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  • Reference problem when returning an object from array in PHP

    - by avastreg
    I've a reference problem; the example should be more descriptive than me :P I have a class that has an array of objects and retrieve them through a key (string), like an associative array: class Collection { public $elements; function __construct() { $this->elements = array(); } public function get_element($key) { foreach($this->elements as $element) { if ($element->key == $key) { return $element; break; } } return null; } public function add_element ($element) { $this->elements[] = $element; } } Then i have an object (generic), with a key and some variables: class Element { public $key; public $another_var; public function __construct($key) { $this->key = $key; $this->another_var = "default"; } } Now, i create my collection: $collection = new Collection(); $collection->add_element(new Element("test1")); $collection->add_element(new Element("test2")); And then i try to change variable of an element contained in my "array": $element = $collection->get_element("test1"); $element->another_var = "random_string"; echo $collection->get_element("test1")->another_var; Ok, the output is random_string so i know that my object is passed to $element in reference mode. But if i do, instead: $element = $collection-get_element("test1"); $element = null; //or $element = new GenericObject(); $element-another_var = "bla"; echo $collection-get_element("test1")-another_var; the output is default like if it lost the reference. So, what's wrong? I have got the references to the variables of the element and not to the element itself? Any ideas?

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  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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  • Javascript access object variables from functions

    - by Parhs
    function init_exam_chooser(id,mode) { this.id=id; this.table=$("#" + this.id); this.htmlRowOrder="<tr>" + $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr:eq(0)").html() + "</tr>"; this.htmlRowNew="<tr>" + $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr:eq(1)").html() + "</tr>"; $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr").remove(); //Arxikopoiisi var rowNew=$(this.htmlRowNew); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").eq(0).autocomplete({ source: function (req,resp) { $.ajax({ url: "/medilab/prototypes/exams/searchQuick", cache: false, dataType: "json", data:{codeName:req.term}, success: function(data) { resp(data); } }); }, focus: function(event,ui) { return false; }, minLength :2 }); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").eq(1).autocomplete({ source: function (req,resp) { $.ajax({ url: "/medilab/prototypes/exams/searchQuick", cache: false, dataType: "json", data:{name:req.term}, success: function(data) { resp(data); } }); }, focus: function(event,ui) { return false; }, minLength :2 }); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").bind( "autocompleteselect", function(event, ui) { alert(htmlRowOrder); var row=$(htmlRowOrder); $(table).find("tbody tr:last").before(row); alert(ui.item.id); }); rowNew.appendTo($(this.table).find("tbody")); //this.htmlRowNew } The problem is at ,how i can access htmlRowOrder? I tried this.htmlRowOrder and didnt work.... Any ideas?? rowNew.find("input[type='text']").bind( "autocompleteselect", function(event, ui) { alert(htmlRowOrder); var row=$(htmlRowOrder); $(table).find("tbody tr:last").before(row); alert(ui.item.id); });

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  • How can I incorporate a data bound list of MenuItems to another MenuItem in WPF?

    - by Julien Poulin
    I have a 'File' MenuItem were I would like to display a list of recently opened files. Here is the xaml I have now: <MenuItem Header="File}"> <MenuItem Header="Preferences..." Command="{Binding ShowOptionsViewCommand}" /> <Separator /> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding RecentFiles}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <MenuItem Header="{Binding DisplayPath}" CommandParameter="{Binding}" Command="{Binding Path=DataContext.OpenRecentFileCommand, RelativeSource={RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"> </MenuItem> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> <Separator /> <MenuItem Header="Exit" Command="{Binding CloseCommand}" /> </MenuItem> However, when I use this code, there is a weird offset around the MenuItems and it looks like there is a container around them. How can I get rid of that? Here is a screenshot of what it looks like:

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  • Is it possible to anti alias using Copy swap effect?

    - by Nor
    I'm developing an application in VB.Net using Managed DirectX that runs in windowed mode and renders onto a picture box that is smaller than the form. Whenever I resize the form, the back buffer is streched to fit the picture box. This is not what I would like. The backbuffer size is the same as screen size, however, I only want to render a part of the back buffer, whose size is controlled by the size of the picture box into which I'm rendering. Resetting the device with new presentation parameters is something I would like to avoid. I'm aware that I can use an overload of Device.Present if I set the swap effect to copy, but this doesn't allow me to use Multi Sample Anti Alias (which requires the Discard swap effect). It seems to me that the overload Device.Present is not usable with any other swap effect than copy, and throws an exception. An other alternative I considered is the PresentFlags.DeviceClip, however it seems that it works only for Windows XP. I'm using Windows 7 and it doesn't seem to be doing anything. So, is it even possible that I use anti-aliasing in this situation?

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  • Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

    - by Niraj Doshi
    Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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  • My website keeps crashing IE, can't debug

    - by Ninja rhino
    I have a website that suddenly started to crash internet explorer. The website loads and starts executing javascript but somewhere in there the machinery explodes. I don't even get a script error, it just crashes. I've tried to manually step through every single line of js with the built in debugger but then of course the problem doesn't occur. If i choose to debug the application when it crashes i see the following message. Unhandled exception at 0x6c5dedf5 in iexplore.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000090. The top 5 items in the call stack looks like this VGX.dll!6c5dedf5() [Frames below may be incorrect and/or missing, no symbols loaded for VGX.dll] VGX.dll!6c594d70() VGX.dll!6c594f63() VGX.dll!6c595350() VGX.dll!6c58f5e3() mshtml.dll!6f88dd17() VGX.dll seems to be part of the vml renderer and i am in fact using VML. I'm not suprised because i've had so many problems with vml, attributes has to be set in specific order, sometimes you cant set attributes when you have elements attached to the dom or vice versa (everything undocumented btw) but then the problems can usually be reproduced when debugging but not now :( The problem also occurs in no plugin-mode. Is there a better approach than trial and error to solve this? Edit: Adding a console outputting every suspect modification to the DOM made the problem only occur sometimes. (the console is also implemented in javascript on the same page, i'm able to see the output even after a crash as the window is still visible) Apparently it seems to be some kind of race condition. I managed to track it down even further, and it seems to occur when you remove an object from the DOM too quickly after it's just been added. (most likely only for vml-elements with some special attribute, didn't try further) And it can't be fixed by adding a dead loop in front of removeChild(pretty bad solution anyway), the page has to be rendered by the browser once after the addChild before you can call removeChild. sigh

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  • In Firefox, how do I bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript

    - by brahn
    I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body>

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  • (HTML) PNG on top of another PNG - possible to eliminate full transparency?

    - by MHTri
    I'd like to put a logo png onto of another coloured png. They both have transparent backgrounds. When I try this the images blend together. Curiously, in Photoshop the logo retains its opaque-ness - I put colours on the layers underneath it, another image, etc etc, the logo is still opaque. I'd like to do it this way so I can rotate the background images. How do I fix this? [edit]I've cooked up an example image: http://i.imgur.com/XtoGn.png The left is what I want to happen, the right is what happens on all browsers (I know the background isn't transparent but bear with me - they're both transparent pngs, with the background having a gradient layer mask). I've put the images like this <div> <img id="backgroundImg" style="position: absolute; top: 0;" src="/Images/background.png" /> <img id="logoImg" src="/Images/logo.png" /> </div> I'm not entirely sure what blending mode I'm using in PS.

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • C# error casting from double to int32

    - by orfix
    using NUF = NUnit.Framework; [NUF.Test]public void DifferentCastingTest() { NUF.Assert.That((int)0.499999D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); NUF.Assert.That((int)0.500000D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); // !!! row 1 NUF.Assert.That((int)1.499999D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(1)); NUF.Assert.That((int)1.500000D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(1)); // !!! row 2 NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(0.499999D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(0.500000D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); // !!! NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(1.499999D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(1)); NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(1.500000D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(2)); //!!! row 3 } The same double value (1.5D) is converted in different way by casting and Convert.ToInt32 (see row 2 and 3), and two double with same mantissa (0.5 and 1.5) is rounded in different mode (see row 1 and 2). Is it a bug?

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  • Give Gridview cell font colour according to condition

    - by vim
    How can I give colour to gridview's cell text according to condition. I have a below gridview and I am taking data in gridview by code behind. <asp:GridView ID="GridView3" runat="server" AllowPaging="true" PageSize="5" AutoGenerateColumns="false" Width="100%" OnPageIndexChanging="GridView3_PageIndexChanging" CssClass="Grid"> <RowStyle CssClass="GridRow"/> <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="No" DataField="id" Visible="false"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Scenario" DataField="Scenario"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Type" DataField="Type"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Station Name" DataField="StationName"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Parameter" DataField="PARAM"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Value" DataField="Value" SortExpression="Value" DataFormatString="{0:F2}"/> </Columns> <PagerStyle BackColor="White" Height="40px" Font-Bold="true" Font- Size="Medium" ForeColor="Green" HorizontalAlign="Center"/> <PagerSettings FirstPageText="First" LastPageText="Last" Mode="NumericFirstLast" PageButtonCount="3" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#ABDB78" ForeColor="Black" Height="35px" Font- Size="13px" Font-Names="verdana"/> </asp:GridView> I am binding data with this grid by code behind. protected void ReservGridBind() { string name = Request.QueryString[1].ToString(); string query = "SELECT SD.id,SD.Scenario,SD.Value,PR.Type,PR.StationName,PR.PARAM from sgwebdb.param_reference as PR Inner join sgwebdb.scenario_data as SD ON PR.Param_Id=SD.Param_Id INNER JOIN sgwebdb.qualicision_detail as Q ON SD.SCENARIO=Q.Alternative where PR.Type='Reservoirs' and Q.Alternative='" + name +"'"; this.GridView1.DataSource = PSI.DataAccess.Database.DatabaseManager .GetConnection().GetData(query); GridView1.DataBind(); condition : if text < 0 then blue colour , text > 0 && text < 4 then green colour, text > 4 then red colour. Please help me for this gridview's cell text colour.

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  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

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  • Disable/Enable applicationbar Button in runtime with event textchanged (Windows Phone)

    - by user3621634
    In this part of the code is the event TextChanged to enable the button in te applicationbar Code in C# private void Textbox_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ApplicationBarIconButton btn_guardar = ApplicationBar.Buttons[0] as applicationBarIconButton; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_nom_usuario.Text) && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_edad_usuario.Text) && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_peso_usuario.Text)) { btn_guardar.IsEnabled = true; } else btn_guardar.IsEnabled = false; } Code XAML <phone:PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <shell:ApplicationBar Mode="Default" IsVisible="True"> <shell:ApplicationBarIconButton x:Name="btn_guardar" IconUri="/icons/appbar.save.rest.png" Text="Guardar" Click="btn_guardar_Click" IsEnabled="False" /> <shell:ApplicationBarIconButton x:Name="btn_atras" IconUri="/icons/appbar.back.rest.png" Text="Atrás" Click="btn_atras_Click" /> </shell:ApplicationBar> </phone:PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <TextBlock x:Name="lbl_ingresanombre" Height="39" Margin="60,28,0,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="248" FontSize="29.333" FontFamily="{StaticResource Helvetica}"><Run Text="Ingresa "/><Run Text="tu nombre"/></TextBlock> <TextBox x:Name="txt_nom_usuario" Height="63" Margin="47,58,69,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="&#xa;" FontSize="21.333" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsEnabled="True" /> <TextBlock x:Name="lbl_edad" Height="38" Margin="60,117,0,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="Ingresa tu edad" VerticalAlignment="Top" FontSize="29.333" HorizontalAlignment="Left" FontFamily="{StaticResource Helvetica}"/> <TextBox x:Name="txt_edad_usuario" InputScope="TelephoneLocalNumber" Height="63" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="&#xa;" FontSize="21.333" Margin="47,147,69,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" MaxLength="3" />

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  • How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

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  • Jquery Resize Line of text To Fit Div Width

    - by Douglas Cottrell
    I am using the following script to resize a one line string to fit properly in a div box. <script type="text/javascript"> $( '.test' ).css( 'font-size', 0 ).each(function ( i, box2 ) { var width = $( box2 ).width(), line = $( box2 ).wrapInner( '<span style="white-space:nowrap">' ).children()[ 0 ]; function changeFontSize( n ) { $( box2 ).css( 'font-size', function ( i, val ) { return parseInt( val, 10 ) + n; }); } while ( $( line ).width() < width ) { changeFontSize( 1 ); } changeFontSize( -1 ); $( box2 ).text( $( line ).text() ); }); </script> This script works perfect in FF, Chrome, and opera. However in IE if the user is in compatability mode it errors and locks up the browser. I do not know enough about the older browsers to know what I have added that is not compatible. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Android SDK: Hello World won't run !

    - by RedRoses
    Hello, This is a very very beginner question regarding Android Development I am trying to create and run the Hello world example from the Android SDK website, but I can't see anything appearing on the screen. It appears to me that Eclipse just hangs at this point: [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] ------------------------------ [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] Android Launch! [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] adb is running normally. [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] Performing com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch [2010-11-05 09:55:48 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'AVD2' [2010-11-05 09:55:48 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'AVD2' [2010-11-05 09:55:51 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-11-05 09:55:51 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] WARNING: Application does not specify an API level requirement! [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] Device API version is 8 (Android 2.2) [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] HOME is up on device 'emulator-5554' [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] Uploading HelloAndroid.apk onto device 'emulator-5554' [2010-11-05 09:57:12 - HelloAndroid] Installing HelloAndroid.apk... [2010-11-05 09:59:33 - HelloAndroid] Success! [2010-11-05 09:59:33 - HelloAndroid] Starting activity com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid on device emulator-5554 So it says "Starting activity ..." but nothing ever starts and it's already been more than 30 mins. What could be wrong?? Thanks !

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  • Dealloc'd Predicate crashing iPhone App!

    - by DVG
    To preface, this is a follow up to an inquiry made a few days ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2981803/iphone-app-crashes-when-merging-managed-object-contexts Short Version: EXC_BAD_ACCESS is crashing my app, and zombie-mode revealed the culprit to be my predicate embedded within the fetch request embedded in my Fetched Results Controller. How does an object within an object get released without an explicit command to do so? Long Version: Application Structure Platforms View Controller - Games View Controller (Predicated upon platform selection) - Add Game View Controller When a row gets clicked on the Platforms view, it sets an instance variable in Games View for that platform, then the Games Fetched Results Controller builds a fetch request in the normal way: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController{ if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } //build the fetch request for Games NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Game" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; //predicate NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"platform == %@", selectedPlatform]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; //sort based on name NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; //fetch and build fetched results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; [predicate release]; [request release]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; return fetchedResultsController; } At the end of this method, the fetchedResultsController's _fetch_request - _predicate member is set to an NSComparisonPredicate object. All is well in the world. By the time - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section gets called, the _predicate is now a Zombie, which will eventually crash the application when the table attempts to update itself. I'm more or less flummoxed. I'm not releasing the fetched results controller or any of it's parts, and the only part getting dealloc'd is the predicate. Any ideas?

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  • Moving UITableView cells and maintaining consistent data

    - by Mark F
    I've enabled editing mode and moving cells around to allow users to position table view content in the order they please. I'm using Core Data as the data source, which sorts the content by the attribute "userOrder". When content is first inserted, userOrder is set to a random value. The idea is that when the user moves a cell around, the userOrder of that cell changes to accomodate its new position. The following are problems I am running into while trying to accomplish this: Successfully saving the the new location of the cell and adjusting all changed locations of influenced cells. Getting the data to be consistent. For example, the TableView handles the movement fine, but when i click on the new location of the cell, it displays data for the old cell that used to be that location. Data of all influenced cells gets messed up as well. I know I have to implement this in: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView moveRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)sourceIndexPath toIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)destinationIndexPath {} I just don't know how. The apple docs are not particularly helpful if you are using Core Data, as in my situation. Any guidance greatly appreciated!

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  • Windows "forms" authentication - <deny users="?"> redirecting to foreign page!

    - by Erik5388
    Like the title states - I have a web.config file that looks like, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="login" protection="All" timeout="30" loginUrl="login" defaultUrl="~/"> <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="admin" password="password" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration> I want to do exactly what it says it should do... I want to deny all users who try to enter the site. It works however, it redirects to a "Account/Login?ReturnUrl=%2flogin" url I have never heard of... Is there a place I can change this?

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  • opening word document contailning macros using textarea

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am avani here,actually 1.i amhaving one word document which contains macros i wann to open it in textarea.. 2.i am able to open the word document which is not containing macros 3.i am not able to open the document which contains macros 4.i am using below code 5.please do help me anyone i am thinking its some what impossible { //echo $aud; $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened file. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word-Documents-Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word-ActiveDocument-Content; //echo $somecontent; $word-ActiveDocument-Close(false); $word-Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ? Edit file -------- ?

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  • How do I call Matlab in a script on Windows?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I'm working on a project that uses several languages: SQL for querying a database Perl/Ruby for quick-and-dirty processing of the data from the database and some other bookkeeping Matlab for matrix-oriented computations Various statistics languages (SAS/R/SPSS) for processing the Matlab output Each language fits its niche well and we already have a fair amount of code in each. Right now, there's a lot of manual work to run all these steps that would be much better scripted. I've already done this on Linux, and it works relatively well. On Linux: matlab -nosplash -nodesktop -r "command" or echo "command" | matlab -nosplash -nodesktop ...opens Matlab in a "command line" mode. (That is, no windows are created -- it just reads from STDIN, executes, and outputs to STDOUT/STDERR.) My problem is that on Windows (XP and 7), this same code opens up a window and doesn't read from / write to the command line. It just stares me blankly in the face, totally ignoring STDIN and STDOUT. How can I script running Matlab commands on Windows? I basically want something that will do: ruby database_query.rb perl legacy_code.pl ruby other_stuff.rb matlab processing_step_1.m matlab processing_step_2.m # etc, etc. I've found out that Matlab has an -automation flag on Windows to start an "automation server". That sounds like overkill for my purposes, and I'd like something that works on both platforms. What options do I have for automating Matlab in this workflow?

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  • find and replace values in csv using PHP

    - by peirix
    I'd think there was a question on this already, but I can't find one. Maybe the solution is too easy... Anyway, I have a csv and want to let the user change the values based on a name. I've already sorted out creating new name+value-pairs using the fopen('a') mode, using jQuery to send the AJAX call with newValue and newName. But say the content looks like this: host|http:www.stackoverflow.com folder|/questions/ folder2|/users/ And now I want to change the folder value. So I'll send in folder as oldName and /tags/ as newValue. What's the best way to overwrite the value? The order in the list doesn't matter, and the name will always be on the left, followed by a |(pipe), the value and then a new-line. My first thought was to read the list, store it in an array, search all the [0]'s for oldName, then change the [1] that belongs to it, and then write it back to a file. But I feel there is a better way around this? Any ideas? Maybe regex?

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  • Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

    - by Sotirios Delimanolis
    I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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  • How to style "form" field labels in Windows Phone 7?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    Is there any standards guidance on how to style field labels next to form fields in windows phone 7 silverlight applications? For example, let's say I have a StackPanel with the TextBlock label and a TextBox for data entry. Currently I am using the default TextBlock Margin included in the PhoneTextSubtleStyle ("12,0,12,0"), and using a Margin of "0,-12,0,0" to push the TextBox up closer to the label: <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="Name" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextSubtleStyle}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ItemName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="433" Margin="0,-12,0,0" /> </StackPanel> Note that the TextBox seems to have some internal padding of 12 pixels to the left and right, so that the TextBlock label and the TextBox control visually line up perfectly on the left. The problem is, I see existing apps with widely varying conventions for field label styling. Some do not do the negative margin adjustment, like I have above. Some don't. Some appear to override the label TextBlock Margin so that it is indented an additional 12 pixels on the left (i.e. "24,0,12,0" instead of the default "12,0,12,0"). Some apps put the labels to the left of the fields themselves (I hate that). Is there some standard design guidance on field labels in Windows Phone 7? I read through the design template PDF and could only determine that the field labels should be upper case on the first word (preferably only one word labels), and should NOT have a colon at the end. I didn't see anything with regards to margins or alignment between the label and the field.

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