Search Results

Search found 13794 results on 552 pages for 'variable scope'.

Page 462/552 | < Previous Page | 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469  | Next Page >

• GNUStep make with a precompiled (and prefixed) .pch header from Xcode project?

  - by d11wtq

  I'm trying to build an Xcode project with GNUStep-make. Right now the project is very small (3 classes) however it will grow to hundreds of classes over the coming weeks so I'm trying to get everything figured out and well-organised now. Xcode creates a ProjectName_Prefix.pch file which is a header that: a) get precompiled and b) is prefixed to every file in my project; at least if I understand correctly. Now, how do I tell GNUStep-make what to do with this file when it builds? I've added it to the XXX_PRECOMPILED_HEADERS variable. Cioccolata_OBJC_PRECOMPILED_HEADERS = Cioccolata_Prefix.pch With this in place the build fails with the error: Making all for framework Cioccolata... make[1]: *** No rule to make target `/Users/chris/Projects/Mac/Cioccolata/build/GNUStep/obj/PrecompiledHeaders/ObjC/Cioccolata_Prefix.pch', needed by `internal-precompile-headers'. Stop. make: *** [Cioccolata.all.framework.variables] Error 2 I've also got the following in my makefile: ADDITIONAL_OBJC_FLAGS += -include Cioccolata_Prefix.pch -Winvalid-pch I'm not sure what I've done wrong here. I basically have tried to follow the GNUStep documentation for precompiled headers. None of my project's source files expressly include the Foundation framework since this header does that.

  Read the article

• parameter for xcodebuild for using latest sdk.

  - by Maciek Sawicki

  I using ant exec task to execute xcodebuild to build some iOS projects hudson. I would like to be able to crate script that way that allows not to specify sdk version, because after updating sdk on hudson slave or my iOS projects all my projects failing.... There is is nice option in xcode since sdk 4.2 in target setup Base SDK - Latest iOS and I don't have to provide -sdk param in xcodebuild command, but then (i think) it's taken from xcode project and it's bad because then some one can change target from simulator to device accidentally during commit. I need something that is constant. I will prefer not to use env variable because I would like to be able to run this ant task also on dev machines and would like not have to renember about setting it on all machines. Unfortunately xcodebuild -showsdk gives only: Mac OS X SDKs: Mac OS X 10.4 -sdk macosx10.4 Mac OS X 10.5 -sdk macosx10.5 Mac OS X 10.6 -sdk macosx10.6 iOS SDKs: iOS 4.2 -sdk iphoneos4.2 iOS Simulator SDKs: Simulator - iOS 3.2 -sdk iphonesimulator3.2 Simulator - iOS 4.0 -sdk iphonesimulator4.0 Simulator - iOS 4.1 -sdk iphonesimulator4.1 Simulator - iOS 4.2 -sdk iphonesimulator4.2 I need something like -sdk iphoneosLatest. My only idea is to pare output of xcodebuild -showsdk with some script, but I don't like this idea.

  Read the article

• How to cast sockaddr_storage and avoid breaking strict-aliasing rules

  - by sinoth

  I'm using Beej's Guide to Networking and came across an aliasing issue. He proposes a function to return either the IPv4 or IPv6 address of a particular struct: 1 void *get_in_addr( struct sockaddr *sa ) 2 { 3 if (sa->sa_family == AF_INET) 4 return &(((struct sockaddr_in*)sa)->sin_addr); 5 else 6 return &(((struct sockaddr_in6*)sa)->sin6_addr); 7 } This causes GCC to spit out a strict-aliasing error for sa on line 3. As I understand it, it is because I call this function like so: struct sockaddr_storage their_addr; ... inet_ntop(their_addr.ss_family, get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)&their_addr), connection_name, sizeof connection_name); I'm guessing the aliasing has to do with the fact that the their_addr variable is of type sockaddr_storage and another pointer of a differing type points to the same memory. Is the best way to get around this sticking sockaddr_storage, sockaddr_in, and sockaddr_in6 into a union? It seems like this should be well worn territory in networking, I just can't find any good examples with best practices. Also, if anyone can explain exactly where the aliasing issue takes place, I'd much appreciate it.

  Read the article

• Rails 3 : create two dimensional hash and add values from a loop

  - by John

  I have two models : class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :ticket attr_accessible .... end class Ticket < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :project attr_accessible done_date, description, .... end In my ProjectsController I would like to create a two dimensional hash to get in one variable for one project all tickets that are done (with done_date as key and description as value). For example i would like a hash like this : What i'm looking for : @tickets_of_project = ["done_date_1" => ["a", "b", "c"], "done_date_2" => ["d", "e"]] And what i'm currently trying (in ProjectsController) ... def show # Get current project @project = Project.find(params[:id]) # Get all dones tickets for a project, order by done_date @tickets = Ticket.where(:project_id => params[:id]).where("done_date IS NOT NULL").order(:done_date) # Create a new hash @tickets_of_project = Hash.new {} # Make a loop on all tickets, and want to complete my hash @tickets.each do |ticket| # TO DO #HOW TO PUT ticket.value IN "tickets_of_project" WITH KEY = ticket.done_date ??** end end I don't know if i'm in a right way or not (maybe use .map instead of make a where query), but how can I complete and put values in hash by checking index if already exist or not ? Thanx :)

  Read the article

• problem in json response from server to client using jquery

  - by user1400

  hello i try to use ajax and zend framework in my application , i could pass variable to server but i can not get data from server , it does not return values, it return all html code page, where is my mistake? or should i config other thing? $('#myForm').submit(function($e){ $e.preventDefault(); var $paramToServer=$("#myForm").serialize(); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:'test', data:$paramToServer , success:function(re){ var res = $.evalJSON(re); console.log(res.id); // to see in firebog }, dataType:'json' }); }); public function testAction() { $this->_helper->getHelper('viewRenderer')->setNoRender(); //disable layout Zend_Layout::getMvcInstance()->disableLayout(); $name=$this->getRequest()->getParam ( 'name' ); //pass $name to server $return = array( 'id' => '5', 'family' => 'hello ', ); $return = Zend_Json::encode( $return); // Response $this->getResponse()->setBody($return); } thanks

  Read the article

• How can I share variables between a base class and subclass in Perl?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a base class like this: package MyClass; use vars qw/$ME list of vars/; use Exporter; @ISA = qw/Exporter/; @EXPORT_OK = qw/ many variables & functions/; %EXPORT_TAGS = (all => \@EXPORT_OK ); sub my_method { } sub other_methods etc { } --- more code--- I want to subclass MyClass, but only for one method. package MySubclass; use MyClass; use vars qw/@ISA/; @ISA = 'MyClass'; sub my_method { --- new method } And I want to call this MySubclass like I would the original MyClass, and still have access to all of the variables and functions from Exporter. However I am having problems getting the Exporter variables from the original class, MyClass, to export correctly. Do I need to run Exporter again inside the subclass? That seems redundant and unclear. Example file: #!/usr/bin/perl use MySubclass /$ME/; -- rest of code But I get compile errors when I try to import the $ME variable. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• In Perl, how can a subroutine get a coderef that points to itself?

  - by hillu

  For learning purposes, I am toying around with the idea of building event-driven programs in Perl and noticed that it might be nice if a subroutine that was registered as an event handler could, on failure, just schedule another call to itself for a later time. So far, I have come up with something like this: my $cb; my $try = 3; $cb = sub { my $rc = do_stuff(); if (!$rc && --$try) { schedule_event($cb, 10); # schedule $cb to be called in 10 seconds } else { do_other_stuff; } }; schedule_event($cb, 0); # schedule initial call to $cb to be performed ASAP Is there a way that code inside the sub can access the coderef to that sub so I could do without using an extra variable? I'd like to schedule the initial call like this. schedule_event( sub { ... }, 0); I first thought of using caller(0)[3], but this only gives me a function name, (__ANON__ if there's no name), not a code reference that has a pad attached to it.

  Read the article

• Q on Python serialization/deserialization

  - by neil

  What chances do I have to instantiate, keep and serialize/deserialize to/from binary data Python classes reflecting this pattern (adopted from RFC 2246 [TLS]): enum { apple, orange } VariantTag; struct { uint16 number; opaque string<0..10>; /* variable length */ } V1; struct { uint32 number; opaque string[10]; /* fixed length */ } V2; struct { select (VariantTag) { /* value of selector is implicit */ case apple: V1; /* VariantBody, tag = apple */ case orange: V2; /* VariantBody, tag = orange */ } variant_body; /* optional label on variant */ } VariantRecord; Basically I would have to define a (variant) class VariantRecord, which varies depending on the value of VariantTag. That's not that difficult. The challenge is to find a most generic way to build a class, which serializes/deserializes to and from a byte stream... Pickle, Google protocol buffer, marshal is all not an option. I made little success with having an explicit "def serialize" in my class, but I'm not very happy with it, because it's not generic enough. I hope I could express the problem. My current solution in case VariantTag = apple would look like this, but I don't like it too much import binascii import struct class VariantRecord(object): def __init__(self, number, opaque): self.number = number self.opaque = opaque def serialize(self): out = struct.pack('>HB%ds' % len(self.opaque), self.number, len(self.opaque), self.opaque) return out v = VariantRecord(10, 'Hello') print binascii.hexlify(v.serialize()) >> 000a0548656c6c6f Regards

  Read the article

• What's the largest (most complex) PHP algorithm ever implemented in a single monolithic PHP script?

  - by Alex R

  I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The source needs to be in a single file. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

  Read the article

• Can I build this XPath query dynamically in XSLT?

  - by Martin Doms

  I have a document that looks something like <root> <element> <subelement1 /> <subelement2 /> </element> <element> <subelement2 /> <subelement1 /> </element> </root> In my XSLT sheet in the context of /element[2]/[someNode] I want to get a number that represents the distance of /element[1]/[someNode] (ie, the number of preceding siblings of /element1/[someNode]). For example, in the context of /element[2]/subelement1 I'd like to have some way to get the number 2, the distance from /element[1] to /element[1]/subelement2. I only ever need the distance of the given node name from the first instance of . Intuitively I thought I could construct this like <xsl:variable name="nodename" select="name()" /> <xsl:value-of select="/element[1]/$nodename/preceding-sibling::*" /> but unfortunately this sheet doesn't compile. Is what I'm trying to achieve possible in XSLT?

  Read the article

• Converting timestamp to time ago in php e.g 1 day ago, 2 days ago...

  - by cosmicbdog

  hi everyone, i am trying to convert a timestamp of the format: 2009-09-12 20:57:19 and turn it into something like '3 minutes ago' with php. I found a useful script to do this, but I think its looking for a different format to be used as the time variable. The script I'm wanting to modify to work with this format is: function _ago($tm,$rcs = 0) { $cur_tm = time(); $dif = $cur_tm-$tm; $pds = array('second','minute','hour','day','week','month','year','decade'); $lngh = array(1,60,3600,86400,604800,2630880,31570560,315705600); for($v = sizeof($lngh)-1; ($v >= 0)&&(($no = $dif/$lngh[$v])<=1); $v--); if($v < 0) $v = 0; $_tm = $cur_tm-($dif%$lngh[$v]); $no = floor($no); if($no <> 1) $pds[$v] .='s'; $x=sprintf("%d %s ",$no,$pds[$v]); if(($rcs == 1)&&($v >= 1)&&(($cur_tm-$_tm) > 0)) $x .= time_ago($_tm); return $x; } I think on those first few lines its trying to do something that looks like this (different date format math): $dif = 1252809479 - 2009-09-12 20:57:19; How would I go about converting my timestamp into that (unix?) format?

  Read the article

• Passing an NSDate

  - by Garry

  I'm new to the iPhone and objective-c and I am still trying to get my head around ownership of objects so bear with me. I have a DOBViewController that has a datepicker on it. I have created a custom init method: -(id)initWithInitialDate(NSDate *)initialDate; Another view controller has a date instance declared (NSDate *dob) that holds a value. I would like to pass this to the DOBViewController so that it can scroll the datepicker to the passed value. Here is the custom init method: - (id)initWithInitialDate:(NSDate *)initialDate { // Initialise ourselves self = [super init]; // Set the date of the date picker if (initialDate != nil) { datePicker.date = initialDate; } else { // Set it to today datePicker.date = [NSDate date]; } return self; } This is how I am sending the dob NSDate object: DOBViewController *dobViewController = [[DOBViewController alloc] initWithInitialDate:dob]; Where dob is a variable of type NSDate that is declared in the header file. This doesn't seem to work as initialDate is always NULL. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Accessing class member variables inside a BackgroundWorker's DoWork event handler, and other Backgro

  - by Justin

  Question 1 In the DoWork event handler of a BackgroundWorker, is it safe to access (for both reading and writing) member variables of the class that contains the BackgroundWorker? Is it safe to access other variables that are not declared inside the DoWork event handler itself? Obviously DoWork should not be accessing any UI objects of, say, a WinForms application, as the UI should only be updated from the UI thread. But what about accessing other (not UI-related) member variables? The reason why I ask is that I've seen the occasional comment come up while Googling saying that accessing member variables is not allowed. The only example I can find at the moment is a comment on this MSDN page, which says: Note, that the BGW can cause exceptions if it attempts to access or modify class level variables. All data must be passed to it by delegates and events. And also: NEVER. NEVER. Never try to reference variables not declared inside of DoWork. It may seem to work at times, but in reality you are just getting lucky. As far as I know, MSDN itself does not document any restrictions of this kind (although if I'm wrong, I'd appreciate a link). But comments like these do seem to pop up every now and again. (Of course if DoWork does access/modify a member variable that could be accessed/modified by the main thread at the same time, it is necessary to synchronise access to that field, eg by using a locking object. But the above quotes seem to require a blanket ban of accessing member variables, rather than just synchronising access!) Question 2 To make this into a more general question, are there any other (not documented?) restrictions that users of the BackgroundWorker should be aware of, aside from the above? Any "best practices", perhaps?

  Read the article

• Is it possible in any Java IDE to collapse the type definitions in the source code?

  - by asmaier

  Lately I often have to read Java code like this: LinkedHashMap<String, Integer> totals = new LinkedHashMap<String, Integer>(listOfRows.get(0)) for (LinkedHashMap<String, Integer> row : (ArrayList<LinkedHashMap<String,Integer>>) table.getValue()) { for(Entry<String, Integer> elem : row.entrySet()) { String colName=elem.getKey(); int Value=elem.getValue(); int oldValue=totals.get(colName); int sum = Value + oldValue; totals.put(colName, sum); } } Due to the long and nested type definitions the simple algorithm becomes quite obscured. So I wished I could remove or collapse the type definitions with my IDE to see the Java code without types like: totals = new (listOfRows.get(0)) for (row : table.getValue()) { for(elem : row.entrySet()) { colName=elem.getKey(); Value=elem.getValue(); oldValue=totals.get(colName); sum = Value + oldValue; totals.put(colName, sum); } } The best way of course would be to collapse the type definitions, but when moving the mouse over a variable show the type as a tooltip. Is there a Java IDE or a plugin for an IDE that can do this?

  Read the article

• Java UnknownFormatConversionException

  - by user1672458

  The code below is throwing this error, and I'm not sure why. It's clearly a problem with outputting String.format to the str variable, but I don't know what's wrong with it. Exception in thread "main" java.util.UnknownFormatConversionException: Conversion = 'i' at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.conversion(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.<init>(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter.parse(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter.format(Unknown Source) at java.util.Formatter.format(Unknown Source) at java.lang.String.format(Unknown Source) at Donor.toString(Donor.java:41) at Donor.main(Donor.java:65) - import java.util.Scanner; public class Donor { public String name; public int age; public double donation; Donor() { //Initialized to these values for debugging name = "NoName"; age = 0; donation = 0; } Donor(String nameinit, int ageinit, double donationinit) { name = nameinit; age = ageinit; donation = donationinit; } public String toString() { String str = ""; str = String.format("%s-30%i-6$%d-20", name, age, donation); return str; } public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner input = new Scanner(System.in); String nameinit = null; int ageinit = -1; double donationinit = -1; String outp = null; System.out.print("Enter the donor's name: "); nameinit = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Enter the donor's age: "); ageinit = input.nextInt(); System.out.print("Enter the donation amount: "); donationinit = input.nextDouble(); Donor d = new Donor(nameinit, ageinit, donationinit); outp = d.toString(); System.out.printf("%s30 %s6 %s10", "Name", "Age", "Donation"); System.out.print("\n" + outp); input.close(); } }

  Read the article

• Best emailing approach with template emails

  - by Harun Baris Bulut

  Hi all, We are creating a project with lots of different mail templates in it. There are different messages for different purposes and we are trying to make the coding easy and understandable for the future. By the way we have different transport classes like e-mail, sms, twitter vs... Now we are doing this but I dont know if there is a better solution. We have a class called H2B_Message_Container_Mail_About_Blablabla it has 4 methods; interface H2B_Message_Mail_Interface { public function setName($name); public function setValue($key, $value); public function getMailBody(); public function getMailSubject(); } and in the mail body there are various variables as expected. before we send the mail, we get the variable values from the database with JSON format and decode it. Then we send it like; $mail = new H2B_Message_Mail(); $mail->setTemplate($newTemplate); $mail->send(); The question is; is there a better way to do this ?

  Read the article

• Methods for Lazy Initialization with properties

  - by Stuart Pegg

  I'm currently altering a widely used class to move as much of the expensive initialization from the class constructor into Lazy Initialized properties. Below is an example (in c#): Before: public class ClassA { public readonly ClassB B; public void ClassA() { B = new ClassB(); } } After: public class ClassA { private ClassB _b; public ClassB B { get { if (_b == null) { _b = new ClassB(); } return _b; } } } There are a fair few more of these properties in the class I'm altering, and some are not used in certain contexts (hence the Laziness), but if they are used they're likely to be called repeatedly. Unfortunately, the properties are often also used inside the class. This means there is a potential for the private variable (_b) to be used directly by a method without it being initialized. Is there a way to make only the public property (B) available inside the class, or even an alternative method with the same initialized-when-needed? This is reposted from Programmers (not subjective enough apparently): http://programmers.stackexchange.com/questions/34270/best-methods-for-lazy-initialization-with-properties

  Read the article

• extjs how to make a nested child using xTemplate when we don't know how deep is it?

  - by Ebo the gordon

  first, sorry if my english bad,.... in my script, variable tplData below is dynamic,... (lets say it generates from database) so, every chid, can have another child. and so on,.... now, i'm stack how to iteration it,.. var tplData = [{ name : 'Naomi White' },{ name : 'Yoko Ono' },{ name : 'John Smith', child : [{ name:'Michael (John\'s son)', child: [{ name : 'Brad (Michael\'s son,John\'s grand son)' },{ name : 'Brid (Michael\'s son,John\'s grand son)', child: [{ name:'Buddy (Brid\'s son,Michael\'s grand son)' }] },{ name : 'Brud (Michael\'s son,John\'s grand son)' }] }] }]; var myTpl = new Ext.XTemplate( '<tpl for=".">', '<div style="background-color: {color}; margin: 10px;">', '<b> Name :</b> {name}<br />', // how to make this over and over every child (while it has ) '<tpl if="typeof child !=\'undefined\'">', '<b> Child : </b>', '<tpl for="child">', '{name} <br />', '</tpl>', '</tpl>', /////////////////////////////////////// '</div>', '</tpl>' ); myTpl.compile(); myTpl.overwrite(document.body, tplData);

  Read the article

• vb.net, How can I limit a textchanged event for a textbox to keyboard input only?

  - by Luay

  Hi everyone, Please allow me to explain what I have and what I am trying to achieve. I have a textbox (called txtb1) and a button under it (called btn_browse) on a winform in a vb.net project. When the user clicks the button a folder browser dialog appears. The user selects his desired folder and when he/she clicks 'ok' the dialog closes and the path of the folder selected appears in the textbox. I also want to store that value in a variable to be used somewhere else(the value will be copied to an xml file when the user clicks 'apply' on the form, but this has no effect nor is related to my problem). To achieve that I have the following code: Public myVar As String Private Sub btn_browse_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btn_browse.Click Dim f As New FolderBrowserDialog If f.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then txtb1.Text = f.SelectedPath End If myVar = txtb1.text f.Dispose() End Sub This part works with no problems. Now, what if the user either: 1- decides to enter the path manually rather than use the browse button. or, 2- after using the browse button and selecting the folder they decide to manually change the location In trying to solve this I added a textchanged event to the textbox as follows: Private Sub txtb1_TextChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles txtb1.TextChanged myVar = txtb1.Text End Sub However, this is not working. Apparently, and I don't know if this is relevant, when the user selects the desired folder using the browse button the textchanged event is also triggered. and when I click on the textbox (to give it focus) and press any keyboard key the application simply stops responding. So my questions are: am I going about this the right way? if my logic is flawed, could someone point me to how usually such a thing could be achieved? is it possible to limit the triggering events to only keyboard input as a way around this? I tried the keydown and keypress events but I am getting the freeze. I would be grateful for your help. Thanks

  Read the article

• R plot- SGAM plot counts vs. time - how do I get dates on the x-axis?

  - by Nate

  I'd like to plot this vs. time, with the actual dates (years actually, 1997,1998...2010). The dates are in a raw format, ala SAS, days since 1960 (hence as.date conversion). If I convert the dates using as.date to variable x, and do the GAM plot, I get an error. It works fine with the raw day numbers. But I want the plot to display the years (data are not equally spaced). structure(list(site = c(928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L), date = c(13493L, 13534L, 13566L, 13611L, 13723L, 13752L, 13804L, 13837L, 13927L, 14028L, 14082L, 14122L, 14150L, 14182L, 14199L, 16198L, 16279L, 16607L, 16945L, 17545L, 17650L, 17743L, 17868L, 17941L, 18017L, 18092L), y = c(7L, 7L, 17L, 18L, 17L, 17L, 10L, 3L, 17L, 24L, 11L, 5L, 5L, 3L, 5L, 14L, 2L, 9L, 9L, 4L, 7L, 6L, 1L, 0L, 5L, 0L)), .Names = c("site", "date", "y"), class = "data.frame", row.names = c(NA, -26L)) sgam1 <- gam(sites$y ~ s(sites$date)) sgam <- predict(sgam1, se=TRUE) plot(sites$date,sites$y,xaxt="n", xlab='Time', ylab='Counts') x<-as.Date(sites$date, origin="1960-01-01") axis(1, at=1:26,labels=x) lines(sites$date,sgam$fit, lty = 1) lines(sites$date,sgam$fit + 1.96* sgam$se, lty = 2) lines(sites$date,sgam$fit - 1.96* sgam$se, lty = 2) ggplot2 has a solution (it doesn't mind the as.date thing) but it gives me other problems...

  Read the article

• Help me understand Inorder Traversal without using recursion

  - by vito

  I am able to understand preorder traversal without using recursion, but I'm having a hard time with inorder traversal. I just don't seem to get it, perhaps, because I haven't understood the inner working of recursion. This is what I've tried so far: def traverseInorder(node): lifo = Lifo() lifo.push(node) while True: if node is None: break if node.left is not None: lifo.push(node.left) node = node.left continue prev = node while True: if node is None: break print node.value prev = node node = lifo.pop() node = prev if node.right is not None: lifo.push(node.right) node = node.right else: break The inner while-loop just doesn't feel right. Also, some of the elements are getting printed twice; may be I can solve this by checking if that node has been printed before, but that requires another variable, which, again, doesn't feel right. Where am I going wrong? I haven't tried postorder traversal, but I guess it's similar and I will face the same conceptual blockage there, too. Thanks for your time! P.S.: Definitions of Lifo and Node: class Node: def __init__(self, value, left=None, right=None): self.value = value self.left = left self.right = right class Lifo: def __init__(self): self.lifo = () def push(self, data): self.lifo = (data, self.lifo) def pop(self): if len(self.lifo) == 0: return None ret, self.lifo = self.lifo return ret

  Read the article

• What is happening in this T-SQL code?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

  Read the article

• Designing bayesian networks

  - by devoured elysium

  I have a basic question about Bayesian networks. Let's assume we have an engine, that with 1/3 probability can stop working. I'll call this variable ENGINE. If it stops working, then your car doesn't work. If the engine is working, then your car will work 99% of the time. I'll call this one CAR. Now, if your car is old(OLD), instead of not working 1/3 of the time, your engine will stop working 1/2 of the time. I'm being asked to first design the network and then assign all the conditional probabilities associated with the table. I'd say the diagram of this network would be something like OLD -> ENGINE -> CAR Now, for the conditional probabilities tables I did the following: OLD |ENGINE ------------ True | 0.50 False | 0.33 and ENGINE|CAR ------------ True | 0.99 False | 0.00 Now, I am having trouble about how to define the probabilities of OLD. In my point of view, old is not something that has a CAUSE relationship with ENGINE, I'd say it is more a characteristic of it. Maybe there is a different way to express this in the diagram? If the diagram is indeed correct, how would I go to make the tables? Thanks

  Read the article

• java time check API

  - by ring bearer

  I am sure this was done 1000 times in 1000 different places. The question is I want to know if there is a better/standard/faster way to check if current "time" is between two time values given in hh:mm:ss format. For example, my big business logic should not run between 18:00:00 and 18:30:00. So here is what I had in mind: public static boolean isCurrentTimeBetween(String starthhmmss, String endhhmmss) throws ParseException{ DateFormat hhmmssFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyyMMddhh:mm:ss"); Date now = new Date(); String yyyMMdd = hhmmssFormat.format(now).substring(0, 8); return(hhmmssFormat.parse(yyyMMdd+starthhmmss).before(now) && hhmmssFormat.parse(yyyMMdd+endhhmmss).after(now)); } Example test case: String doNotRunBetween="18:00:00,18:30:00";//read from props file String[] hhmmss = downTime.split(","); if(isCurrentTimeBetween(hhmmss[0], hhmmss[1])){ System.out.println("NOT OK TO RUN"); }else{ System.out.println("OK TO RUN"); } What I am looking for is code that is better in performance in looks in correctness What I am not looking for third-party libraries Exception handling debate variable naming conventions method modifier issues

  Read the article

• dynamically created radiobuttonlist

  - by Janet

  Have a master page. The content page has a list with hyperlinks containing request variables. You click on one of the links to go to the page containing the radiobuttonlist (maybe). First problem: When I get to the new page, I use one of the variables to determine whether to add a radiobuttonlist to a placeholder on the page. I tried to do it in page)_load but then couldn't get the values selected. When I played around doing it in preInit, the first time the page is there, I can't get to the page's controls. (Object reference not set to an instance of an object.) I think it has something to do with the MasterPage and page content? The controls aren't instantiated until later? (using vb by the way) Second problem: Say I get that to work, once I hit a button, can I still access the passed request variable to determine the selected item in the radiobuttonlist? Protected Sub Page_PreInit(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.PreInit 'get sessions for concurrent Dim Master As New MasterPage Master = Me.Master Dim myContent As ContentPlaceHolder = CType(Page.Master.FindControl("ContentPlaceHolder1"), ContentPlaceHolder) If Request("str") = "1" Then Dim myList As dsSql = New dsSql() ''''instantiate the function to get dataset Dim ds As New Data.DataSet ds = myList.dsConSessionTimes(Request("eid")) If ds.Tables("conSessionTimes").Rows.Count > 0 Then Dim conY As Integer = 1 CType(myContent.FindControl("lblSidCount"), Label).Text = ds.Tables("conSessionTimes").Rows.Count.ToString Sorry to be so needy - but maybe someone could direct me to a page with examples? Maybe seeing it would help it make sense? Thanks....JB

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469  | Next Page >