source of every line in the stack trace. In Eclipse I normally attach a source jar to every jar on the build path, but in this particular case the Glassfish server adapter creates a library automatically containing the jars. Also there is to my knowledge no debug build of Glassfish where sources are included in the bundle. Glassfish is a non-trivial Maven project, and a bit picky too. I am not very familiar with maven, but have managed to checkout the code from Subversion and build it for the 3.0 tag according to http://wiki.glassfish.java.net/Wiki.jsp?page=V3FullBuildInstructions#section-V3FullBuildInstructions-CheckoutTheWorkspace - it appears to be the code corresponding to the official released 3.0 version. After finishing the "mvn -U install" part, I have then tried to create Eclipse projects by first using "mvn -DdownloadSources=true eclipse:eclipse" and then import them in Eclipse JEE 3.5.2 and specifying the M2_REPO variable but many of the projects still have compilation errors, and I cannot locate any instructions from Oracle about how to do this. I'd appreciate some help in just getting a functional IDE workspace reflecting the 3.0 version of Glassfish. I have Eclipse 3.5.2, Netbeans 6.8 and 6.9 beta, and IntelliJ IDEA 9, and Linux/Windows/OS X do do it on.

    Read the article

  • Rails problem with Delayed_Job and Active Record

    - by Michael Waxman
    I'm using Delayed_Job to grab a Twitter user's data from the API, but it's not saving it in the model for some reason! Please help! (code below) class BandJob < Struct.new(:band_id, :band_username) #parameter def perform require 'json' require 'open-uri' band = Band.find_by_id(band_id) t = JSON.parse(open("http://twitter.com/users/show/#{band_username}.json").read) band.screen_name = t['screen_name'] band.profile_background_image = t['profile_background_image_url'] band.url = 'http://' + band_username + '.com' band.save! end end To clarify, I'm actually not getting any errors, it's just not saving. Here's what my log looks like: * [JOB] acquiring lock on BandJob [4;36;1mDelayed::Job Update (3.1ms)[0m [0;1mUPDATE "delayed_jobs" SET locked_at = '2009-11-09 18:59:45', locked_by = 'host:dhcp128036151228.central.yale.edu pid:2864' WHERE (id = 10442 and (locked_at is null or locked_at < '2009-11-09 14:59:45') and (run_at <= '2009-11-09 18:59:45')) [0m [4;35;1mBand Load (1.5ms)[0m [0mSELECT * FROM "bands" WHERE ("bands"."id" = 34) LIMIT 1[0m [4;36;1mBand Update (0.6ms)[0m [0;1mUPDATE "bands" SET "updated_at" = '2009-11-09 18:59:45', "profile_background_image" = 'http://a3.twimg.com/profile_background_images/38193417/fbtile4.jpg', "url" = 'http://Coldplay.com', "screen_name" = 'coldplay' WHERE "id" = 34[0m [4;35;1mDelayed::Job Destroy (0.5ms)[0m [0mDELETE FROM "delayed_jobs" WHERE "id" = 10442[0m * [JOB] BandJob completed after 0.5448 1 jobs processed at 1.8011 j/s, 0 failed ... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problems with video conversions through the web (local host)

    - by ron-d
    Hello, I get the following errors when I attempt video format conversions called from the local host: “An invalid media type was specified” for M4V to WMV conversions. “One or more arguments are invalid” for MP4 to WMV conversions. Here are the details of the problems: I’ve written a dll in C# that accepts videos in the formats AVI, WMV, M4V and MP4 and performs the following actions: Creates a copy of the input video in WMV format . Creates a WAV file of the input video audio portion. Creates a JPG image from a frame of the input video. I attached the dll to an ASP.NET web project that performs the dll actions. When tested through the developer studio, the actions are performed as intended for all formats. When I place the web project in place to be read when the local host is called through the web browser, the following behavior takes place: WMV format: All actions performed as intended. AVI format: Creates WMV file – OK Creates JPG image – OK Creates empty WAV file – problem. M4V format: Creates empty WAV file – problem. Does not create WMV file -problem Does not create JPG file –problem Throws me the error “An invalid media type was specified” MP4 format: Creates empty WAV file – problem. Does not create WMV file -problem Does not create JPG file –problem Throws me the error “One or more arguments are invalid” When I check their security property, all the files have the same permission access parameters (when I check their security property. Can anyone guide me as to how to solve these problems when the web project is called from the local host? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to map a test onto a list of numbers

    - by Arthur Ulfeldt
    I have a function with a bug: user> (-> 42 int-to-bytes bytes-to-int) 42 user> (-> 128 int-to-bytes bytes-to-int) -128 user> looks like I need to handle overflow when converting back... Better write a test to make sure this never happens again. This project is using clojure.contrib.test-is so i write: (deftest int-to-bytes-to-int (let [lots-of-big-numbers (big-test-numbers)] (map #(is (= (-> % int-to-bytes bytes-to-int) %)) lots-of-big-numbers))) This should be testing converting to a seq of bytes and back again produces the origional result on a list of 10000 random numbers. Looks OK in theory? except none of the tests ever run. Testing com.cryptovide.miscTest Ran 23 tests containing 34 assertions. 0 failures, 0 errors. why don't the tests run? what can I do to make them run?

    Read the article

  • How do I get C# to garbage collect aggressively?

    - by mmr
    I have an application that is used in image processing, and I find myself typically allocating arrays in the 4000x4000 ushort size, as well as the occasional float and the like. Currently, the .NET framework tends to crash in this app apparently randomly, almost always with an out of memory error. 32mb is not a huge declaration, but if .NET is fragmenting memory, then it's very possible that such large continuous allocations aren't behaving as expected. Is there a way to tell the garbage collector to be more aggressive, or to defrag memory (if that's the problem)? I realize that there's the GC.Collect and GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers calls, and I've sprinkled them pretty liberally through my code, but I'm still getting the errors. It may be because I'm calling dll routines that use native code a lot, but I'm not sure. I've gone over that C++ code, and make sure that any memory I declare I delete, but still I get these C# crashes, so I'm pretty sure it's not there. I wonder if the C++ calls could be interfering with the GC, making it leave behind memory because it once interacted with a native call-- is that possible? If so, can I turn that functionality off?

    Read the article

  • Set service dependencies after install

    - by Dennis
    I have an application that runs as a Windows service. It stores various things settings in a database that are looked up when the service starts. I built the service to support various types of databases (SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, etc). Often times end users choose to configure the software to use SQL Server (they can simply modify a config file with the connection string and restart the service). The problem is that when their machine boots up, often times SQL Server is started after my service so my service errors out on start up because it can't connect to the database. I know that I can specify dependencies for my service to help guide the Windows service manager to start the appropriate services before mine. However, I don't know what services to depend upon at install time (when my service is registered) since the user can change databases later on. So my question is: is there a way for the user to manually indicate the service dependencies based on the database that they are using? If not, what is the proper design approach that I should be taking? I've thought about trying to do something like wait 30 seconds after my service starts up before connecting to the database but this seems really flaky for various reasons. I've also considered trying to "lazily" connect to the database; the problem is that I need a connection immediately upon start up since the database contains various pieces of vital info that my service needs when it first starts. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

    - by sako73
    I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Reflection for a Field going wrong

    - by TiGer
    Hi, I have been trying to use reflection for a specifiec Field in the android.os.build class, the MANUFACTURER field... I have tried by using this code : try { Class myBuildClass = android.os.Build.class; Field m1 = Build.class.getDeclaredField("MANUFACTURER"); validField = true; manufacturer = Build.MANUFACTURER; } catch(Exception ex) { manufacturer = Build.PRODUCT; System.err.println("getDeviceSpecifics, got an exception during getting Field : " + ex.toString()); } I am gettign the following errors : 06-01 11:26:37.639: WARN/dalvikvm(7342): VFY: unable to resolve static field 2 (MANUFACTURER) in Landroid/os/Build; 06-01 11:26:37.639: WARN/dalvikvm(7342): VFY: rejecting opcode 0x62 at 0x0048 06-01 11:26:37.639: WARN/dalvikvm(7342): VFY: rejected Lmobilaria/android/managementModule/Management;.getDeviceSpecifics ()V 06-01 11:26:37.639: WARN/dalvikvm(7342): Verifier rejected class Lmobilaria/android/managementModule/Management; And when debugging I noticed that InvocationtargetException is continuesly thrown, so I am guessing I haven't been implementing the whole Reflection principle correctly... Any idea where things are going wrong or otherwise on how to implement Refelction for a single Field correctly ?

    Read the article

  • Table not created by Hibernate

    - by User1
    I annotated a bunch of POJO's so JPA can use them to create tables in Hibernate. It appears that all of the tables are created except one very central table called "Revision". The Revision class has an @Entity(name="RevisionT") annotation so it will be renamed to RevisionT so there is not a conflict with any reserved words in MySQL (the target database). I delete the entire database, recreate it and basically open and close a JPA session. All the tables seem to get recreated without a problem. Why would a single table be missing from the created schema? What instrumentation can be used to see what Hibernate is producing and which errors? Thanks. UPDATE: I tried to create as a Derby DB and it was successful. However, one of the fields has a a name of "index". I use @org.hibernate.annotations.IndexColumn to specify the name to something other than a reserved word. However, the column is always called "index" when it is created. Here's a sample of the suspect annotations. @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="MasterTopID") @IndexColumn(name="Cx3tHApe") protected MasterTop masterTop; Instead of creating MasterTop.Cx3tHApe as a field, it creates MasterTop.Index. Why is the name ignored?

    Read the article

  • Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

    - by sevennineteen
    This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How does one make the camera on the iphone appear from the app delegate? Is it possible?

    - by K-RAN
    I'm just playing around with a simple program that opens the camera. That's literally all that I want to do. I'm a beginner and I believe that I have the basics down in terms of UI management for the iPhone so I decided to give this one a whirl. What I'm trying to do right now is... - (BOOL) application:(UIApplication*) application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary*) launchOptions { UIImagePickerController * camera = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; camera.delegate = self; camera.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; camera.allowsEditing = NO; camera.showsCameraControls = NO; [viewController presentModalViewController:camera animated:NO]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES: } So basically, initialize the camera, set some things and show it in the main view. I set the camera's delegate to self because this code is placed in the delegate class (and yes, the delegate class is conforming to UIImagePickerControllerDelegate && UINavigationControllerDelegate). Main problem right now is that nothing is appearing on the screen. I have absolutely no idea what I'm doing wrong, especially since the program is building correctly with no errors or warnings... Any help is appreciated! Thanks a lot :D

    Read the article

  • Probelem, executing commands in cmd using c#

    - by srk
    I need to execute the below command in command prompt. C:\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin>mysql -uroot -ppassword < d:/admindb/aar.sql When i do this manually in cmd, i am getting my results. Now i am trying to do this programatically, to execute it in cmd from c# code. I am using the below code to do it. I am not getting any errors and Result !!! When i debug, i get the value of string commandLine as below, "\"C:\\MySQL\\MySQL Server 5.0\\bin\\\" -uroot -ppassword > \"D:/admindb/AAR12.sql" I guess the problem is with this string, passed to cmd. How to solve this ??. public void Execute() { string commandLine = "\"" + MySqlCommandPath + "\"" + " -u" + DbUid + " -p" + DbPwd + " > " + "\"" + Path.Combine(Path_Backup, FileName_Backup + ExcID + ".sql"); System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo PSI = new System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("cmd.exe"); PSI.RedirectStandardInput = true; PSI.RedirectStandardOutput = true; PSI.RedirectStandardError = true; PSI.UseShellExecute = false; System.Diagnostics.Process p = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(PSI); System.IO.StreamWriter SW = p.StandardInput; System.IO.StreamReader SR = p.StandardOutput; SW.WriteLine(commandLine); SW.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • PHP and MySQL echoing out a Table

    - by user1631702
    Okay, so I've done this before, and it worked. I am trying to echo out specific rows on my database in a table. Here is my code: <?php $connect = mysql_connect("localhost", "xxx", "xxx") or die ("Hey loser, check your server connection."); mysql_select_db("xxx"); $quey1="select * from `Ad Requests`"; $result=mysql_query($quey1) or die(mysql_error()); ?> <table border=1 style="background-color:#F0F8FF;" > <caption><EM>Student Record</EM></caption> <tr> <th>Student ID</th> <th>Student Name</th> <th>Class</th> </tr> <?php while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)){ echo "</td><td>"; echo $row['id']; echo "</td><td>"; echo $row['twitter']; echo "</td><td>"; echo $row['why']; echo "</td></tr>"; } echo "</table>"; ?> It gives me no errors, but It just shows a blank table with none of these rows. My Question: How come this wont show any rows in the table, what am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Modules vs. Classes and their influence on descendants of ActiveRecord::Base

    - by Chris
    Here's a Ruby OO head scratcher for ya, brought about by this Rails scenario: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many(:prices) # define private helper methods end module PrintProduct attr_accessor(:isbn) # override methods in ActiveRecord::Base end class Book < Product include PrintProduct end Product is the base class of all products. Books are kept in the products table via STI. The PrintProduct module brings some common behavior and state to descendants of Product. Book is used inside fields_for blocks in views. This works for me, but I found some odd behavior: After form submission, inside my controller, if I call a method on a book that is defined in PrintProduct, and that method calls a helper method defined in Product, which in turn calls the prices method defined by has_many, I'll get an error complaining that Book#prices is not found. Why is that? Book is a direct descendant of Product! More interesting is the following.. As I developed this hierarchy PrintProduct started to become more of an abstract ActiveRecord::Base, so I thought it prudent to redefine everything as such: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base end class PrintProduct < Product end class Book < PrintProduct end All method definitions, etc. are the same. In this case, however, my web form won't load because the attributes defined by attr_accessor (which are "virtual attributes" referenced by the form but not persisted in the DB) aren't found. I'll get an error saying that there is no method Book#isbn. Why is that?? I can't see a reason why the attr_accessor attributes are not found inside my form's fields_for block when PrintProduct is a class, but they are found when PrintProduct is a Module. Any insight would be appreciated. I'm dying to know why these errors are occurring!

    Read the article

  • IndexOutOfRangeException when a stream is a multiple of the buffer size

    - by dnord
    I don't have a lot of experience with streams and buffers, but I'm having to do it for a project, and I'm stuck on an exception being thrown when the stream I'm reading is a multiple of the buffer size I've chosen. Let me show you: My code starts by reading bufferSize (100, let's say) bytes from the stream: numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); Then, I loop through a while loop: while (numberOfBytesRead == bufferSize) { BufferWriter.Write(output); BufferWriter.Flush(); index += bufferSize; numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); } ... and, once we get to a non-bufferSize read, we know we've hit the end of the stream and can move on. But if the bufferSize is 100, and the stream is 200, we'll read positions 0-99, 100-199, and then the attempt to read 200-299 errors out. I'd like it if it returned 0, but it throws an error. What I'm doing to handle that is, well, a try-catch: catch (System.IndexOutOfRangeException) numberOfBytesRead = 0; ...which ends the loop, and successfully finishes the thing, but we all know I don't want to control code flow with error handling. Is there a better (more standard?) way to handle stream reading when the stream length is unknown? This seems like a small wrinkle in a fairly reasonable strategy for reading streams, but I just don't know if I've got it wrong or what. The specifics of this (which I've cleaned up a little bit for posting) are a MySqlDataReader hitting a LARGEBLOB column. It's working whenever the buffer is larger than the number of returned bytes, or when the number of returned bytes is not a multiple of bufferSize. Because we don't, in that case, throw an IndexOutOfRangeException.

    Read the article

  • how do i call mpmovieplayer from applicationwillresignactive in ppdelegate

    - by ss30
    i'm using mpmovieplayer to play audio stream, one problem i'm having trouble with handling intruptions e.g when call is received. My player is declared in viewcontroller and i beleive i need to do something in applicationdidresignactive in my appdelegate right? how do i do that if my appdelegate isn't aware of my moviePlayer? i'm new to iphone dev so i'm learning as i go and enjoying it :) here is what i'm doing in viewcontroller -(IBAction)play1MButton:(id)sender{ [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(moviePlayerStatus:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *url = @"http://22.22.22.22:8000/listen.pls"; [self.activityIndicator startAnimating]; moviePlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] initWithContentURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url]]; [moviePlayer prepareToPlay]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(moviePlayerLoadStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerLoadStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; } } -(void) moviePlayerStatus:(NSNotification*)notification { //MPMoviePlayerController *moviePlayer = notification.object; MPMoviePlaybackState playbackState = moviePlayer.playbackState; if(playbackState == MPMoviePlaybackStateStopped) { NSLog(@"MPMoviePlaybackStateStopped"); } else if(playbackState == MPMoviePlaybackStatePlaying) { NSLog(@"MPMoviePlaybackStatePlaying"); } else if(playbackState == MPMoviePlaybackStatePaused) { NSLog(@"MPMoviePlaybackStatePaused"); } else if(playbackState == MPMoviePlaybackStateInterrupted) { NSLog(@"MPMoviePlaybackStateInterrupted"); } else if(playbackState == MPMoviePlaybackStateSeekingForward) { NSLog(@"MPMoviePlaybackStateSeekingForward"); } else if(playbackState == MPMoviePlaybackStateSeekingBackward) { NSLog(@"MPMoviePlaybackStateSeekingBackward"); } } - (void) moviePlayerLoadStateChanged:(NSNotification*)notification { if ([moviePlayer loadState] != MPMovieLoadStateUnknown) { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:MPMoviePlayerLoadStateDidChangeNotification object:moviePlayer]; [moviePlayer play]; [self.activityIndicator stopAnimating]; [moviePlayer setFullscreen:NO animated:NO]; } } and in appdelegate - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after application launch. self.window.rootViewController = self.viewController; [self.window makeKeyAndVisible]; AVAudioSession *audioSession = [AVAudioSession sharedInstance]; NSError *setCategoryError = nil; [audioSession setCategory:AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayback error:&setCategoryError]; if (setCategoryError) { } NSError *activationError = nil; [audioSession setActive:YES error:&activationError]; if (activationError) { } I can catch the errors but how do i use the player from appdelegate?!! thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to get at JSON in grails 2.0

    - by Mikey
    I am sending myself JSON like so with jQuery: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: 'http://localhost:8080/myproject/myController/myAction', dataType: 'json', async: false, //json object to sent to the authentication url data: {"stuff":"yes", "listThing":[1,2,3], "listObjects":[{"one":"thing"},{"two":"thing2"}]}, success: function () { alert("Thanks!"); } }) I send this to a controller and do println params And I know I'm already in trouble... [stuff:yes, listObjects[1][two]:thing2, listObjects[0][one]:thing, listThing[]:[1, 2, 3], action:myAction, controller:myController] I cannot figure out how to get at most of these values... I can get "yes" with params.stuff, but I cant do params.listThing.each{} or params.listObjects.each{} What am I doing wrong? UPDATE: I make the controller do this to try the two suggestions so far: println params println params.stuff println params.list('listObjects') println params.listThing def thisWontWork = JSON.parse(params.listThing) render("omg l2json") look how weird the parameters look at the end of the null pointer exception when I try the answers: [stuff:yes, listObjects[1][two]:thing2, listObjects[0][one]:thing, listThing[]:[1, 2, 3], action:l2json, controller:rateAPI] yes [] null | Error 2012-03-25 22:16:13,950 ["http-bio-8080"-exec-7] ERROR errors.GrailsExceptionResolver - NullPointerException occurred when processing request: [POST] /myproject/myController/myAction - parameters: stuff: yes listObjects[1][two]: thing2 listObjects[0][one]: thing listThing[]: 1 listThing[]: 2 listThing[]: 3 UPDATE 2 I am learning things, but this can't be right: println params['listThing[]'] println params['listObjects[0][one]'] prints [1, 2, 3] thing It seems like this is some part of grails new JSON marshaling. This is somewhat inconvenient for my purposes of hacking around with the values. How would I get all these individual params back into a big groovy object of nested maps and lists? Maybe I am not doing what I want with jQuery?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469  | Next Page >