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  • Hibernate not loading associated object

    - by Noor
    Hi, i am trying to load a hibernate object ForumMessage but in it contain another object Users and the Users object is not being loaded. My ForumMessage Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <!-- Generated Jan 4, 2011 10:10:29 AM by Hibernate Tools 3.4.0.Beta1 --> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumMessage" table="FORUMMESSAGE"> <id name="ForumMessageId" type="long"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGEID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="ForumMessage" type="java.lang.String"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGE" /> </property> <many-to-one name="User" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.Users" fetch="join"> <column name="UserId" /> </many-to-one> <property name="DatePosted" type="java.util.Date"> <column name="DATEPOSTED" /> </property> <many-to-one name="Topic" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumTopic" fetch="join"> <column name="TopicId" /> </many-to-one> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and I am using the follwing code: Session session = gileadHibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().openSession(); SQL="from ForumMessage"; System.out.println(SQL); Query query=session.createQuery(SQL); System.out.println(query.list().size()); return new LinkedList <ForumMessage>(query.list());

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  • Spring MVC managing multiple views with single controller

    - by Sudhir
    I am trying to implement order management module. There are different order types (approximately about 15). Each order has a seperate view. But the actions performed on UI are same irrespective of order type. Below is the structure of my DTO abstract class Order abstract class SecurityOrder extends Order abstract class TermDepositOrder extends Order ..... ..... ..... I am trying to implement a single controller capable of managing all views. Something similar to the one below: @Controller public class OrderController<F extends Order> { public F validate(F order) { } public F insert(F order) { } } I am not sure how spring mvc would be able to map request parameters properly to the order instance as it doesn't know which order instance to populate. Is it possible to achieve this with single controller or should I go with a controller for each order type and duplicate same code across all controllers?

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  • Help using recursion in Java

    - by Mercer
    I have a class Group. In the class I have two fields, idGroup IdGroupGroup. Groups may be part of other groups. My class Group is defined in a HashMap<Integer,Integer>; the key is IdGroupGroup and value is idGroup. I want to search the map for a particular idGroup; can I use recursion to do this?

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  • Where do you put non-controller classes in codeigniter?

    - by sprugman
    I've got a class Widgets. Widgets are made up of Doohickies. I'm never going to need to access Doohickies directly via url -- they're essentially a private class, only used by Widgets. Where do you put your code to define the Doohicky class? In /app/controllers/doohicky.php? in app/controllers/widget.php? somewhere else? Obviously, the former seems cleaner, but it's not obvious to me how to make the Doohicky class available to Widget.

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • Why timed lock doesnt throws a timeout exception in C++0x?

    - by Vicente Botet Escriba
    C++0x allows to lock on a mutex until a given time is reached, and return a boolean stating if the mutex has been locked or not. template <class Clock, class Duration> bool try_lock_until(const chrono::time_point<Clock, Duration>& abs_time); In some contexts, I consider an exceptional situation that the locking fails because of timeout. In this case an exception should be more appropriated. To make the difference a function lock_until could be used to get a timeout exception when the time is reached before locking. template <class Clock, class Duration> void lock_until(const chrono::time_point<Clock, Duration>& abs_time); Do you think that lock_until should be more adequate in some contexts? if yes, on which ones? If no, why try_lock_until will always be a better choice?

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  • connecting to multiple resources

    - by Dudu
    I would like to know if there is a way to connect to multiple resources: Specifically I have the following problem abstact class BaseClass { ObservableCollection<BaseClass>; } class GrandSonClass:BaseClass{} class SonClass:BaseClass{} class FatherClass:BaseClass { CollectionViewSource col = new CollectionViewSource ; col.Source = Items.SelectMany(p => p.Items); } FatherClass's Items are of ChildrenClass type, and ChildrenClass's Items are of GrandSonClass type; I want FatherClass to bind to all the GrandSonClass's items it possesses. The solution of using SelectMany is not good as I need this to be dynamically updated whenever FatherClass adds more Items and whenever its Items(SonClasses) add more Items. Now I could go on and write notifiaction events but I was wondering if there is a smarter way to do it -i.e. simply define the sources as the Items of each Item FatherClass posses

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  • Directly Jump to another C++ function

    - by maligree
    I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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  • Can't declare an abstract method private....

    - by Zombies
    I want to do this, yet I can't. Here is my scenario and rational. I have an abstract class for test cases that has an abstract method called test(). The test() method is to be defined by the subclass; it is to be implemented with logic for a certain application, such as CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase. I don't want the test() method to be invoked directly, I want the super class to call the test() method while the sub class can call a method which calls this (and does other work too, such as setting a current date-time right before the test is executed for example). Example code: public abstract class CompanyTestCase { //I wish this would compile, but it cannot be declared private private abstract void test(); public TestCaseResult performTest() { //do some work which must be done and should be invoked whenever //this method is called (it would be improper to expect the caller // to perform initialization) TestCaseResult result = new TestCaseResult(); result.setBeginTime(new Date()); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); test(); //invoke test logic result.setDuration(System.currentTimeMillis() - time); return result; } } Then to extend this.... public class CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase { public void test() { //test logic here } } Then to call it.... TestCaseResult result = new CRMAppTestCase().performTest();

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  • Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

    - by Steve N
    Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

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  • @Resource annotation is null at run-time.

    - by Andrew
    I'm using GlassFish v3. The following field is declared in a class: @Resource private javax.sql.DataSource _data_source; The following is declare in web.xml: <data-source <namejava:app/env/data</name <class-namecom.mysql.jdbc.Driver</class-name <server-namelocalhost</server-name <port-number3306</port-number <usermyUser</user <passwordmyPass</password </data-source At run-time _data_source is empty. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Scala : reference is ambiguous (imported twice)

    - by tk
    I want to use a method as a parameter of another method of the same class. I have a class and objects which are companions: class mM(var elem:Matrix){ //apply a function on a dimension rows (1) or cols (2) def app(func:Iterable[Double]=>Double)(dim : Int) : Matrix = { ... } //utility function def logsumexp(): Double = {...} } object mM{ def apply(elem:Matrix):mM={new mM(elem)} def logsumexp(elem:Iterable[Double]): Double ={ this.apply(elem.asInstanceOf[Matrix]).logsumexp() } } Normally I use logsumexp like this mM(matrix).logsumexp but if want to apply it to the rows I can't use mM(matrix).app(mM.logsumexp)(1), I get the error: error: reference to mM is ambiguous; it is imported twice in the same scope by import mM and import mM What is the most elegant solution ? Should I change logsumexp() to another class ? Thanks,=)

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  • How to save to two tables using one SQLAlchemy model

    - by Oatman
    I have an SQLAlchemy ORM class, linked to MySQL, which works great at saving the data I need down to the underlying table. However, I would like to also save the identical data to a second archive table. Here's some psudocode to try and explain what I mean my_data = Data() #An ORM Class my_data.name = "foo" #This saves just to the 'data' table session.add(my_data) #This will save it to the identical 'backup_data' table my_data_archive = my_data my_data_archive.__tablename__ = 'backup_data' session.add(my_data_archive) #And commits them both session.commit() Just a heads up, I am not interested in mapping a class to a JOIN, as in: http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#mapping-a-class-against-multiple-tables

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  • jquery.hover on iphone

    - by Sam
    I use jquery.hover to toggle a class when someone mouses over a link. On the iphone when someone taps the link, it toggles the class on, but it doesn't ever toggle the class off until they tap somewhere else.

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  • Polymorphism and c#

    - by saurabh
    Here one more basic question asked in MS interview recently Class A { public virtual void Method1(){} public void Method2() { Method1(); } } class B:A { public override void Method1() { } } Class main { A obk = new B(); obk.Method2(); } now tell me which function gets called ? sorry for the typos.

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  • Debug.writeline locks

    - by Carra
    My program frequently stops with a deadlock. When I do a break-all and look at the threads I see that three threads are stuck in our logging function: public class Logging { public static void WriteClientLog(LogLevel logLevel, string message) { #if DEBUG System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(String.Format("{0} {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"), message)); //LOCK #endif //...Log4net logging } } If I let the program continue the threads are still stuck on that line. I can't see where this can lock. The debug class, string class & datetime class seem to be thread safe. The error goes away when I remove the "#if DEBUG System... #endif" code but I'm curious why this behavior happens. Thread one: public void CleanCache() { Logging.WriteClientLog(LogLevel.Debug, "Start clean cache.");//Stuck } Thread two: private void AliveThread() { Logging.WriteClientLog(LogLevel.Debug, "Check connection");//Stuck }

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  • Events + Adapter Pattern

    - by Stretto
    I have an adapter pattern on a generic class that essentially adapts between types: class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; } } The problem is that A contains an event. I effectively want all event handlers assigned to Adapter to fall through to a. It would be awesome if I could assign the a's event handler to adapter's event handler but this is impossible? The idea here is that A is almost really just A but we need a way to adapt the them. Because of the way event's work I can't how to efficiently do it except manually add two event handlers and when they are called they "relay" the to the other event. This isn't pretty though and it would seem much nicer if I could have something like class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { event *e; A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; e = a.e; } } in a sense we have a pointer to the event that we can assign a2's event to. I doubt there is any simple way but maybe someone has some idea to make it work. (BTW, I realize this is possible with virtual events but I'd like to avoid this if at all possible)

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  • Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

    - by WesleyE
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • Can this PHP function be improved?

    - by jasondavis
    Below is some code I am working on for a navigation menu, if you are on a certain page, it will add a "current" css class to the proper tab. I am curious if there is a better way to do this in PHP because it really seems like a lot of code to do such a simple task? My pages will also have a jquery library already loaded, would it be better to set the tab with jquery instead of PHP? Any tips appreciated <?PHP active_header('page identifier goes here'); //ie; 'home' or 'users.online' function active_header($page_name) { // arrays for header menu selector $header_home = array('home' => true); $header_users = array( 'users.online' => true, 'users.online.male' => true, 'users.online.female' => true, 'users.online.friends' => true, 'users.location' => true, 'users.featured' => true, 'users.new' => true, 'users.browse' => true, 'users.search' => true, 'users.staff' => true ); $header_forum = array('forum' => true); $header_more = array( 'widgets' => true, 'news' => true, 'promote' => true, 'development' => true, 'bookmarks' => true, 'about' => true ); $header_money = array( 'account.money' => true, 'account.store' => true, 'account.lottery' => true, 'users.top.money' => true ); $header_account = array('account' => true); $header_mail = array( 'mail.inbox' => true, 'mail.sentbox' => true, 'mail.trash' => true, 'bulletins.post' => true, 'bulletins.my' => true, 'bulletins' => true ); // set variables if there array value exist if (isset($header_home[$page_name])){ $current_home = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_users[$page_name])){ $current_users = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_forum[$page_name])){ $current_forum = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_more[$page_name])){ $current_more = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_money[$page_name])){ $current_money = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_account[$page_name])){ $current_account = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_mail[$page_name])){ $current_mail = 'current'; } // show the links echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_home) ? $current_home : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Home</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_users) ? $current_users : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Users</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_forum) ? $current_forum : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Forum</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_more) ? $current_more : '') . '"><a href=""><em>More</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_money) ? $current_money : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Money</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_account) ? $current_account : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Account</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_mail) ? $current_mail : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Mail</em></a></li>'; } ?>

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  • Do I always need to rebuild the project containing references to sub project's dll, if sub projects

    - by Puneet Dudeja
    I have a solution containing 4 class library projects and one "web site" project. The web site project contains references to the 3 class library projects, whenever I make changes in any of the class library projects, the only option I see is to rebuild the web site which takes a lot of time. Is there any option that I can only update the dll references and the changes are reflected in the web site project ?

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  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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  • Java Thread Message Passing

    - by pkulak
    I'm writing an Android app. I have a main method, which creates and runs a new Thread using an anonymous inner Runnable class. The run() method, when it's done, calls a method on it's parent class (in the main thread) that calls notifyDataSetChanged() so that the main thread can redraw the new data. This is causing all kinds of trouble (ViewRoot$CalledFromWrongThreadException). The thing is, this method being called from the worker thread is on the class that's created in the UI thread. Shouldn't that be running on the UI thread? Or am I missing something? Here's some code about what I'm talking about: public class Mealfire extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { (new Thread() { public void run() { // Do a bunch of slow network stuff. update(); } }).start(); } private void update() { myAdapter.notifyDatasetChanged(); } }

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  • Ruby Metaprogramming

    - by Veerendra Manikonda
    I am having a method which returns the price of a given symbol and i am writing a test for that method. This is my test def setup @asset = NetAssetValue.new end def test_retrieve_price_for_symbol_YHOO assert_equal(33.987, @asset.retrieve_price_for_a_symbol('YHOO')) end def test_retrive_price_for_YHOO def self.retrieve_price_for_a_symbol(symbol) 33.77 end assert_equal(33.97, @asset.retrieve_price_for_a_symbol('YHOO')) end This is my method. def retrieve_price_for_a_symbol(symbol) symbol_price = { "YHOO" => 33.987, "UPS" => 35.345, "T" => 80.90 } raise Exception if(symbol_price[symbol].nil?) symbol_price[symbol] end I am trying to mock the retrieve_price_for_a_symbol method by writing same method in test class but when i call it, the call is happening to method in main class not in the test class. How do I add that method to meta class from test and how do i call it? Please help.

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  • Parse xml file with same tag multiple times iphone sdk

    - by neha
    Hi all, In my application, I have a tag multiple times. I'm using xml parser. I'm taking a corresponding element with similar name as the one in xml file in my class. So in case of: <photo>abc</photo> <photo>def</photo> What I get in photo element of my class is the second element i.e def, as the first one gets overwritten as there's only one photo element in my class. My question is am I wrong in taking similar elements in class as in case of xml? Is there any better method or a better parser? Or I'm on right path and have to do this manually by setting some flags etc? Thanx in advance.

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